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PACOP > Biochemistry (Violet) > Flashcards

Biochemistry (Violet) Flashcards

1
Q

What biomolecules are considered the most abundant and functionally diverse in the living system? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acid D. Fatty acid E. Terpenoids

A

A. Proteins

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about protein structure? I. The primary structure of a protein involves alpha-helics, beta-sheets and other types of folding patterns that occur due to a regular repeating pattern of hydrogen bond formation. II. The secondary structure consist of the amino acids sequence along the chain. III. The tertiary structure involves electrostatic and hydrophobic interactions, van der waals interaction, and hydrogen and disulfide bonds, IV. Quaternary structure refers to the interaction of one or more subunits to form a functional protein, using the same force that stabilize the tertiary structure. A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. I and IV E. III and IV

A

E. III and IV

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3
Q

Accumulated misfolded proteins occur in variety of disease. Which of the following proteins is misfolded in patients with Alzheimer’s disease? A. Prion protein B. Alpha-synuclein C. Glutamine stretches D. Beta-amyloid E. None of these

A

C. Glutamine stretches

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4
Q

Hemoglobinopathies result from mutations that produce alterations in the structure of hemoglobin. One common mutation result is sickle cell anemia, in which a mutated form of hemoglobin distorts the RBC into a crescent shape at low oxygen levels. Sickle cell anemia happens when: A. Valine is being substituted by glutamine at codon number 6 B. Glutamic acid is being substituted by valine at position number 6 C. Glutamine is intercalated by histidine at codon number 6 D. Gene transcription is distrupted E. None of these

A

B. Glutamic acid is being substituted by valine at position number 6

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5
Q

Acid-base disturbances occur under a variety of conditions. Which of the following is the result of hyperventilation due to retention of carbon dioxide in the lungs. A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis E. Lactic acidosis

A

A. Respiratory acidosis

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6
Q

In amino acids, the pH at which the number of positive charges equals the number of negative charge is termed as_______? A. Chirality B. Amphoteric property C. Optical activity D. Isoelectric point E. Zwitterions

A

D. Isoelectric point

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7
Q

Molecules that contain an equal number of ionizable groups of opposite charge and that therefore bear no net charge are termed as____________ A. Chirality B. Amphoteric property C. Optical activity D. Isoelectric point E. Zwitterions

A

E. Zwitterions

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8
Q

Problems associated with connective tissues and structural protein are present in a number of disease. In scurvy, hydroxylation of proline residues is decrease and an unstable form of collagen is produced. Bones, teeth, blood vessels and other structures rich in collagen develop abnormally. Bleeding gums and poor wound healing are often observed. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is associated to scurvy? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin K

A

A. Vitamin C

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9
Q

Which of the following is true about insulin functions I. Insulin is release form the pancreas when blood glucose levels are elevated II. Insulin promotes the transport of glucose into muscle and fat cells III. Insulin promotes the storage of energy IV. Insulin increases glycogen catabolism in the liver and muscles A. I and II B. I, II and III C. I, II and IV D. I only E . I, II, III and IV

A

B. I, II and III

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10
Q

The enzyme kinetics can be described by what equation? A. Noyes-Whitney Equations B. Henderson- Hasselbach Equation C. Arrhenius Equation D.Van Slyke Equation E. Michaelis-Menten Equation

A

E. Michaelis-Menten Equation

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11
Q

Evaluate the given statements. (1) Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for binding at the allosteric site of the enzyme. (2) Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme or the enzyme substrate complex at the active site. A. Only I is correct B. Only II is correct C. I and II are correct D. I and II are incorrect

A

D. I and II are incorrect

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12
Q

In phenylketonuria, the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase is deficient. Which of the following statements is not true about the condition? A. Phenylketonuria happens as a result of accumulated phenylalanine in the body B. Tyrosine becomes a essential amino acid among phenylketonuric patients C. Aspartame is recommended for phenylkotenuric patients D. Phenylalanine non metabolism leads to mental retardation. E. None of these

A

C. Aspartame is recommended for phenylkotenuric patients

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a basic amino acid? A. Histidine B. Leucine C. Lysine D. Arginine E. None of these

A

B. Leucine

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14
Q

What are the amide linkages between the alpha-carbonyl group of one amino acid and alpha amino group of another? A. Peptide bonds B. Disulfide bonds C. Hydrogen bonds D. Hydrophobic bonds E. Ionic bonds

A

A. Peptide bonds

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15
Q

Edman’s reagent is used to label the amino terminal residue under mildly alkaline conditions. What is the component of this reagent? A. Monosodium glutamate B. Alpha-naphthol C. Picric acid D. Phenylisothiocyanate E. None of these

A

D. Phenylisothiocyanate

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16
Q

Several different polypeptide helices are found in nature, but the alpha-helix is the most common. What bond stabilizes this helix? A.Hydrogen bond B. Peptide bond C. Phosphodiester bond D. Hydrophobic bond E.Ionic bond

A

A.Hydrogen bond

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17
Q

What protein structures reverse the direction of a polypeptide chain, helping it form a compact, globular shape? A. alpha-helices B. beta-sheets C. Beta-bends D. All of these E. Ionic bond

A

A. alpha-helices

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18
Q

What specialized group are required for the proper folding of many species of proteins? A. Chaperones B. Heat shockproteins C. Beta bends D. A and B E. A and C

A

D. A and B

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19
Q

Many proteins consist of a single polypeptide chain, and are defined as monomeric proteins. However, others may consist of two or more polypeptide chains that may be structurally identical or totally unrelated. These statements describe what protein structure? A. Primary structure B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure E. None of these

A

D. Quaternary structure

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20
Q

What protein is misfolded in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. Prion B. Glutamine stretches C. Beta-globin D. Beta-amyloid E. None of these

A

A. Prion

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21
Q

What are the two most abundant hemeproteins in humans? A. Hemoglobin and myogobin B. Hemoglobin and cytochrome oxidase C. Hemoglobin and catalase D. Cytochrome and catalase E. All of these

A

A. Hemoglobin and myogobin

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22
Q

The complex of protoporphyrin IX and ferrous iron is termed as ___? A. Heme B. Hemoglobin C. Transferin D. Ferritin E. Myoglobin

A

A. Heme

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23
Q

What is the hemeprotein found in heart and skeletal muscles which functions both as a reservoir for oxygen and as an oxygen carrier that increases the rate of transport of oxygen within the muscle cell? A. Hemoglobin B. Myoglobin C. Actin D. Myosin E. Keratin

A

B. Myoglobin

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24
Q

This is found exclusively in red blood cells (RBCs) where its main function is to transport oxygen (O2) from the lungs to the capiliaries of the tissues. A. Myoglobin B. Keratin C. Collagen D. Hemoglobin E. Myosin

A

D. Hemoglobin

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25
Q

The major hemoglobin in adults compromising of four polypeptide chains held together by noncovalent interaction. A. Hemoglobin A B. Hemoglobin T C.Hemoglobin R D. Hemoglobin F E. Hemoglobin C

A

A. Hemoglobin A

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26
Q

These are hereditary hemolytic disease in which an imbalance occurs in the synthesis of globin chains. A. Sickle cell anemia B. Thalassemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Hyperchromic anemia

A

B. Thalassemia

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27
Q

Oxidation of the heme component of hemoglobin to the ferric ion (fe3+) state forms: A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. Methemoglobin C. Ferritin D. Transferrin E. Porphyrin

A

B. Methemoglobin

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28
Q

Collagen and elastin are examples of: A. Fibrous proteins B. Globular proteins C. Albumins D. Mettalloproteins E. Enzymes

A

A. Fibrous proteins

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29
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the human body? A. Keratin B. Elastin C. Collagen D. Hemoglobin E. Myoglobin

A

C. Collagen

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30
Q

Fibril forming collagen, EXCEPT: A. Type I B. TYPE II C. Type III D. Type IV E. None of these

A

D. Type IV

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31
Q

Which of the following pairs is correct about collagen types? A. type I: Fibril associated collagen B. Type II: Network forming collagen C. Type III: Fibril-forming collagen D. Type IV: Fibril forming collagen E. Type IX: Network forming collagen

A

C. Type III: Fibril-forming collagen

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32
Q

Collagen is rich in ___ and ___, both of which are important in the formation of the triple-stranded helix. A. Proline and leucine B. Proline and isoleucine C. Proline and glycine D.Proline and histamine E. Proline and tyrosine

A

C. Proline and glycine

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33
Q

A heterogenous group of generalized connective tissues disorders that result from inheritable defects in the metabolism of fibrillar collagen molecules, and can result from a deficiency of collagen processing enzymes (for example, lysyl hydroxylase or or procollagen peptidase), or from mutations in the amino acids sequences of collagen types I,III or V. A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Von Gierke’s syndrome C. Osteogenesis imperfect D. Huntington’s disease E. Hurler’s syndrome

A

A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

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34
Q

A connective tissue protein with rubber like properties in tissues such as the lung. A. Collagen B. Keratin C. Elastin D. Albumin E. Hemoglobin

A

C. Elastin

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35
Q

A connective tissue disorder that characterize by impaired structural integrity in the skeleton, the eye, and the cardiovascular system. A. Hurler’s disease B. Marfan syndrome C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gaucher’s disease E. Huntington’s disease

A

B. Marfan syndrome

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36
Q

Lactate pyruvate conversion is possible due to the presence of lactic dehydrogenase. What enzyme category does lactic dehydrogenase belong? A. Hydrolase B. Oxidoreductase C. Transferases D. Lyases E. Isomerases

A

B. Oxidoreductase

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37
Q

Which of the following pairs is incorrect about the intacellular location of the biochemical pathways? A. Lysosome: Macromolecular degradation B. Nucleus: Protein synthesis C. Cytosol: Glycolysis D. Mitochondria: Fatty acid oxidation E. Cytosol: HMG shunt

A

B. Nucleus: Protein synthesis

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38
Q

What is the process of recycling protein into their constituent amino acid, for reuse by the cell? A. Protein catabolism B. Protein turnover C. Protein synthesis D. Protein denaturation E. Protein degradation

A

B. Protein turnover

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39
Q

A large protein that may contain two or more regions of the polypeptide chain that individual individually have a compact folded structure is called ______. A. Domains B. Chaperones C. Residues D. Proteasome E. None of these

A

A. Domains

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40
Q

The following are true about amino acid, EXCEPT: A. They may polymerized to form polypeptides B. They serve as precursors for other small biomolecules C. They may be oxidized to serve as an energy source for the cell D. They act as building blocks of fatty acids E. None of these

A

D. They act as building blocks of fatty acids

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41
Q

Of the 20 impotant amino acids, which is considered optically active? A. Proline B. Lysine C. Arginine D. Leucine E. Glycine

A

E. Glycine

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42
Q

The following amino acids contain sulfur on their structure, EXCEPT: A. Cysteine B. Methionine C. Tyrosine D. Leucine E. Glycine

A

C. Tyrosine

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43
Q

Which of the following amino acids does not contain benzene ring on its structure? A.Tyrosine B. Phenylalanine C. Trytophan D. All of these E. None of these

A

E. None of these

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44
Q

RNAs with catalytic activity are called A. Apoenzymes B. Zymogens C. Proenzymes D. Ribozymes E. Holoenzymes

A

D. Ribozymes

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45
Q

The number of molecules of substrate converted to product per enzyme molecule per second A. Bloom strength B. Turnover number C. Saponification number D. Conformational change E. None of these

A

B. Turnover number

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46
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly paired? A. Holoenzyme: active enzyme B. Apoenzyme: inactive enzyme C. Cofactor: inorganic molecule D. Coenzyme: Small organic molecule E. Prosthetic group: transiently associated with the enzyme

A

E. Prosthetic group: transiently associated with the enzyme

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47
Q

Which of the following is false about the kinetic order of enzyme? A. When the substrate concentration [S] is much lesser than the Km, the rate of reaction is first order. B. When [S] is much greater than Km, the velocity is constant and equal to Vmax. C. When [S] is much less than Km, the velocity of the reaction is approximately proportional to the substrate concentration. D. When the substrate concentration [S] is greater than the Km, the rate of reaction is zero order. E. None of these

A

E. None of these

48
Q

Irreversible inhibitors bind to enzymes through what bond? A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Hydrogen bond D. Hydrophobic bond E. Sigma and pie bonds

A

A. Covalent bond

49
Q

Which of the following is true about competitive inhibitions? A. The reaction of the substrate and inhibitor is irreversible B. Substrate binds to active site, inhibitor binds to allosteric site C. Inhibitor is covalently bonded to the enzyme D. The reaction is not surmountable E.None of these

A

A. The reaction of the substrate and inhibitor is irreversible

50
Q

This occurs when inhibitor and substrate bind at different site on the enzyme. A. Competitive inhibition B. Non-competitive inhibition C. Functional inhibition D. Chemical inhibition E. Physiological inhibition

A

B. Non-competitive inhibition

51
Q

Enzyme are often measured in clinical diagnosis. Which of the following is correlatable to an elevated alanine aminotransferase? A. Brain tumor B. Hepatic damage C. Prostate cancer D. Colon cancer E. Eye injury

A

B. Hepatic damage

52
Q

ADH requires NAD+ for catalytic activity. In the reaction catalyzed by ADH, an alcohol is oxidized to an aldehyde as NAD+ is reduced and dissociates from the enzyme. The NAD+ is functioning as a (an): A. Apoenzyme B.Coenzyme-cosubstrate C. coenzyme-prosthetic group D. cofactor E. Eye injury

A

B.Coenzyme-cosubstrate

53
Q

Which of the following is not true about the digestion of protein? A. Protein digestion begins in the mouth B. The digestion of protein may be due gastric acid secretion C. Pancreatic enzyme aid in the digestion of protein D. Aminopeptidases digest oligopeptides in the small intestine E. None of these

A

A. Protein digestion begins in the mouth

54
Q

What is most common genetic error of amino acid transport? A. Phenylketonuria B. Alkaptonuria C. Cystinuria D. Methemoglobinemia E. Pellagra

A

C. Cystinuria

55
Q

A disease of malabsorption resulting from immune-mediated damage to the small intestine in the response to ingestion of gluten A. Cystic fibrosis B. Celiac disease C. Ulcerative disease D. Crohn’s disease E. Conn’s disease

A

B. Celiac disease

56
Q
  1. What is the first step of metabolic catabolism? A. Conjugation B. Transamination C. Transpetidation D. Hydrolysis E. Reduction
A

B. Transamination

57
Q

All amino acids participate in transamination at some point in their catabolism, EXCEPT: A. Lysine B. Threonine C. Trytophan D. A and B E. A and C

A

D. A and B

58
Q

What is the only amino acid that undergoes rapid oxidative deamination? A. Lysine B. Tyrosine C. Glutamate D. Trytophan E. Ornithine

A

C. Glutamate

59
Q

In the transport of ammonia from the peripheral tissues to the liver, which of the following ,mechanism is true? A. Glutamine is transported in the blood to the liver where it is cleaved by glutaminase to produce glutamate and free ammonia B. Alanine is transported by the blood to the liver, where it is converted to pyruvate by transamination C. Transamination of pyruvate to alanine is required to allow transport of alanine to the liver. D. A and B E. All of these

A

E. All of these

60
Q

Where is the production and excretion site? A. Liver for production, kidney for excretion B. Muscle for production, kidney for excetion C. Liver for production, mammary gland for excretion D. Liver for both production and excretion E. None of these

A

A. Liver for production, kidney for excretion

61
Q

What amino acid is the immediate precursor of both ammonia and aspartate nitrogen? A. Glutamate B. Aspartate C. Pyruvate D. Oxaloacetate E. Lactate

A

A. Glutamate

62
Q

The synthesis of urea is located on which cell site? A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol C. DNA D. A and B C. All of these

A

D. A and B

63
Q

Ammonia is produced by all tissues during the metabolism of a variety of compounds. However, The level of ammonia in the blood must be kept really low, because even slightly elevated concentrations (Hypoammonemia) are toxic to what part of the body system? A. Autonomic nervous system B. Central nervous system C. Integumentary system D. Skeletal system E. Digestive system

A

B. Central nervous system

64
Q

The following are potential sources of ammonia, EXEPT A. Glutamine B. Monoamines C. Purines D. Pyrimidines E. Resorcinol

A

E. Resorcinol

65
Q

What two nitrogen-containing compounds are incorporated in the urea cycle? A. Alanine and glutamate B. Glutamine and alanine C. Aspartate and ammonia D. Ammonia and aspartate E. Alanine and arginine

A

D. Ammonia and aspartate

66
Q

Evaluate the two statements. (1.) Essential amino acids must be obtained from diet in order for normal protei synthesis to occur (2.) Essential amino acids are produced from the intermediates of metabolism of protein. A. Only 1 is correct B. Only 2 is correct C. Both are correct D. Both are incorrect

A

A. Only 1 is correct

67
Q

Amino acids whose catabolism yields either acetoacetate or one of its precursors (Acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA) are termed as. . . A. Glucogenic amino acids B. Ketogenic amino acids C. Metabotropic compounds D. Amphoteric amino acids E. Zwitterionic amino acids

A

B. Ketogenic amino acids

68
Q

Which of the following amino acids doesn’t belong to the group? A. Tyrosine B. Isoleucine C. Phenylalanine D. Lysine E. Tryptophan

A

D. Lysine

69
Q

The amino acids leucine, isoleucine and valine are: A. Branched-chain amino acids B. Essential amino acids C. Aromatic amino acids D. A and B E. C and D

A

D. A and B

70
Q

Succinyl CoA, A Kreb’s cycle intermediate may be derived from the degration of the following, EXCEPT A. Valine B. Isoleucine C. Theonine D. Aspargine E. None of these

A

D. Aspargine

71
Q

The most common clinically encountered inborn error of amino acid metabolism A. Tyrosinemia type I B. Phenylketonuria C. Albinism D. Maple syrup urine disease E. Pellagra

A

B. Phenylketonuria

72
Q

Tyrosine is needed in the synthesis of the following, EXCEPT: A. Tissue protein B. Melanin C. Catecholamines D. Fumarate E. Phenylacetate

A

E. Phenylacetate

73
Q

The following are clinical characteristics of classical phenylketonuria: A. Elevated phenylalanine B. CNS symptoms C. Hypopigmentation D. Blue eyes E. All of these

A

E. All of these

74
Q

A disease which is characteristic by feeding problems, vomiting, dehydration, severe metabolic acidosis. This condition is due to partial or complete deficiency in the branched- chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase. A. Phenylketonuria B. Maple syrup urine disease C. Pellagra D. Albinism E. Hypopigmentation

A

B. Maple syrup urine disease

75
Q

Albinism refers to a group of conditions in which a defect in tyrosine metabolism results in a deficiency in the production of A. Melatonin B. Melanin C. Melanocyte D. All of these E. None of these

A

B. Melanin

76
Q

The homocystinurias are a group of disorders involving defects in the metabolism of homocysteine. The most common cause of homocystinuria is a defect in the enzyme cystathionine beta-synthase. Patients can be responsive (or nonresponsive) to oral administration of vitamin coenzyme of crystathionine beta-synthase. What vitamin is referred to in this condition? A. Thiamine B. Niacin C. Panthotenic acid D. Pyridoxine E. Biotin

A

C. Panthotenic acid

77
Q

Which of the following amino acid should be avoided of by patients with alkaptonuria? A.Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C.Alanine D. A and B E. B and C

A

D. A and B

78
Q

Which of the following pairs (precursor -> product) is incorrect? A. Histidine -> histamine B. Trytophan -> serotonin C.Arginine -> nitric oxide D. Methionine -> purine/pyrimidine E. Tyrosine -> dopamine

A

D. Methionine -> purine/pyrimidine

79
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning a 1 week old male infant with undetected classic phenylketonuria is correct? A. Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid for the infant B. High levels of phenylpyruvate appear in his urine C. Theraphy must begin within the first year of life D. A diet devoid of phenylalanine should be initiated immediately E. When the infant reaches adulthood, it is recommended that diet theraphy be discontinued

A

B. High levels of phenylpyruvate appear in his urine

80
Q

The structure of porphyrin is shown below. Which cyclic organic molecule is present on the structure? A. Indole B. Pyrrole C. Quinolone D. Pyridine E. Piperidine

A

B. Pyrrole

81
Q

The most prevalent metalloporphyrin in humans is heme. It serves as a prosthetic group for: A.Cytochrome B.Hemoglobin C. Peroxidase D. All of these E. A and B

A

D. All of these

82
Q

Inherited (or occasionally acquired) defect is heme synthesis may result to: A. Porphyria B. Phenylketonuria C.Methemoglobinemia D. Lead poisoning E.Albinism

A

A. Porphyria

83
Q

What is the approximate number of days of red blood cells to be in the circulation before degradation? A. 40 days B. 80 days C. 120 days D. 150 days E. 365 days

A

C. 120 days

84
Q

Bilirubin and biliverdin are examples of: A. Bile salts B. Bile pigments C. Bile duct D. All of these E. None of these

A

B. Bile pigments

85
Q

Certain anionic drugs, such as salicylates and sulfonamides, can displace bilirubin from albumin, permitting bilirubin to enter the central nervous system. This cause the potential ffor neural damage in infants known as: A.Saint Louis Encephalitis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Steven-johnson’s syndrome D. Kernicterus E. All of these

A

D. Kernicterus

86
Q

Van de Bergh reaction determines the concentration of: A.Protein B. Bilirubin C. Heme D. Glucose E. Cholesterol

A

B. Bilirubin

87
Q

The following are atecholamines, EXCEPT: A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Dopamine E. None of these

A

C. Acetylcholine

88
Q

What organic polymer protects underlying cell from the harmful effects of sunlight? A. Melanin B. Keratin C. Collagen D. Catecholamines E. Heme

A

A. Melanin

89
Q

The 4D symptoms of pellagra include: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death. This is due to the deficiency of: A. Niacin B. Tyrosine C. Trytophan D. A and C E. A and B

A

D. A and C

90
Q

Trytophan i.One-letter representation is “T” ii. Non polar molecule iii. Deficiency of which can cause Hartup disease iv. The structure contains phenol side chain A. I & II are correct B. I,II, and III are correct C. II and III are correct D. I,II,III and IV are correct E.I,II,III and IV incorrect

A

C. II and III are correct

91
Q
  1. What is the isoelectric point (pl) of arginine? A. 7.87 B. 5.55 C. 10.75 D. 7.3 E. 11.8
A

C. 10.75

92
Q

Estimate the isoelectic point of the structure (reaction mechanism) given below. A. 2 B. 9 C. 6 D. 5 E. 7

A

C. 6

93
Q

Which of the following secondary derived proteins have highest molecular weight characteristic? A. Proteoses B. Peptones C. Peptides D.A and B E. B and C

A

A. Proteoses

94
Q

Tyrosine can be detected by: A Xanthoproteic test B. Millon’s test C. Sakaguchi test D. A, B and C E. A and B

A

E. A and B

95
Q

Hopkin’s cole reaction gives positive result in: A. Gelatin B. Collagen C. Tryptophan D. A and B E. B and C

A

C. Tryptophan

96
Q

Which of the following is an essential amino acid in man? A. Tyrosine B. Proline C. Aspartate D. Threonine E. Serine

A

D. Threonine

97
Q

Which of the following amino acids is NOT basic? A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Ornithine D. Glutamine E. Histidine

A

D. Glutamine

98
Q

Which of the following bonds is not affected by denaturation due to its high stability? A. Disulfide bond B. Peptide bond C.Hydrogen bond D. Ionic bond E. None of these

A

B. Peptide bond

99
Q

Arginine and histidine are: A. Essential amino acid B. Non essential amino acid C. Semi-essential amino acid D. Acidic amino acid E. Aromatic amino acid

A

C. Semi-essential amino acid

100
Q

A tripeptide involved in cellular oxidation-reduction, and is required for maintaining the integrity of RBC and lens of eyes. A. Glutathione B. Vasopressin C. Encephalin D. Oxytocin E. Retinol

A

A. Glutathione

101
Q

Which of the following is true about the central dogma of molecular biology? A. Genetic information found in DNA is copied and transmitted to daughter cells through DNA replication. B. Transcription is involved in RNA synthesis C. The code contained in the nucleotide sequence of messenger RNA molecules is translated to complete gene expression. D. All of these E. A and B

A

D. All of these

102
Q

Which of the following not true about DNA structure? A. Phosphodiester bonds stabilize the DNA structure B. In the double helix, the chains are paired in a parallel manner C. Uracil is always paired with a thymine and a cytosine is always paired with a guanine D. A and B E. B and C

A

E. B and C

103
Q

A rule which states that “in any sample of DNA, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine, and the total amount of purines equals the total amount of pyrimidines.” A. Zaitsev’s rule B. Hund’s rule C. VSEPR rule D. Chargaff’s rule E. Markovnikov’s rule

A

D. Chargaff’s rule

104
Q

Which of the following structural forms of DNA is right handed? A. B-DNA B. Z-DNA C. A-DNA D. A and B E. A and C

A

E. A and C

105
Q

Most species of bacteria also contain small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA molecules called plasmids, which may carry genes that convey A. Antibiotic resistance B. Antibaterial effect C. Mutagenic effect D Antigenicity E. Transcription

A

A. Antibiotic resistance

106
Q

When the two strands of the DNA double helix is separated, each can serve as a template for the replication of a new complementary strand. This produces two daughter molecules, each of which contains two DNA strands with an antiparallel orientation. This describes: A. Conservative replication B. Semiconservative replication C. Dispersive replication D. Antigenicity E. Transcription

A

B. Semiconservative replication

107
Q

Human topoisomerase II is targeted by: A. Etoposide B. Ciprofloxacin C. Penicillin D. Vancomycin E. Chloramphenicol

A

A. Etoposide

108
Q

The strand that is being copied in the direction away from the replication fork, and is synthesize discountinuously, with small fragments of DNA being copied near the replication fork. A. Leading strand B. Lagging strand C. RNA primer D. Single strand E. Double strand

A

B. Lagging strand

109
Q

Which of the following rRNA size particles is not present in prokaryotes? A. 23S B. 15S C. 5S D. 40S E. 50S

A

D. 40S

110
Q

Which nitrogenous base is not present in RNA structure? A. Cytosine B. Uracil C. Thymine D. Adenine E. Guanine

A

C. Thymine

111
Q

Ribonucletotide contains: A. Ribose B. Nitrogenous base C. Phosphate D. All of these E. None of these

A

D. All of these

112
Q

Which of the consequence of point mutation is expected to happen in the codon transition of UCA to UCU? Use the genetic code table below for your reference. A. Silent mutation B. Missense mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. Spontaneous mutation E. Frameshift mutation

A

A. Silent mutation

113
Q

A hereditary disease that primarily affects the pulmonary and digestive systems, most commonly caused by deletion of three nucleotides from the coding region of a gene, resulting in the loss of phenylalanine at the 508th position in the protein encoded by that gene. A. Cystic fibrosis B. Crohn’s disease C. H.pylori infection D. Ulcerative colitis E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

A. Cystic fibrosis

114
Q

This states that the first (5’) base of the anticodon is not as spatially defined as the other two bases. Movement of that first base allows nontraditional base-pairing with the last (3’) base of the codon, thus allowing a single tRNA to recognize more than one codon for a specific amino acid A. Chargaff’s rule B. Wobble hypothesis C. Shine-Dalgamo sequence D. Semiconservative E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

B. Wobble hypothesis

115
Q

Many antimicrobials inhibits protein translation. Which of the following antimicrobials is correctly paired with is mechanism of action? A. Tetracyclines – inhibits peptidyltransferase B. Diphtheria toxin – binds to the 30S subunits C. Puromycin – inactivates EF-2 D. Erythromycin – binds with 50S ribosomal subunits E. Clindamycin – binds to the 30S ribosomal subunits

A

D. Erythromycin – binds with 50S ribosomal subunits

116
Q

The movement of the uncharged tRNA from the P to the E site (before being released), and movement of the peptidyl tRNA from the A to the P site is termed as: A. Transcription B. Translation C. Translocation D. Transformation E. Transferin

A

B. Translation

PACOP (7 decks)

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