Disorders Of Renal Failure & Kidney—USE** Flashcards

1
Q

Kidney Funtions

A

Regulate electrolytes

Eliminate wastes

Filter blood

Regulate fluid volume & blood pressure

Secrete erythropoietin

Metabolize vitamin D

Maintain bone calcification

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2
Q

Renal Failure

A

Inability of nephrons to maintain:
Fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance

Excretion of nitrogenous waste

Regulatory functions (erythropoietin production)

Types:
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

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3
Q

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)

A

Sudden, rapid decrease in renal function

Potentially reversible with early treatment

Causes: Prerenal (decreases blood flow); Intrarenal (tissue damage); Postrenal (obstruction)

Pathophysiology: decreases GFR —> oliguria, increases BUN & creatinine —> waste buildup

Phase of AKI: Onset, oliguric (anuric), diuretic, recovery

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4
Q

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

A

Progressive & irreversible kidney damage

Top causes: diabetes, hypertension, glomerulonephritis

Stages: 1 —> 5

Clinical features: decreased urine output, azotemia, uremia, uremic frost, proteinuria, edema, hypertension, hyponatremia (diluted sodium, anemia, SOB

Electrolytes Imbalance: hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypermagnesemia, hypocalcemia, metabolic acidosis

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5
Q

Dialysis

A

Purpose: Clean and filter blood

Semipermeable membrane

Diffusion, osmosis, filtration, ultrafiltration

Dialysate creates concentration gradient

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6
Q

Hemodialysis

A

AV fistula/graft (feel for thrill, listen for bruit)

Central/femoral catheter access

Nursing management:
-Monitor for: SOB, hypotension, N/V, tachycardia, muscle cramps, Dysrhythmias, disequilibrium syndrome, bleeding risk (client is heparinized)

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7
Q

Peritoneal dialysis

A

Uses peritoneum as filter

CAPD: 3-5 exchange/day

APD: machine at night

Nursing Management:
Monitor for peritonitis (major complication)

Weight client regularly

Watch for: N/V, abdmonial pain, rigidity, tenderness

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8
Q

Kidney Transplant

A

Complications:

Rejection

Hemorrhage

Renal artery thrombosis

Infection

Antirejection drugs necessary

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9
Q

Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)

A

*Hereditary; Multiple bilateral kidney cysts —> interfere with function —> renal failure

Assessment findings: HTN, lumbar/abdominal pain, tenderness, colic, Hematuria, renal stones, headaches, increased abdominal girth

Diagnostics: UA: proteinuria, Hematuria, pyuria, CBC (decreased) or RBC (elevated), enlarged kidneys, BUN & creatinine (elevated)

Treatment:
HTN: antihypertensives, diuretics, sodium restriction

UTI: antibiotics

Anemia: iron, erythropoietin (Epogen)

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10
Q

Acute Glomerulonephritis

A

Inflammation of glomeruli; often post-infectious (bacterial/viral); permeability (increased), RBCs/protein leak into urine

Symptoms: often asymptomatic; fever, nausea, malaise, HA, edema (periorbital, generalized); Hematuria (cola-colored), proteinuria (foamy urine); HTN, fatigue; pain over kidneys, nocturnal, SOB, anemia, CHR, oliguria/anuria

Diagnostics: Hematuria, proteinuria, antistreptolysin O (ASO) tiger (elevated), Hgb (decreased); slight (increased) BUN & creatinine; ESR (elevated); If renal insufficiency: hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia, hypocalcemia, dilutional hyponatremia

NOTE specific treatment

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11
Q
A
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12
Q

Chronic Glomerulonephritis

A

Slow progression —> irreversible nephron damage; third leading cause of end-stage kidney disease

Symptoms: sometimes asymptomatic, Anasarca, fatigue, HA, dizziness, HTN, dyspnea, visual disturbances, weight loss, GI issues, decreased strength, nocturia

Diagnostics: RBCs (decreased); Azotemia; BUN, creatinine, uric acid (all elevated); hyperkalemia; phosphorus (increased); calcium (decreased); chest X-ray will show cardiac enlargement; ECG: LVH, tall peaked T waves

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13
Q

Pyelonephritis

Acute or Chronic: infection of kidneys and collecting system

A

Acute: kidney enlargement, inflammation; later fibrosis/scarring

Chronic: after repeated acute infections

Symptoms: flank pain; fever; chills; malaise; cloudy; bloody, foul-smelling urine; polyuria; nocturia; chronic cases may have vague GI complaints or be asymptomatic

Diagnostics: urine culture; VCUG; KUB x-ray; DMSA scan; BUN & creatinine

Treatment: Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim; ceftriaxone; Gentamicin—Nephrectomy (if severe HTN & other kidney is functional)

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14
Q

What medication is used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease?

A

Erythropoietin (Epogen)

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15
Q

What class of medications is used to manage hypertension in kidney disease?

A

Antihypertensives (ACE inhibitors, ARBs)

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16
Q

What medication type is often used alongside antihypertensives to manage fluid volume in polycystic kidney disease?

A

Diuretics

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17
Q

What is given along with erythropoietin to support RBC production in kidney disease?

A

Iron supplements

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18
Q

Name antibiotics used to treat pyelonephritis

A

Ciprofloxacin, Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (Bactrim), Ceftriaxone, Gentamicin

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19
Q

Why must you monitor Gentamicin levels in patients with kidney impairment?

A

Risk of nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity

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20
Q

What is used to prevent transplant rejection after kidney transplant?

A

Antirejection drugs (corticosteroids, calcineurin inhibitors)

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21
Q

What must you monitor closely in patients receiving hemodialysis & heparin?

A

Signs of bleeding due to anticoagulation

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22
Q

What is a key medication-related complication of peritoneal dialysis?

A

Peritonitis—requires prompt antibiotic treatment

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23
Q

What are the three causes of acute kidney injury?

A

Prerenal (decreased blood flow); Intrarenal (tissue damage); postrenal (obstruction)

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24
Q

What are the four phases of acute kidney injury?

A

Onset, Oliguric, Diuretic, Recovery

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25
What are the hallmark electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease?
Elevated potassium; elevated phosphorus, elevated magnesium; decreased calcium
26
What is azotemia?
Accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood
27
What are common signs of uremia?
Fatigue, nausea, mental changes, uremic frost
28
What is a bruit and thrill?
Bruit: whooshing sound Thrill: vibration —Both indicate a patent AV fistula
29
What are signs of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome?
Headache, confusion, seizures, blurred vision
30
What diagnostic test confirms a past streptococcal infection in acute Glomerulonephritis?
Elevated antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer
31
What is a key distinguishing symptom of Glomerulonephritis?
Pink/Cola-colored urine (Hematuria) and foamy urine (proteinuria)
32
What is peritonitis and how does it relate to dialysis?
Infection of the peritoneum; major complication of peritoneal dialysis
33
What procedure is done if hypertension from pyelonephritis is severe and one kidney functions well?
Nephrectomy
34
What is the #1 cause of chronic kidney disease?
Diabetes mellitus
35
What are the other leading causes of chronic kidney disease?
#2 hypertension #3 Glomerulonephritis
36
What diagnostic labs increase with worsening kidney function?
BUN & creatinine
37
what is the difference between uremia & azotemia?
Uremia includes symptoms; azotemia refers to lab findings of nitrogen waste accumulation
38
What urinary changes are seen in chronic Glomerulonephritis?
Proteinuria, sediment, casts, RBCs, WBCs
39
What does a decreased creatinine clearance indicate?
Reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
40
What imaging might show cardiac effects of chronic kidney disease?
Chest x-ray, echocardiogram, ECG
41
What ECG change indicates hyperkalemia?
Tall, peaked T waves
42
What symptoms might suggest chronic Glomerulonephritis?
Anasarca, fatigue, HTN, nocturia, dizziness, visual disturbances
43
What is Anasarca?
Generalized body swelling from fluid retention
44
What infection leads to acute Glomerulonephritis?
Streptococcal infection
45
What are classic signs of acute pyelonephritis?
Flank pain, fever, chills, malaise, cloudy/foul-smelling urine
46
What urinary changes are seen in polycystic kidney disease?
Hematuria, proteinuria, pyuria
47
What physical finding may indicate worsening PKD?
Increased abdominal girth and palpable kidney enlargement
48
What two peritoneal dialysis types are available?
CAPD (continuous ambulatory) and APD (automated nighttime)
49
What are signs of peritonitis?
Fever, nausea, vomiting, severe abdominal pain, rigidity, tenderness
50
What diagnostic test shows renal scarring in pyelonephritis?
DMSA scintigraphy
51
What is the key difference between acute and chronic pyelonephritis?
Acute: sudden infection with inflammation Chronic: recurrent infections leading to scarring
52
What two things are you checking when assessing an AV fistula?
Palatable thrill and auscultated bruit
53
What is the major complication of hemodialysis to monitor for?
Disequilibrium syndrome and hypotension
54
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who reports shortness of breath and fatigue. Lab results show Hgb 8.2 g/dL, Hct 25%, and RBCs below normal. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? A. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic B. Prepare for emergency dialysis C. Administer subcutaneous erthropoietin D. Restrict oral fluids to 1,000 mL/day
C. Administer subcutaneous erthyropoietin -Erythropoietin helps stimulate RBC production to correct anemia of CKD
55
A client with end-stage renal disease is receiving hemodialysis through an AV fistula. Which assessment finding indicates the fistula is patent? A. Swelling and redness at site B. Absence of a bruit C. Palpable thrill and auscultated bruit D. Blood pressure difference between arms
C. Palpable thrill and auscultated bruit —A functioning AV fistula will have a bruit and a thrill
56
A nurse is caring for a client post-peritoneal dialysis. The client reports abdominal pain and the dialysate drainage is cloudy. What is the priority nursing action? A. Document the findings as expected B. Notify the provider C. Administer PRN pain medication D. Re-infuse the same dialysate
B. Notify the provider —Cloudy drainage and pain are signs of peritonitis, a complication requiring immediate attention
57
A 17- year old client with a recent history of strep throat presents with cola-colored urine, periorbital edema, and hypertension. Which condition does the nurse suspect? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Acute Glomerulonephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Acute Glomerulonephritis —Post-streptococcal acute Glomerulonephritis presents with Hematuria, edema, and hypertension
58
Which lab result supports the diagnosis of chronic Glomerulonephritis? A. Elevated antistreptolysin O tiger B. Elevated uric acid and BUN, presence of urinary casts C. Decreased serum potassium D. Normal creatinine clearance
B. Elevated uric acid and BUN, presence of urinary casts —CGN causes progressive nephron damage, increasing waste products and producing casts in urine
59
A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated BUN, creatinine, and potassium. Which of the following ECG findings should the nurse expect? A. ST segment depression B. Flat T waves C. Tall, peaked T waves D. Prolonged QT interval
C. Tall, peaked T waves —Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves and can lead to dangerous Dysrhythmias
60
A client undergoing dialysis reports headache, confusion, and restlessness during the treatment? A. Disequilibrium syndrome B. Peritonitis C. Hypervolemia D. Electrolyte depletion
A. Disequilibrium syndrome —Rapid shifts in solutes can lead to cerebral edema known as dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
61
A nurse a reviewing the chart of a client with polycystic kidney disease. Which finding should the nurse expect? A. Frothy urine and periorbital edema B. Flank pain and increased abdominal girth C. Fever and chills with cloudy urine D. Pain relieved by urination
B. Flank pain and increased abdominal girth —PKD leads to multiple renal cysts causing abdominal distention and flank pain
62
Which diagnostic test best confirms scarring from chronic pyelonephritis? A. Voiding cystourethroagram (VCUG) B. Urinalysis with culture C. DMSA renal scan D. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray
C. A DMSA scan reveals structural changes and scarring in renal tissues —A DMSA scan reveals structural changes and scarring in renal tissues
63
The nurse is caring for a client in the oliguric phase of AKI. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect? A. Polyuria and muscle cramps B. Increased urine output and decreased BUN C. Elevated BUN and serum creatinine with minimal urine output D. Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia
C. Elevated BUN and serum creatinine with minimal urine output —Oliguric phase is marked by sharply decreased urine output and rising nitrogenous wastes
64
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin (Epogen) injections for anemia. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor monthly to assess the effectiveness of this therapy? A. Serum creatinine B. Hemoglobin C. Potassium D. White blood cell count
B. Hemoglobin —Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production; monitor hemoglobin to assess effectiveness and avoid overcorrection (>12 g/dL).
65
A client with end-stage renal disease reports fatigue, tingling in the feet, and difficulty walking. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely contributing to the client’s neurological symptoms? A. Iron B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin D D. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B12 —Vitamin B12 deficiency causes neurological issues like parenthesis and coordination problems, common in renal failure patients
66
A client with a platelet count of 42,000/mm is being prepared for peritoneal dialysis. What action should the nurse take next? A. Continue preparation for the procedure B. Hold anticoagulants but proceed C. Notify the provider of the increased bleeding risk D. Administer potassium before dialysis
C. Notify the provider of the increased bleeding risk —A platelet count <50,000 increases the risk of bleeding; provider must be notified before any invasive procedure
67
A client receiving chemotherapy develops petechiae, epistaxis, and ecchymosis. Which complication is the nurse most concerned about? A. Neurtrpenia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Leukopenia D. Hyperkalemia
B. Thrombocytopenia —These are hallmark signs of thrombocytopenia (low platelets), a common side effect of chemotherapy
68
A client with a polycystic kidney disease has a hemoglobin level of 9.0 g/dL and reports extreme fatigue. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer? A. Furosemide B. Erythropoietin C. Hydroxyurea D. Prednisone
B. Erythropoietin —Anemia due to impaired erythropoietin production is common in PKD and managed synthetic erythropoietin
69
A client with immune thrombocytopenia purport (ITP) is admitted with a nosebleed and bruising. Which mediation on the MAR should the nurse question? A. Acetaminophen B. Prednisone C. Sulfamethoxazole D. Amoxicillin
C. Sulfamethoxazole —Sulfa drugs, NSAIDs, and aspirin impair platelet function and increase bleeding risk in ITP patients
70
A client with chronic Glomerulonephritis is admitted with periorbital edema, proteinuria, and hypertension. Which diagnostic lab findings would the nurse expect? A. Decreased creatinine clearance, increased BUN and uric acid B. Increased Hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Increased platelet count D. Decreased potassium
A. Decreased creatinine clearance, increased BUN and uric acid —Progressive nephron damage causes reduced filtration and retention of nitrogenous wastes
71
A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated about dietary needs. Which of the following foods should be limited due to the risk of hyperphosphatemia? A. White rice B. Fresh fruit C. Cheese and dairy D. Olive oil
C. Cheese and dairy —Dairy products are high in phosphorus and should be limited to prevent worsening of CKD complications
72
A client undergoing dialysis becomes disoriented and develops blurred vision during treatment. What is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Stop dialysis immediately B. Decrease the rate of ultrafiltration and notify the provider C. Administer antemetics D. Increase the dialysate flow
B. Decrease the rate of ultrafiltration and notify the provider —These are symptoms of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. Slowing the rate helps reduce cerebral edema
73
A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease asks why a blood transfusion isn’t being given. What is the best nursing response? A. Transfusions are avoided to prevent iron overload and antibody formation B. Transfusion are only used in sickle cell anemia C. It’s safer to avoid transfusions because of allergic reactions D. We’re trying to save transfusion in case of surgery
A. Transfusions are avoided to prevent iron overload and antibody formation —Frequent transfusions can lead to iron overload and increase the risk of sensitization before transplant
74
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) Nursing Diagnosis: Excess fluid volume related to compromised regulatory mechanisms (renal failure) as evidenced by edema, weight gain, and dyspnea
Goal: client will demonstrate fluid balance as evidenced by stable weight, decreased edema, and normal breath sounds within 72 hours Interventions: Weigh daily: monitors fluid retention or loss accurately Assess lung sounds and monitor for crackles: detects fluid volume & risk for pulmonary edema Restrict fluid and sodium intake as ordered: Reduces fluid volume & helps control blood pressure Monitor intake and output strictly: ensures fluid balance and guides further therapy Administer prescribed diuretics or dialysis as indicated: removes excess fluid & improves respiratory function
75
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) Nursing Diagnosis: Risk for electrolyte imbalance related to impaired renal excretion
Goal: Client will maintain electrolyte balance as evidenced by serum potassium and sodium within normal range Interventions: Monitor serum electrolyte levels daily: Identifies imbalances early, especially hyperkalemia Observe for ECG changes (tall T waves, arrhythmias): Detects early signs of hyperkalemia Administer electrolyte replacement or binders as ordered: Helps normalize levels and reduce complications Restrict food high in potassium and phosphorus: Prevents worsening of imbalances Prepare for dialysis if conservation measures fail: Used to rapidly remove excess electrolytes
76
Hemodialysis Nursing Diagnosis: Risk for infection related to vascular access (AV fistula/graft or catheter)
Goal: Client will remain free of signs and symptoms of infection throughout dialysis treatment Intervention: Assess AV fistula site for redness, swelling, or drainage: early detection of infection at access site Palpate for thrill and auscultated for bruit each shift: ensures patience and functioning of the fistula Maintain strict aseptic technique when handling catheters: prevents introduction of pathogens Teach client not to sleep or carry heavy items on fistula arm: Prevents damage and clotting of the access site Monitor temperature & WBC count: systemic signs of infection must be promptly addressed
77
Iron Deficiency Anemia Nursing Diagnosis: Activity intolerance related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
Goal: Client will verbalize improved energy and tolerance to activity within one week Interventions: Assess fatigue level and daily activity pattern: Helps tailor energy-conserving measure Allow frequent rest periods between activities: prevents overexertion and preserves energy Encourage iron-rich foods and vitamin C intake: support hemoglobin synthesis and improves absorption Administer iron supplements as prescribed: corrects iron deficiency and supports oxygen delivery Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit regularly: tracks effectiveness of treatment and recovery progress
78
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) Nursing Diagnosis: Risk for bleeding related to low platelet count
Goal: Client will remain free of active bleeding episodes during hospitalization Interventions: Monitor for petechiae, ecchymosis, and gum/nose bleeding: early signs of hemorrhage in thrombocytopenia Avoid injections, use smallest needle gauge if necessary: minimizes trauma and bleeding Educate client to avoid NSAIDS or aspirin: these impair platelet function further Implement fall precautions: prevents injury that could result in serious bleeding Administer IVIG or corticosteroids as ordered: reduces autoimmune platelet destruction
79
Polycystic Kidney Disease Nursing Diagnosis: Chronic pain related to cystic enlargement and pressure on surrounding tissues.
Goal: Client will verbalize a reduction in pain level to 3/10 with medication and comfort measure Interventions: Assess pain level using 0-10 scale routinely: evaluates response to therapy and need for adjustment Administer prescribed analgesics: controls discomfort from abdominal/flank pain Encourage positioning to relieve pressure (side-lying): minimizes pressure from enlarged kidneys Monitor for sings of cyst rupture or infection: May require urgent intervention Teach client about avoiding contact sports or trauma: prevents potential rupture of cysts
80
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which of the following lab values requires the nurse to without the next dose and notify the provider? A. Hemoglobin 9.5 B. Hemoglobin 13.2 C. Hematocrit 28% D. Serum potassium 5.2
B. Hemoglobin 13.2 —Erythropoietin should be withheld if hemoglobin exceeds 12 due to increased risk for thromboembolic events
81
The nurse is preparing to administer oral ferrous sulfate to a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. I’ll take this with orange juice B. I should avoid taking this with milk C. If my stools turns black, I’ll stop taking the iron D. I may need a stool softener while taking this
C. If my stools turns black, I’ll stop taking the iron —Black stools are a normal and expected effect of oral iron supplements, not a reason to stop
82
A client receiving IV gentamicin for pyelonephritis begins complaining of tinnitus and vertigo. What is the nurse’s priority action? A. Reassure the client that this is expected B. Stop the infusion and notify the provider C. Document the finding and monitor the client D. Administer acetaminophen for symptom relief
B. Stop the infusion and notify the provider C —These are signs of ototoxicity, a serious side effect of aminoglycosides like gentamicin, especially in renal impairment
83
The nurse is reviewing the medications for a client with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which medication should the nurse question? A. Prednisone B. Ibuprofen C. IVIG D. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen —NSAIDs like ibuprofen interfere with platelet function and increase bleeding risk in ITP.
84
A client with end stage kidney disease is receiving phosphate binders and erythropoietin. which nursing instruction is most appropriate for the phosphate binder? A. Take it with meals B. Crush the tablet and mix it with orange juice C. Take it on an empty stomach before dialysis D. Use it only when experiencing cramping
A. Take it with meals —Phosphate binders are taken with meals to bind dietary phosphorus and prevent hyperphosphatemia
85
A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease asks why blood transfusions aren’t given instead of injections. What is the most accurate nurse response? A. Blood transfusion are safer and used was a last resort B. Injections are cheaper and don’t cause reactions C. Frequent transfusions can cause iron overload and immune sensitization D. It depends on how tired you feel that day
C. Frequent transfusions cause cause iron overload and immune sensitization —Erythropoietin is preferred over transfusions to avoid complication like iron overload and alloimmunization
86
the nurse is providing discharge education to a client taking prednisone for ITP. Which of the following should the nurse include? A. Avoid grapefruit while taking this medication B. You should stop taking it as soon as your bruising improves C. Watch for signs of infection and report fever immediately D. Take this medication with an antacid to decrease absorption
C. Watch for signs of infection and report fever immediately —Prednisone suppresses the immune system, increasing infection risk. Sudden discontinuation can also cause adrenal crisis.
87
A client with iron-deficiency anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which meal pairing should the nurse recommend to improve absorption? A. Iron supplement with coffee and eggs B. iron supplement with milk and cereal C. Iron supplement with beef liver and orange juice D. Iron supplement with calcium-rich yogurt
C. iron supplement with beef liver and orange juice —Iron-rich foods plus vitamin C (like orange juice) enhance absorption. Dairy inhibits it
88
A nurse is reviewing medication for a client with stage 5 CKD. Which prescribed medication should the nurse clarify with the provider? A. Aluminum hydroxide (phosphate binders) B. Enalapril (ACE inhibitor) C. Ibuprofen 600 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain D. Epoetin Alfa 40,000 units weekly
C. Ibuprofen 600 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain —NSAIDs like ibuprofen should be avoided in CKD due to nephrotoxicity and impaired renal perfusion
89
A client with sickle cell disease is beginning hydroxyurea therapy. Which of the following findings indicates the need to notify the provider immediately? A. Increased fetal hemoglobin B. Mild nausea after dosing C. Absolute neutrophil count of 900 D. Occasional fatigue
C. Absolute neutrophil count of 900 —-Hydroxyurea can cause severe bone marrow suppression; neutropenia <1000 requires immediate evaluation
90
What are the phases of AKI?
-Onset phase -Oliguric (anuric) phase -Diuretic phase -Recovery phase
91
What is the oliguric phase (2nd phase)
Time frame: 1-7 days Glomerulus decreases the ability to filter blood = decreases urine output Strict I&Os, daily weight, dialysis may be needed until kidney function returns Monitor EKG & labs (watch for hyperkalemia), low-protein diet, limit fluid intake
92
What is the diuretic phase (3rd phase)?
Time frame: 1-3 weeks Cause of AKI is corrected, gradual increase in urinary output (large amount of diluted urine with electrolytes) Monitor for dehydration & hypokalemia
93
What is the recovery phase (final)?
Time frame: 3-12 months Increase in kidney function Treatment: some develop chronic kidney disease (CKD)—Needs dialysis or kidney transplant
94
What diet modifications are needed for AKI?
Low protein diet and limit fluid intake
95
What should be monitored in patients with AKI?
Monitor for dehydration & hypokalemia (potassium under 3.5)
96
What is acute Glomerulonephritis (AM) also referred to as?
Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
97
How long after a streptococcal infection do antibodies get lodged in the glomeruli?
14 days after infection
98
What can abnormal lung sounds indicate in patients with acute Glomerulonephritis?
Presence of fluid in the lungs
99
What are the stages of CKD based on?
Based on the glomerular filtration rate
100
What are the GFR ranges for CKD stages?
Stage 1 = Over 90 Stage 2 = 89-60 Stage 3A = 59-45 Stage 3B = 44-30 Stage 4 = 29-15 End stage (ESRD) = under 15
101
What happens to GFR as CKD worsens?
As CKD worsens, GFR decreases because the glomeruli can not function and filter out
102
What are cardiac system symptoms of CKD?
Fluid volume excess (hypervolemia) Hypertension Heart failure
103
What are hematological symptoms of CKD?
Anemia, increased risk for bleeding and amenorrhea
104
What are integumentary system symptoms of CKD?
Uremic frost and pruritus due to crystallized urea deposits
105
What are some complications of hemodialysis?
Fistula infection or thrombosis
106
What is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome?
Rare complication caused by rapid removal of urea during the filtration process, leading to neurological symptoms like nausea/vomiting, altered level of consciousness, restlessness, and seizures
107
What do healthy kidneys do?
Filter waste products from the blood
108
What is hemodialysis?
Dialyzer (artificial kidney) to remove excess fluids and toxins Most common method of dialysis
109
What is the process of hemodialysis?
Blood is filtered —> removing toxins/waste Blood with toxins/waste is brought to the dialyzer (artificial kidney) Clean blood is brought back to the body
110
What happens when kidneys are injured?
Means they need help removing excess waste from the blood; otherwise, waste accumulates and becomes toxic and harmful to the body
111
What is an arteriovenous fistula (AVF)?
Joining an artery and a vein
112
What is an arteriovenous graft (AVG)?
Joining an artery and a vein using a synthetic graft material. Increased risk for infection due to the synthetic graft insertion
113
What is peritoneal dialysis?
Drains into the peritoneum to remove excess fluids and toxins (Inside the body, fluid gets through the abdominal wall) Can be done at home; performed daily 7x a week
114
What is the process of peritoneal dialysis?
Dialysate is a solution infused into the peritoneal cavity by gravity The clamp is closed on the infusion line, and dialysate dwells for a set amount of time (dwell time) The drainage tube is unclamped, and fluid drains from the peritoneal cavity gravity A new container of dialysate is infused as soon as drainage is complete
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What are the complications of peritoneal dialysis?
Hyperglycemia & peritonitis—which has an increased risk for infection in the peritoneum