Dispensing (Blue) Flashcards
1
Q
Upon dispensing the pharmacist what is the vital information can the pharmacist give when a patient buys calcium supplement.
A. Calcium’s absorption is enhance with Vitamin D
B. Calcium’s absorption is enhance with Vitamin E
C. Calcium’s absorption is deterred with Vitamin D
D. Calcium’s absorption is deterred with Vitamin E
A
a
2
Q
What would be the appropriate auxillary label one can use in dispensing system A. For external use only B. Store in a cool dry place C. Shake the bottle before using D. Both B and C
A
c
3
Q
A patient asks what constitutes Combivent. Combivent is a combination of
I . Ipratropium Br
II. Albuterol SO4
III. Metaproterenol
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. AOTA
A
b
4
Q
If the dispensing order requires the insulin that has the shortest duration of action and the fastest onset of action, then the insulin to be given is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Humulin R B. Lantus C. Humaloq D. Novoloq
A
d
5
Q
The strength of folic acid in OTC vitamins should not exceed A. 1 mg B. 10 mg C. 0.4 mg D. 10 mcg
A
C
6
Q
The medication requires Sumatriptan which is mainly indicated for treatment of:
A. Cancer therapy induced nausea and vomiting
B. Migraine
C. Depression
D. Seizure
A
B
7
Q
Which of the following anti HPN helps in the treatment of diabetes? A. Verapramil B. Enalapril C. HCTZ D. Amiloride
A
B
8
Q
A patient with antabuse for his treatment of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following product(s) should taken with antabuse? I. Theophylline Na glycinate Elixir II. Theophylline elixir III. Theophylline tablet
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only not be D. All of the choices given
A
B
9
Q
A patient under Ketorac treatment should avoid the following drugs except: A. Meclizine B. Cefotetan C. Gold compound D. Methotrexate
A
C
10
Q
After initiation therapy, Mr. J.T suddenly suffers from spasm of the face and neck. Which of the following drug(s) should not be given to alleviate the above symptoms?
I. Diazepam injection
II. Diphenhydramine
III. Benztropine
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the above
A
C
11
Q
When dispensing Ferrous sulfate vitamin to a patient, which precaution should Pharmacist give to the patient?
A. Avoid tea or coffee because it reduces iron absorption by as much 50%
B. Avoid vitamin A because it reduces iron absorption.
C. Avoid Tetracycline because it activates iron.
D. Avoid Aspirin because iron can cause elevated levels of aspirin in the blood.
A
A. Avoid tea or coffee because it reduces iron absorption by as much 50%
12
Q
Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing prescription? A. Check the legal requirements B. Dispense the correct product C. Provide patient advice D. Inaptness of the prescription
A
d
13
Q
Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Brufen?
A. Do not take anything containing aspirin while taking this medicine.
B. This medicine may color the urine.
C. Take with or after food.
D. Do not take indigestion remedies at the same time of day as this medicine.
A
C. Take with or after food.
14
Q
Which of the following drugs should be avoided by patient with liver disease as this may increase risk of bone marrow suppression? A. Apomorphine B. Chloramphenicol C. Antacids D. Carbamazepine
A
B
15
Q
Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take NSAID’s drugs during the entire period of
pregnancy because:
A. With regular use closure of fetal ductus arteriosus in utero may occur.
B. Risk of neural tube defects may be increased.
C. Placental perfusion may be reduced.
D. Genital malformations and cardiac defects may be developed.
A
A. With regular use closure of fetal ductus arteriosus in utero may occur.
16
Q
Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Nalidixic? A. Avoid alcoholic drink.
B. May cause drowsiness.
C. Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.
D. Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor’s advice.
A
c
17
Q
Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take Theophylline during the entire period of pregnancy because:
A. Possibility of premature separation of placenta in first 18 weeks may occur.
B. Neonatal irritability and apnea may develop
C. Congenital anomalies may develop.
D. Neonatal respiration may be depressed.
A
b
18
Q
In evaluating the appropriateness of the prescription and medication order, the pharmacist should check the following, except:
A. The patient’s disease or condition requiring treatment.
B. The prescribed route of administration.
C. The biological action of the prescribed product.
D. The auxiliary and cautionary labels
A
d
19
Q
In selection of the proper package or container, the pharmacist choose the container that: A. Ensure the product stability B. Comply with legal requirements C. Promote patient compliance D. All of the choices given
A
d
20
Q
In order to ensure proper medication use, storage and compliance with applicable statutes, what should be affixed on the label of the drug? A. expiration date of the mediation B. Auxillary and/or cautionary labels C. Quantity of medication dispensed D. Product strength
A
B. Auxillary and/or cautionary labels
21
Q
It is a part of patient profile which is necessary to assess the appropriateness of the dose: A. Birth date and weight B. Clinical condition C. Direction for use D. Medication strength
A
a
22
Q
In performing therapeutic intervention, the following information should be communicated to the prescriber, except:
A. Brief description of the problem
B. Reference source that documents the problem
C. Description of the clinical significance of the problem
D. Possible physical and chemical incompatibility
A
D. Possible physical and chemical incompatibility
23
Q
Detection of drug-related problems requires an assessment of the need for a change in drug therapy. Possible problem includes the following, except: A.Inappropriate compliance B. Dose too low C. Wrong drug D. Undiagnosed condition
A
d
24
Q
In dispensing antifungal medication for skin, the patient should be instructed to:
A. Exposure to air whenever possible
B. Use caution with Povidone-iodine in anyone with allergies
C. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing
D. Avoid combination of cholinergic medications
A
A. Exposure to air whenever possible
25
In dispensing Accutane for acne, which is the most appropriate instruction that should be given to the patient?
A. Avoid multivitamins that contain Vitamin A
B. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing
C. Avoid prolong use
D. Discontinue and seek medical aid if irritation occurs
A. Avoid multivitamins that contain Vitamin A
26
What is the most appropriate patient education for those undergoing ulcer therapies?
A. Avoid Cigarette smoking, this seems to decrease the effectiveness of medicine in the healing of duodenal ulcers
B. Adequate fluid intake and bland diet.
C. Aboid self medication for longer than 48 hours D. Regular exercise to develop muscle tone.
a
27
```
It is an example of eutectic substance
A. Aspirin
B. Camphor
C. Citirc acid
D. Color formation
```
C
28
```
Which is not a manifestation of chemical incompatibility?
A. Evolution of gas
B. Immiscibility
C. Precipitation
D. Color formation
```
B
29
```
The term applied to reaction of organic compounds with water resulting in fragmentation into its component molecule is:
A. Ionic hydrolysis
B. Molecular hydrolysis
C. Simple hydrolysis
D. None of the above
```
B. Molecular hydrolysis
30
It is classified as one of the human errors in dispensing, which are always physical in nature and are defined as
unintended actions rather than as error in judgment.
A. Slips
B. Lapses
C. Mistakes
D. None of the above
A
31
```
It is classified an error in dispensing which is usually either due to inattention or over attention
A. Knowledged-basesd error
B. Rule-based error
C. Medication-based error
D. Skill-based error
```
D. Skill-based error
32
```
Which is not an example of slips of human error?
A. Fatigue
B. Forgetfulness
C. Boredom
D. Frustration
```
B
33
```
It is classified as one of the human ewrrors in dispensing, which largely refer to failures in memory
A. Slips
B. Lapses
C. Mistakes
D. Rule-based error
```
B
34
Before dispensing Theophylline prescription, Pharmacist must advise the patient to:
A. Avoid acid foods like orange juice and tomato
B. Take food rich in lipids.
C. Take on an empty stomach with a glass of water
D. Take with foods but avoid foods rich in protein and cabbages.
d
35
```
It is classified as an error in dispensing which are usually due to either the misapplication of good rules/ procedures, or application of bad rules/ procedures.
A. Knowledge-based error
B. Medication-based error
C.Rule-based error
D. Skill-based error
```
C
36
```
It is an error in judgment, and in most situations, it is made as either a failure of expertise or lack of experience.
A. Slips
B. Lapses
C. Mistakes
D. Skill-based error
```
C
37
```
The following drugs should be taken on an empty and with a glass full of water, except:
A. Tetracycline .
B. Metronidazole
C. Rifampicin
D. Lincomycin
```
B
38
```
It is the most complex error type which is made within the realm of problem solving and judgment.
A. Knowledged-based error
B.Medication-based error
C.Rule-based error
D. Skill based error
```
A. Knowledged-based error
39
Situation(s) in which Pharmacists are more likely to make mistakes in dispensing.
A. Excessive reliance on memory and lack of standardisation
B. Inadequate availability of information
C. A only
D. Both A and B
D
40
The benefits of electronic prescribing and dispensing are the following, except:
A. Rapid information exchange
B. Better clarity and communication of prescription information
C. Amplify fraud risks present in the paper – based process
D. Improved confidentiality and security of health information
C
41
```
Common errors in dispensing can result from:
A. Unfamiliarity with drug names
B. Similar packaging or labeling
C. Newly available products
D. All of the choices given
```
D
42
In the management of chronic conditions, Pharmacist can help by:
A. Demonstrating the value of pharmacy
B. Helping in developing local “shared care” protocols
C. Training for other professionals and careers
D. Developing drugs
B
43
Computerized patient medication records allow Pharmacist to:
A. Counsel the patient on the appropriate use of medicines
B. Monitor patient compliance
C. Provide health promotion information
D. All of the above
B
44
The medication dispensing area should be designed to prevent errors by:
A. Providing staffing and other resources appropriate to the workloads
B. Taking action when adverse reactions occur
C. Storing requirements of the medication
D. Providing accurate and usable drug information.
A
45
```
45. Duty of Pharmacy assistants in dispensing process, except:
A. Record and file the prescription
B.Get the payment for the product
C. Deliver the drug product
D. Give the price of the product
```
A
46
In order for the Pharmacist to adhere to the standard dispensing procedures, he/she must not:
A. Verify doubtful prescriptions from the paitent
B. Checked dose limits
C. Checked the potential interaction between any medicine currenlty taken and the drug on the prescription D. Advise the patient on the proper use of the medications.
A
47
In the dispensing of outpaitent medication, the pharmacist mus not do the following, except: A. review all appropriate information regarding prescription refills
B. Be personally present for supervision
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
D
48
Which of the following conditions is/ are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Fentanyl with Sufentanil or vice versa?
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference between the two drugs
B. Severe toxicity and death
C. Decline in mental status
D. Cardiovascular complications
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference between the two drugs
49
Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Cisplatin with Carboplatin or vice versa?
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference between the two drugs
B. Severe toxicity and death
C. Decline in mental status
D. Cardiovascular complications
B. Severe toxicity and death
50
Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Celebrex with Cerebryx or vice versa?
A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs
B. Severe toxicity and death
C. Decline in mental status
D. Cardiovascular complications
C. Decline in mental status
51
According to the FDA, pharmacist can help in fixing the problem of drug name confusion through the following means, except:
A. Verifying with the doctor information that is not clear before filling a prescription
B. Keeping look-alike, sound-alike products separated from one another on pharmacy shelves
C. Avoiding stocking the multiple product sizes together
D. Separate the products of the same packaging
D
52
According to the FDA, pharmacist can help in fixing the problem of drug name confusion through the following means, except:
A. Verifying with the doctor information that is not clear before filling a prescription
B. Keeping look-alike, sound-alike products separated from one another on pharmacy shelves
C. Avoiding stocking the multiple product sizes together
D. Separate the products of the same packaging
D
53
What is the most common cause of medication errors?
A. Miscommunication between physicians, pharmacist and nurses
B. Incomplete patient medication information
C. Misunderstood abbreviations
D. Illegible doctor’s writing on the prescriptions
A
54
```
It is defined as any preventable event occurring in the medication-use process, including prescribing, transcribing, dispensing, using and monitoring, which results in inappropriate medication use or patient harm.
A. Prescribing error
B. Medication error
C. Dispensing error
D. Knowledged-based error
```
B
55
```
An error which occurs when a patient is given a medication other than the one intended by the prescriber.
A. Prescribing error
B. Medication error
C. Dispensing error
D. Knowledged-based error
```
C
56
```
A physical incompatibility wherin 2 or more liquids fail to dissolve or mix with one another.
A. Insolubility
B. Immiscibility
C. Precipitation
D. Liquefaction
```
B
57
```
Forms of liquefaction where there is lowering of melting point of the substances lower than their individual melting point.
A. Eutexia
B. Hygroscopy
C. Deliquescence
D. All of the above
```
A
58
```
A type of drug action which is vanishing and disappearing gradually.
A. Evanescent
B. Steady
C. Cumulative
D. All of the above
```
A
59
Bulk-forming laxatives are the choice for older adults or laxative-dependent patients. Patients who are using this laxative should be strictly instructed by the pharmacist to
A. Avoid its use longer than one week without medical supervision
B. Discontinue if any signs of diarrhea or abdominal pain occurs.
C. Dissolve the laxative in one full glass of water and followed by another glass of fluid to prevent obstruction
D. Avoid exposure to sunlight
C
60
The following are instructions necessary to patients who are taking decongestant, except:
A. To be used only for few days to avoid rebound congestion.
B. To be avoided when cardiac and thyroid conditions are present
C. To discontinue when its side effects set in, such as nervousness, tremor, headache, etc.
D. To avoid all estrogen and progestin products.
D
61
```
Celeberex is contraindicated for those individuals allergic to which of the following drugs?
A. Penicillin
B. Aspirin
C. Sulfa Drugs
D. Quinolones
```
B
62
```
The following are the common causes of medication errors, except:
A. Failed communication
B. Dose miscalculations
C.Lack of the patient education
D. All of the choices given
```
D
63
```
A type of incompatibility which occurs when norepinephrine is added to sodium carbonate.
A. Physical incompatibility
B. Chemical incompatibility
C. Therapeutic incompatibility
D. All of the choices given
```
A
64
```
Incompatibility problems are common in mixtures containing;
A. Mannitol
C. Bicarbonate
C. Nutritional solutions
D. All of the choices given
```
D
65
Which of the following drugs must be protected from light during administration to maintain their stability?
A. Na nitroprusside and Amphotericin B
B. Gentamicin and Heparin
C. Penicillin and Chloramphenicol D. Erythromycin and Penicillin
A
66
A patient is carrying prescription of Ampicillin, which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to the patients upon dispensing?
A. Take with food
B. Do not take with food
C. Avoid foods rich in proteins
D. Taken on an empty stomach with a glass of water and avoid acid foods
D
67
```
Factors commonly associated with chemical incompatibility for I.V. admixtures except:
A. Drug concentration
B. pH of the solution
C. Color change
D. Temperature and light
```
C
68
The incompatibility which occurs between Chloramphenicol and Penicillin.
A. Chloramphenicol potentiates the effect of Penicillin
B. Chloramphenicol antagonizes the Penicillin’s antibacterial action
C. Penicillin inhibits Chloramphenicol antibacterial action
D. Synergistic effect of Penicillin with Chloramphenicol
B. Chloramphenicol antagonizes the Penicillin’s antibacterial action
69
```
The following factors can affect the compatibility of an I.V. drug or solution, except:
A. Light
B. Pressure
C. Contact time
D. Temperature
```
B. Pressure
70
```
Incompatibbility which occurs when Heparin solution is mixed with an intermittent Aminoglycosides infusion is
manifested with the following, except:
A. Precipitation
B. Color change
C. Gas bubbles
D. Cloudiness
```
D
71
An incompatibility observed when Amiodarone HCl 12.5 mg /mL is mixed with Clavulanic acid 10 mg/mL.
A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)
B. Immediate yellow coloring
C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate
D. Immediate Opalescence
A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)
72
An incompatibility observed when Rifampicin 6mg/mL is mixed with Tramadol 8.33 mg/mL
A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)
B. Immediate yellow coloring
C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate
D. Immediate Opalescence
C
73
An incompatibility observed when Pantopropazole 8mg/mL is mixed with Midazolam 0.1 mg/mL
A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance)
B. Immediate yellow coloring
C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate
D. Immediate Opalescence
B
74
All of the following instruction must be given by the pharmacist to the patients who are going to take digitalis, except:
A. Avoid abrupt withdrawal after prolonged use; must be reduced gradually under physician supervision.
B. Avoid all OTC medications, especially antacids and cold remedies.
C. Avoid changing with other brand or dosage form for it may act differently
D. Rise slowly from reclining position
D
75
Patient education for inhaled corticosteroid treatment would include all of the following except: A. Rinse equipment after use
B. Use of bronchodilator
C. Expect dry mouth
D. Rinse mouth after
B
76
Patients who are going to take antihistamines must be advised by the Pharmacist to avoid its use for a longer period of time because:
A. It can increase bronchial or nasal congestion and dry cough.
B. It can cause nervousness, tremors, dizziness and conclusion C. It can increase blood pressure
D. It can increase blood sugar
A
77
```
The following are effects of food on drugs, except:
A. Change drugs absorption
B. Neutralize drug effects
C. Interact with drugs
D. Influence their absorption
```
D
78
```
Patients who are using oral contraceptives should be informed by the Pharamcist that its frequent use can result in a deficiency of which vitamin B?
A. Vitamin B5
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12
```
C
79
Which of the following advises can you give to the patients on Griseofulvin therapy?
A. Take with foods rich in lipids
B. Avoid food rich in proteins and cabbages C. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
D. Avoid acid foods
A
80
Vitamins are considered drugs if/when; A. They are prescribed
B. They are recommended
C. They are used for pharmacological effects
D. Vitamins are not drugs, they are nutrients
C
81
```
Large intake of this vitamin can cause CNS malformations, cleft palate and other severe fetal defects. Which of the following vitamins should not be taken by pregnant women due to its severe fetal defects?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin D
```
A
82
```
Zinc taken during pregnancy can cause:
A. Premature deliveries
B. Stillbirths
C. Liver damage
D. Both A and B
```
D
83
Benefits derived from good physician-patient interaction, except;
A. Patient’s compliance with therapy
B. Patient’s have more trust in their caregiver
C. reduced resistance to therapy and management
D. Increase patient’s self-medication
D
84
```
When the pharmacist is faced with a prescription they are not familiar with, they may read it as something they are familiar with and this called
A. Drug confusion
B. Confirmation bias
C. Lapses
D. Wrong dispensing
```
B
85
Medication errors due to failed communication, except;
A. Poor handwriting
B. Mispronunciation of a medication is not the same.
C. Doses normally used with the medication are not the same.
D. hastily written prescription
C
86
The following are the benefits of electronic dispensing, except:
A. Boost fraud risks present in the paper-based process.
B. Improved confidentiality and security of helath information
C. Better clarity and communication of prescription information
D. More time for consumers with health professionals due to less paperwork.
A
87
```
Based on 2005 survey, the most frequent error(s) in dispensing inappropriate dose is /are:
A. No actual problem
B. Lack of knowledge of the drug
C. Poor communication
D. All of the above
```
B
88
```
Most common types of medication error in community setting, except:
A. Incorrect dose
B. Quantity not specified
C. Substitution
D. Dose not specified
```
C
89
```
An error committed when a person begins to lose focus.
A. Skill-based error
B. Knowledge-based error
C. Rule-based error
D. Lapses
```
A
90
90. the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Diclofenac sodium.
A. Taken with or after food
B. Taken an hour before food or an empty stomach
C. Dissolved under the tongue
D. This medicine may color the urine.
A
91
```
Pregnant woman should be advised not to take ACE inhibitors due to its adverse effect(s) which include(s):
A. Possible skull defects
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Both A and B
D. Impaired platelet function
```
C. Both A and B
92
```
Reconstituted Acyclovir sodium has a pH of 11, this can destabilize drugs such as ______ which oxidize rapidly at high pH. Which among the drugs can be destabilized when mixed with Acyclovir?
A. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine and Dopamine
C. Acetycholine and Norepinephrine
D. Acetycholine and Dopamine
```
B
93
Acyclovir when mixed with HCl salts of amine containing drugs, like Diltiazem HCl, Meperidine HCl, etc., will
show an incompatibility will be produced?
A. Color change
B. Evolution of gas
C. Insolubility
D. Precipitation
D
94
```
The following are drugs which should not be mixed with drug containing surfactants because it may produce precipitation and cloudiness, except:
A. Benzyl alcohol
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Gentamicin
D. Penicillin
```
B
95
Which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to patients on Hydrochlorothiazide therapy?
A. Take with or without food, but always on the same condition.
B. Avoid foods rich in Vitamin K.
C. Not take after 18 o’ clock so that it doesn’t interfere with the sleep.
D. Take with food rich in lipids.
C
96
```
Beta-lactam anitbiotics Penicillin and Ampicillin show accelerated hydrolysis when mixed with drugs like:
A. Dopamine
B. Erythromycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Carbenicillin
```
A
97
```
Degradation of Gentamicin may occur when :
A. There is a decrease in pH
B. Diluted of antioxidants
C. Diluted of surfactants
D. Diluted of salts
```
B
98
According to ASHP, the stability of unpreserved parenteral is:
A. Within 1 week if refrigerated
B. Within 1 month if frozen
C. 28 hours from preparation if stored at room temperature
D. AOTA
D
99
Patients who are using Naproxen sodium should be advised by the pharmacist to:
A. Take the medicine with food and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes.
B. Take the medicine on an empty stomach and stay erect during 15 minutes to 30 minutes
C. Take 20 minutes before meals
D. Avoid acid foods
A
100
Patients on Tetracycline therapy should be advised by the pharmacist to:
A. Take on empty stomach and with a glass of water B. Stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes
C. Avoid drinking milk
D. All of the above
D
101
```
The following drugs shold be taken 20 minutes before meals, except:
A. Verapramil
B. Meyoclopramide
C. Prednisone
D. Furosemide
```
C
102
Before dispensing ferrous sulfate vitamin to patients, the Pharmacist must counsel the patient with the following advises, except:
A. Do not take together with milk
B. Avoid foods rich in proteins
C. Take with food it causes gastric disturbance
D. Swallow the drug without chewing
B
103
```
Acid produces ulcer and patients with ulcers should not be given with _______ drug because it is acid- producing
A. Antihistamine
B. Antibacterial
C. Diuretic
D. Antidepressant
```
A
104
```
General factors to be considered indulging the safety of a prescribed dose except;
A. Physiological states of the patient
B. Pathologic condition of the patient
C. Frequency of administration
D. Site of absorption of the drug
```
D
105
```
When the combined effects of 2 drugs are equal to the sum of their individual effect, it is known as:
A. Potentiation
B. Synergism
C. Summation
D. Additive
```
C
106
```
If the combined effects are equal to those expected for drugs acting by the same mechanisms.
A. Potentiation
B. Synergism
C. Summation
D. Additive
```
D
107
```
Kwell, used to treat lice infestations, is contraindicated in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Infancy
B. Obesity
C. Pregnancy
D. Older fault
```
B
108
```
The following precautions must be instructed to the patients with the use antacids, except:
A. Blurred vision
B. Constipation
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Osteoporosis
```
A
109
```
Reduction of gastric juices by anti-ulcer agents on a regular basis for extended periods can deplete an intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of which vitamin B?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin B6
```
C
110
```
Patients on Isoniazid therapy should be strictly advised by the Pharmacist not to take ______ because of increase possibility of liver toxicity
A. Phenytoin
B. Corticosteroid
C. Alcohol
D. Warfarin
```
C
111
```
The pharmacist should advise patient to avoid sunlight when she or he is on:
I. HCTZ
II. Thioridazine
III. Tetracycline
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
D
112
```
All of the following are adverse effects of gold compounds except:
A. Diarrhea
B. Abdominal pain
C. Stomatitis
D. Lipoatropy
```
D
113
```
Which of the following antihistamine(s) is/are nonsedative histamines?
I. Cetirizine
II. Terfenadine
III. Astemizole
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
D
114
```
The minimum weighable quantity for class A prescription balance is:
A. 100 mg
B. 80 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 120 mg
```
D
115
Mr. Edward Cullen is taking Verapramil SR 240 mg for the treatment of his BP. The pharmacist may tell him
that he must be careful using the following drugs except:
A. Atenolol
B. Digoxin
C. Disopyramide
D. Indomethacin
B
116
```
Which of the following drugs should not be used for more than 10 days for allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Ketorolac
B. Loteprednol
C. Azelastine
D. Tetrahydrazoline
```
B
117
```
The deficiency of which of the following may increase the chances of bleeding?
A. RBC
B. WBC
C. T lymphocytes
D. Thrombocytes
```
D
118
```
Trimethobenzamide should be avoided in patients who are suffering from:
A. Ulcers
B. Reye’s syndrome
C. HPN
D. Depression
```
B. Reye’s syndrome
119
```
If a patient seek additional information of her state – Multiple sclerosis: a pharmacist may emphasised that the part that is damage in the brain is the ______.
A. Nephron
B. Myelin sheath
C. Parietal cells
D. Bowman’s capsule
```
B
120
Furosemide is available in:
I. Tablet
II. Oral solution
III. Injection
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. AOTA
D
121
```
Which of the following NSAID’s is a prodrug?
A. Diclofenac
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diflunisal
D. Indomethacin
```
C
122
```
. A patient has “High cholesterol” if his total serum cholesterol value greater than
A. 120 mg/dL
B. 360 mg/dL
C. 180 mg /dL
D. 240 mg/dL
```
D
123
```
The patient is allergic to Amitriptyline. Which of the following seizure drug(s) should be avoided because of allergy problem?
I. Carbamazepine
II. Cyclobenzapine
III. Valproic acid
A. I only
B I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
B
124
```
Upon dispensing Phenytoin a pharmacist may advise the patient that is major Adverse drug action is/are:
I. Gingival hyperplasia
II. Lupus erythematosus
III. Ataxia
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
D
125
```
Hydrochlorothiazide causes all of the following except:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperuricemia
D. Hyperglycemia
```
C
126
```
A deficiency of which of the following may lead to goiter?
A. Magnesium
B. Aluminum
C. Iodine
D. Fluorine
```
D
127
```
Which of the following anti – fungal agent(s) is/are useful in the treatment of oral candidiasis?
I. Itraconazole
II. Clotrimazole
III. Nystatin
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
C
128
```
Patient allergic to Cyclosporine need to avoid:
I. Sandimmune
II. Gengraf
III. Remeron
A. I only
B I and II only
C. II and III only
D. AOTA
```
B
129
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about anorexia nervosa?
A. It is a genetic disease characterise by weight loss
B. It is common adult females
C. May because by excessive use of laxative.
D. Fluoxetine is indicated for the treatment
a
130
```
Mrs. Bella comes into the pharmacy to find drugs use in Philippines. Pharmacist may suggest all of the following reference materials except
A. Martindale Extra Pharmacopeia
B. Index nominum
C. USP adopted name
D. All of the above
```
d
131
```
The pharmacist may provide information on the patient who orders Insulin Lispro that its onset of action is:
A. 5-15 mins
B. 30 – 60 mins
C. 8 – 16 hours
D. 1- 2 hours
```
A
132
```
Which of the following histamine is specially used in the treatment of vertigo?
A. Loratidine
B. Clemastine
C. Cetirizine
D. Meclizine
```
d
133
```
A patients asks on what vitamins is needed for Night blindness.
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
```
B
134
```
When one dispenses which benzodiazepine has a prolonged duration of action?
A. Alprazolam
B. Triazolam
C. Flurazepam
D. Oxazepam
```
C. Flurazepam
135
```
In the drugstore saquinavir should be stored in the refrigerator, however, once brought to room temperature it can be used out within.
A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 3 months
D. 1 hour
```
C
136
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of vasodilators? A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Edema
D. Weight loss
D
137
```
Which drug would you advise the patient not to take together with Cimetidine?
I. Maalox
II. Ketoconazole
III. Theophylline
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
D
138
```
Hepatic toxicity is more common with:
I. Iproniazid
II. Phenelzine
III. Tranylcypromine
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. AOTA
```
B
139
```
Methylphenidate SR is generally indicated for the treatment of
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Weight reduction
C. Attention Deficit Syndrome
D. Pain reliever
```
C. Attention Deficit Syndrome
140
```
Which of the following should be carefully dispensed with Selegiline
I. Meperidine
II. Fluoxetine
III. Tyramine
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the choice given
```
D
141
```
Calcium Acetate is indicated for the treatment of:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypophosphatemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
```
D
142
```
Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Amorbarbital
C. Butarbital
D. Pentobarbital
```
D
143
```
Administration of which of the following drugs requires caution when using Fenofibrate?
A. Erythromycin
B. Warfarin
C. Risperidone
D. Levofloxacin
```
B
144
```
The major side effect of Doxorubicin is
I.Cardiac failure
II. Liver failure
III. Renal failure
A. I only
B. I and II only
C . II and III only
D. AOTA
```
A
145
```
Which of the following drug is indicated for the treatment of Cisplatin toxicity?
A. Acetycysteine
B. Aniplatin
C. Amifostine
D. Naltrexone
```
C
146
```
If a patient asks for active ingredient if Actiq. The pharmacist should give
A. Filgrastim
B. Fentanyl
C. Interferon – alfa
D. Foscarnet
```
B
147
```
Toxic substance used as anti – knock in fuel additive, and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes:
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Lead
D. Cobalt
```
C
148
```
Cimetidine is used commonly as
A. Anti – histaminic
B. Histamine 2 antagonist
C. Antacid
D. Antihistamine
```
B
149
```
An anti-viral agent
A. Amantadine
B. Vinblastine
C. Cytarabine
D. Dapsone
```
A
150
```
One advice the pharmacist may explain upon dispensing Ferrous Sulfate supplement is that it may discolor the stool
A. Black
B. Orange
C. Red
D. Cream
```
A
151
```
Adverse effects associated with Guanethidine include
I. Orthostatic hypotnesion
II. Enhanced sensitivity to sympathomimetics
III. Diarrhea
IV. Sedation
A. I, II, and III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. IV only
E. All of the choices given
```
A
152
```
Adverse effects associated with Hydralazine include:
I. Reflex tachycardia
II. Hypertichosis
III. Lupus syndrome
IV. Orthostatic hypotension
A. I, II, and III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. IV only
E. All of the choices given
```
B
153
```
Factors associated with increased risk toxicity during Captopril therapy include:
I. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
II. Congestive Heart Failure
III. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
IV. Female
A. I, II, and III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. IV only
E. All of the choices given
```
B
154
```
Diazoxide, a drug used for treatment of hypertensive crisis, is most closely related to:
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Sulfonamides
C. Dopamine agonists
D. Thiazide diuretics
E. Nitrates
```
D
155
```
Which of the following drugs is (are) known to include hyperuricemia and occasionally to bring about an acute gouty attack?
A. Salicylates (6g/day)
B. Chlorthiazide
C. Phenytoin
D. Thiazide diuretics
E. All of the above
```
B
156
```
Undesirable side effects of Reserpine include:
A. Bradycardia
B. Postural hypotension
C. Diarrhea
D. AOTA
```
D
157
```
Propranolol may cause all of the following except:
A. Bradycardia
B. Bronchiolar constriction
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Reduced myocardial contractility
```
C
158
```
Alpha methyldopa has been used successfully in the control of hypertension. It side effects include all of the following except:
A. Positive direct Coomb’s test
B. Diarrhea
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Fever
E. Nephrotic syndrome
```
E. Nephrotic syndrome
159
```
A 48 – year olod salesman with known hypertension complains of a decreasing annual income, a loss of “drive”, and a depressed outlook on life. His blood pressure is normal on medication. The antihypertensive drug most likely to be the cause of his new complaint is:
A. Hydralazine
B. Alpha methyldopa
C. Reserpine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Guanathedine
```
C
160
```
Side effects of medication are often responsible for a patient not complying with the prescribed drug regimen. An agent which has somnolence as a primary side effect is
A. Methyldopa
B. Hydralazine
C. Guanethedine
D. Captopril
```
A
161
```
One of the mechanisms for “resistance” to an antihypertensive drug regimen is retention of salt and water and an increase in extracellular fluid volume. Agents which have been shown to cause retention of salt and water include
A. Methyldopa
B. Clonidine
C. Guanethedine
D. All of the above
```
D
162
What advice regarding Midazolam as an adjunct to anesthesia can you provide as drug information to patient?
A. Provides analgesia
B. Provides adequate skeletal muscle relaxation alone
C. Useful for ameliorating seizure activity
D. Produces cardiovascular stimulation
E. Contraindicated in patients with asthma COPD
C
163
Which of the following statements is not true regarding bupivacaine, a local anesthetic with a molecular structure that includes an amide linkage?
A. Undergoes hepatic metabolism
B. Rapidly hydrolized by plasma esterase enzymes
C. Contraindicated in a patient with a history of allergy to lidocaine
D. Higher dose necessary to induce epidural anesthesia than spinal anesthesia
E. Higher risk of systemic side effects when used for epidural anethesia compared to spinal anesthesia
B
164
Which of the following statement is not true regarding local anesthetics?
A. Produce effects by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels
B. Inhibition of sodium channels enhanced by repetitive depolarizations
C. Small nerve fibers more susceptible than large nerve fibers
D. All sensory functions of a nerve affected equally at onset of anethesia
E. Vasoconstriction prolongs duration of action
D
165
```
The pharamcist must always be aware of possible drug interactions. Aluminum hydroxide antacids tend to interfere with the gastrointestinal absorption of
A. Cephalexin
B. Penicllin G
C. Erythromycin
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Tetracyline
```
E
166
```
All of the following are progestin components of oral birth control pills EXCEPT
A. Norgestrel
B. Norethidrone acetate
C. Ethynodiol diacetate
D. Mestranol
E. Levonorgestrel
```
D
167
```
Side effects of thiourea anti-thyroid medications (Propylthiouracil and Methimazole) include
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Priapism
C. Agranulocytosis
D. SIADH
E. Iodism
```
C
168
```
Flutamide is an anti-androgen. Possible therapeutic uses of anti-androgens include
A. Male contraception
B. Hirsutism and virilization in women
C. Acne and baldness in both sexes
D. Prostatic cancer
E. All of the above
```
E. AOTA
169
```
Dermatologic side effects of corticosteroid therapy include
A. Acne
B. Striae, thinning of the skin
C. Telangiectasia
D. Ecchymosis
E. AOTA
```
E
170
```
Agents which may be useful for treating hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Coricosteroids
C. Lugol’s solution of Potassium iodide
D. Propranolol
E. Bromocriptine
```
E
171
Potential side effects of therapy with chlorpropamide include all of the following except
A. Syndrome of inappropriate diuretic ADH secretion (SIADH)
B. Antabuse reaction
C. Skin rash
D. Lactic acidosis
E. Hypoglycemia
D
172
Statements which explain the mechanism of action of oral sulfonylurea agent include all of the following except:
A. Decreased hepatic glucose production
B. Increased tissue sensitivity to insulin
C. Increased insulin binding to insulin receptor
D. Correct of post receptor defects which contribute to insulin
E. Regenerate beta cells of the pancreas
E
173
```
Hyponatremia has been associated with carbamazepine and certain oral hypoglycemic agents. Oral hypoglycemic agents which have been associated with SIADH include
A. Glipizide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Tolazamide
D. Chlorpropamide
E. Acetohexamide
```
D
174
```
Potential side effects associated with amiodarone therapy include
I. Phenmontis
II. Pseudocyanosis
III. Photosensitivity
IV. Parotiditis
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV only
E. AOTA
```
A
175
```
Adverse effects associated with Disopyramide therapy include:
I. Urinary retention
II. Constipation
III. Blurred vision
IV. Lupus syndrome
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV only
E. AOTA
```
A
176
```
Bronchiolar constriction is a rare but potentially dangerous side effect of
A. Quinidine
B. Lidocaine
C. Procainamide
D. Phenytoin
E. Propranolol
```
E
177
```
All of the following are common side effects of Quinidine administration except:
A. Diarrhea
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Dry mouth
D. Tinnitus
E. Headache
```
C
178
```
Impaired vision is an adverse effect of:
A. Carbenicillin
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampin
D. Colistin
E. Cycloserine
```
B
179
Various drugs may induce vitamin deficient states as an undesirable side effect. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency may be related to taking
A. Estrogen containing oral contraceptives
B. Colchicine
C. Isoniazid
D. All of the choices given
C
180
```
Most adults who are at high risk of developing pulmonary tuberculosis should be treated with
A. Isoniazid 100mg/day for 6 months
B. Isoniazid 300mg/day for 12 month
C. Ethambutol 400mg/day for 12 months
D. Rifampin 600mg/day for 24 months
E. no treatment is necessary
```
B. Isoniazid 300mg/day for 12 month
181
```
An antitubercular agent which is associated with the development of ocular toxicity is
A.Rifampin
B. Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid
D. Streptomycin
E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
```
B
182
```
Which of the following antitubercular agents is associated with the development of toxicity? A.Rifampin
B. Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid
D. Streptomycin
E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
```
D
183
```
Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of ocular toxicity?
A.Kanamycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Isoniazid
E. Ethambutol
```
E
184
```
Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of hepatitis? A.Kanamycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Isoniazid
E. Ethambutol
```
D
185
```
Which of the following antibioitcs is most closely associated with the development of renal and ototoxicity?
A.Kanamycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Isoniazid
E. Ethambutol
```
A
186
```
Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has the side effect of loss of perception of the color green?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin
E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
```
C
187
```
Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has a toxicity of producing a lupus-like syndrome?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin
E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
```
A
188
Isoniazid – induced liver damage
A. Occurs primarily in patients under 30 years of age
B. Occurs with increased frequency in patients receiving concomitant ethambutol therapy
C. Probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
D. Frequently associated with allergic manifestations such as eosinophilia, fever and rash
E. All of the choices given
C. Probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
189
```
Doxorubicin is associated with:
I. Cardiac disease
II. Myelosuppression
III. Gastrointestinal toxicity
IV. Nephrotoxicity
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV only
E. AOTA
```
A
190
Allopurinol is potentially dangerous if used in combination with mercaptopurine because of:
I. Inhibition of hypoxanthine – guanine phosphoribosyl – transferases
II. Inhibition of Xanthine oxidase
III. Inhibition of guanylate kinase
IV. Accumulation of the chemotherapeutic drug
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV only
E. AOTA
C
191
```
Cyclophosphamide, Busulfan, and Carmustine all have in common the classification of:
A. Antimetabolite
B. Antibiotic
C. Alkylating agent
D. Natural product
E. All of the choices given
```
C
192
```
Agent used to counter motion sickness which is more effective than Cyclizine and Meclizine
I. Dimehydramine
II. Promethazine
III. Scopolamine
IV. Betanechol
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV only
E. AOTA
```
A
193
```
Manifestation of overdose with Dimenhydramine may include
A. Blurred vision
B. Dry mouth
C. Hallucinations
D. Sinus tachycardia
E. All of the choices given
```
E
194
```
Which of the following combinations of Tricyclic antidepressant and metabolite is correct?
A. Amitriptylline – desipramine
B. Imipramine – nortriptyline
C. imipramine – trimipramine
D. Imiprmaine – desipramine
E. Fluoxetine – protriptyline
```
D
195
```
A recognized side effect of treatment with Lithium carbonate is
A. Hypermagnesemia
B. polyuria and polydipsia
C. Transient fall in BUN and serum
D. Hypochloremia
E. Proximal tubular degenration
```
B
196
Endocrine effects of Chlorpromazine include all of the following except:
A. Decrease in adrenocorticotropins
B. Decrease in gonadotropins
C. Decrease in release of pituitary Growth hormone
D. Increase in prolactin
E. Decrease in thyroid hormone production secretion
E
197
```
Cholestasis is the principle derangement observed in hepatoxicity associated with
A. Phenothiazines
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C. Para – aminosalicylic acid
D. Carbon tetrachloride
E. All of the choices given
```
A
198
```
Phenelzine can result in a hypertensive crisis when co – administered with all of the following except:
A. Pickled erring (Tyramine)
B. Amphetamines
C. Phenylpropanolamine
D. Diazepam
E. Ephedrine
```
D
199
```
Pharmacist may advise the patient during dispensing that Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of
A. Procainamide
B. Phenytoin
C. Digitalis
D. Indomethacin
E. Guanethidine
```
B
200
```
Which of the following drug(s) is/are classified a List B?
I. Tiopental
II, Chlorambucil
III. Phenytoin
A. I, II, III
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. III only
```
B
201
```
Prohibited drugs includes all of the following, except:
A. Methotrexate
B. Morphine sulfate
C. Demerol
D. Innovar
```
A
202
```
Which among the following brand names refers to Amoxicillin trihydrate?
A. Penbritin (Is a Ampicillin)
B. Amoxil
C. Himox
D. Penbiosyn
```
B
203
```
Capsules are prepared extemporaneous by:
A. Alligation method
B. Geometric dilution
C. Punch method
D. Fusion method
```
C
204
```
Which magnesium salt is used in the preparation of magnesium citrate solution?
A. Magnesium chloride
B, Magnesium carbonate
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Magnesium hydroxide
```
B
205
The amount os suspending agent to be added in a suspension depends on the: A. Voulme of the prescription
B. Amount to be suspended
C. Volume of the solvent used
D. All of the above
D
206
```
if a pharmacist compounds an emulsion following the 4:2:1 ratio, how many mL of water should be added if the oil amounts to 30 mL?
A. 10 mL
B. 15 mL
C. 5 mL
D. 7.5 mL
```
B
207
```
Drug belonging to List A are:
I. Regulated drugs
II. Prohibited drugs
III. Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, III
E. I, II
```
E
208
```
A prescription with 10 or more ingredients of the same therapeutic use is:
A. Simple
B. Yellow
C. Magistral
D. Polypharmaceutical
```
D
209
```
When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
A. Erroneous prescription
B. Violative prescription
C. Impossible prescription
D. Correct prescription
```
A
210
The following are true regarding incompatibilities except:
A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration
B. Easier to correct than prevent
C. May be intentional
D. Must be recognized by the pharmacist
B
211
```
Incompatibilities means _________ in prescription:
I. Conflict
II. Disagreement
III. Differences
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I only
```
A
212
```
The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility except:
A. Immiscibility
B. Photolysis
C. Evolution of gas
D. Color formation
```
A
213
```
The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when a highly soluble salt is added is known as:
A. Polymorphism
B. Salting out
C. Eutexia
D. Salting in
```
B
214
```
Dosage error is an example of:
A. Physical incompatibility
B. Chemical incompatibility
C. Therapeutic incompatibility
D. The error is not classified as an incompatibility
```
C
215
Acacia will produce with some compound because:
A. It has an enzyme ( It contains peroxidase enzymes) B. It is acidic
C. It decomposes with strong acids
D. It decomposes with strong bases
A
216
```
Careful monitoring should be done when dispensing as it depresses the bone marrow protein synthesis:
A. bacitracin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Penicillin
D. All of the choices given
```
B
217
```
Iodine is known to be insoluble in water. To remedy this, _____ is added to make an aqueous solution
A. Citric acid
B. Ammoinium citrate
C. Caffeine
D. Potassium iodide
```
D
218
```
The prescription requires the combination of sodium bicarbonate, Sodium Salicylate and water. The pharmacist fully understands that sodium carbonate and sodium salicylate will lead to the oxidation of the latter forming brown quinoid derivative. This incompatibility can be remedied by:
I. Adding color diluents
II. Adding antioxidants
III. Removal of water
A. I, II, III
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. I, II
```
D
219
```
This incompatibility involves the degradation of the drug or excipient through reaction with the solvents present
in the formulation:
A. Solvolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Photolysis
D. Polymerization
```
A
220
```
Degradation of drugs or Excipient molecules brought by light, either room light or sunlight is known as:
A. Solvolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Photolysis
D. Polymerization
```
C
221
```
The hydrolytic product of Aspirin is:
A. Salicylic acid + ascorbic acid
B Salicylic acid + citric acid
C. Acetic acid + Salicylic acid
D. Sodium acetate + Acetic acid
```
C
222
```
A prescription implies the combination of Silver nitrate, water, made isotonic with sodium chloride. If the incompatibility is not recognized it will lead to:
A. Change in the color of hte solution
B. Evolution of carbon dioxide gas
C. Formation of white prcipitate
D. Formation of a gel – like substance
```
C
223
Which of the following can lead to overdose?
I. Excessive amounts taken at one time
II. Doses repeated at too frequent intervals
III. Dose dumping from modified release formulation
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, II
D. I only
E. I, II, III
A
224
```
Which of the following will not lead to therapeutic incompatibility?
A. Errors in pricing
B. Dosage forms errors
C. Prescription
D. Errors in storage
```
A
225
```
Penicillin and ASA are contraindicated to:
A. Hypertensives
B. Patients with ulcer
C. Asthmatics
D. Anemics
```
C
226
```
Anemics should refrain from the use of:
A. Nasal decongestants
B.NSAID’s
C. Chloramphenicol
D. ASA
```
C
227
```
Cough and cold remedies with decongestants are not recommended to patient experiencing:
A. Low RBC count
B. GI ulcer
C. High blood pressure
D. Airway obstruction
```
C
228
```
Steroidal and Non – steroidal drugs will exacerbate:
A. Asthma
B. Anemia
C. Arryhthmia
D. GI ulcer
```
D
229
```
This type of ADR that is usually dose dependent and predictable:
A. Type A
B. Typer B
C. Type C
D. Type D
```
A
230
Type B ADRs includes all of the following except:
A. Extension effects of drug’s pharmacological action
B. Idiosyncratic reactions
C. Allergic reactions
D. Steven Johnson syndrome
A
231
```
The adverse effect that may be experienced when taking cough and cold remedies containing Phenylpropanolamine is:
A. GI disturbances
B. Serum sickness
C. Increase in BP
D. Decrease in BP
```
C
232
```
Mrs. Romano experienced skin rash that are characteristically large, deep red in color which becomes darker at the center. The said rashes appeared red in color which becomes darker at the center. The said rashes appeared after taking Amoxicillin for 3 days. The ADR is suspected to be:
A. Photosensitivity reactions
B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Serum sickness
```
C
233
```
Phocomelia is a teratogenic effect associated with the use of:
A. Tretinoin
B. Thalidomide
C. Phenytoin
D. Phenothiazines
```
B
234
```
Otoxicity is an ADR commonly associated with the use of:
A. Penicillin
B. Phenothiazine
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Acetaminophen
```
C
235
```
In a drug interaction, the drug whose action is effected by the combination with other drugs, food, or chemicals is called:
A. Object drug
B. Precipitant drug
C. Interactant drug
D. Action drug
```
A
236
```
The principle combining Sulfathiazole and Trimethoprim in a formulation is die to:
A. Antagonism
B. Synergism
C. Alteration of active transport
D. Inhibition of drug metabolism
```
B
237
```
Which of the following interactions is beneficial?
A. Oral contraceptives - antibiotics
B. Tetracycline - antacid
C. Anthistamine – alcohol
D. Penicillin – Probenecid
```
D
238
```
NSAID’s induced ADR is:
A. Pigmentary retinopathy
B. Steven Johnson's syndrome
C. Hepatic necrosis
D. GI ulcer
```
D
239
```
Otoxicity is an ADR commonly associated with the use of:
A. Penicillin
B. Phenothiazine
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Acetaminophen
```
C
