DISEASES OF THE EXTERNAL EAR (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

What structures make up the outer ear?

A

Auricle and external auditory canal (EAC), up to the tympanic membrane.

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2
Q

What type of epithelium lines the external auditory canal?

A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

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3
Q

How long is the external auditory canal (EAC)?

A

Approximately 2.5 cm.

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4
Q

What marks the demarcation between the external and inner ear?

A

The tympanic membrane.

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5
Q

What is the composition of the auricle?

A

Mostly skin-lined cartilage.

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6
Q

What is the composition of the external auditory meatus?

A

40% cartilaginous (lateral 1/3), 60% bony (medial 2/3).

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7
Q

How does the skin differ in the cartilaginous and bony portions of the EAC?

A

Cartilaginous portion has thicker skin with a soft dermal layer; bony portion has thicker skin (1/2 to 1 mm).

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8
Q

What shape is the external auditory canal (EAC)?

A

S-shaped.

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9
Q

How should the ear be pulled to straighten the EAC in adults?

A

Backward, upward, and outward.

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10
Q

How should the ear be pulled to straighten the EAC in infants?

A

Backward and downward.

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11
Q

Where is the narrowest portion of the external auditory canal?

A

At the bony-cartilage junction, called the isthmus of the EAC.

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12
Q

What cranial nerves provide innervation to the external ear?

A

Cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X.

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13
Q

What arteries supply the external ear?

A

Superficial temporal, posterior auricular, and deep auricular branches.

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14
Q

How does venous drainage of the external ear occur?

A

Through the superficial temporal and posterior auricular veins.

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of impacted cerumen?

A

Use of Q-tips.

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16
Q

What is the criterion for diagnosing impacted cerumen?

A

Cerumen must occlude the entire lumen of the EAC.

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17
Q

Where are the sebaceous and apocrine glands that produce cerumen located?

A

In the cartilaginous third of the external ear, where ear hairs are found.

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18
Q

What are two types of cerumen?

A

Wet and dry.

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19
Q

What methods are used to remove impacted cerumen?

A

Curette under direct visualization, thin suction tip, or water irrigation if the tympanic membrane is intact.

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20
Q

Why should irrigation be avoided in some cases of impacted cerumen?

A

If a foreign body is present, irrigation could push it deeper, causing complications.

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21
Q

When should cerumen not be irrigated?

A

When the tympanic membrane is perforated.

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22
Q

What substances can be used to soften cerumen?

A

Cerumenolytics (docusate sodium, paradichlorobenzene), oil, hydrogen peroxide.

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23
Q

What are the primary causes of trauma to the external ear?

A

Lacerations, hematomas, burns, frostbite, cellulitis, and perichondritis.

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24
Q

What is the difference between lacerations and incised wounds?

A

Lacerations have clean edges from blunt trauma, incised wounds are from sharp objects.

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25
Q

What is the recommended treatment for lacerations of the external ear?

A

Thorough wound cleaning, skin suturing (avoid perichondrium and cartilage), antibiotics, and daily wound care.

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26
Q

What can happen if perichondrium and cartilage are sutured?

A

Inflammation, necrosis, and ‘cauliflower ear’ formation.

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27
Q

What is the main cause of hematomas in the external ear?

A

Blunt trauma, commonly seen in wrestlers, boxers, and victims of abuse.

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28
Q

Why does the cartilage of the ear need special care in hematomas?

A

It is avascular, aneural, and alymphatic, relying on the overlying skin for nourishment.

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29
Q

What is the consequence of an untreated auricular hematoma?

A

Cauliflower ear.

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30
Q

What is the treatment for auricular hematomas?

A

Incision and drainage, pressure dressing, and anti-staphylococcal antibiotics (penicillin, 1st gen cephalosporins, erythromycin).

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31
Q

What percentage of patients with facial burns have ear burns?

A

0.9

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32
Q

What percentage of external ear burns develop suppurative chondritis?

A

0.25

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33
Q

How are first-degree burns of the external ear treated?

A

Conservatively.

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34
Q

How are second-degree burns of the external ear treated?

A

Silver sulfadiazine with mesh dressings.

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35
Q

How are third-degree burns of the external ear treated?

A

Extensive debridement, closure, and later grafting (preferably skin flaps).

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36
Q

What causes frostbite of the external ear?

A

Direct cellular damage and microvascular insult leading to local ischemia.

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37
Q

What is the initial management of frostbite of the external ear?

A

Rapid warming and antibiotics.

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38
Q

Why is surgical debridement delayed in frostbite cases?

A

To allow time for potentially viable tissue to recover.

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39
Q

What is perichondritis?

A

Infection of the perichondrium or cartilage of the ear.

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40
Q

What is a common cause of perichondritis?

A

Trauma to the auricle.

41
Q

What are symptoms of perichondritis?

A

Pain over the auricle and deep in the canal, pruritus, induration, edema.

42
Q

How is perichondritis treated?

A

Antibiotics.

43
Q

What are common foreign bodies found in the external auditory canal?

A

Any object that fits into the opening of the EAC.

44
Q

Why is visualization mandatory before removing a foreign body from the EAC?

A

To assess the location and avoid complications.

45
Q

What should be done after removing a foreign body from the EAC?

A

Reassess for abrasions, lacerations, or a punctured tympanic membrane; administer topical antibiotics and steroids to prevent reactive edema.

46
Q

When might sedation or general anesthesia be required for foreign body removal?

A

If the patient is uncooperative.

47
Q

What is one of the most common diseases of the ear?

A

Otitis externa

48
Q

What are the possible causes of otitis externa?

A

Infectious or non-infectious causes

49
Q

What are the predisposing factors for otitis externa?

A

Change in pH, environmental changes, mild trauma

50
Q

What are the principles of therapy for otitis externa?

A

Relief of pain, eliminating predisposing factors, thorough cleaning

51
Q

What is furunculosis?

A

Infection of the outer third of the external auditory canal (EAC) affecting pilosebaceous follicles

52
Q

What are the common pathogens causing furunculosis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Staphylococcus albus

53
Q

What is the best treatment option for furunculosis?

A

Incision and drainage, systemic antibiotics, and analgesics

54
Q

What is another name for diffuse otitis externa?

A

Swimmer’s ear

55
Q

What organism commonly causes diffuse otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas species and viruses

56
Q

When is diffuse otitis externa most commonly seen?

A

During hot, humid weather

57
Q

What is the ‘otic wick’ technique?

A

A small gauze soaked in otic drops inserted into a swollen ear canal to facilitate medication absorption

58
Q

What is the main symptom of otomycosis?

A

Severe pruritus

59
Q

What is the most common fungal pathogen causing otomycosis?

A

Aspergillus niger

60
Q

Why does otomycosis typically occur in the medial 2/3 of the EAC?

A

The outer 1/3 contains pilosebaceous units and cerumen glands, which provide natural protection

61
Q

What is the initial step in treating otomycosis?

A

Aural toilette (removal of fungal material)

62
Q

What is the first-line antifungal treatment for otomycosis?

A

Otic antifungal preparations for 2 weeks

63
Q

What bacterial infection often follows otomycosis?

A

Secondary bacterial infection

64
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster oticus caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus

65
Q

What are the clinical signs of herpes zoster oticus?

A

Painful vesicles in the EAC and auricle following a dermatomal pattern

66
Q

What nerve is commonly affected in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII)

67
Q

What symptom suggests facial nerve involvement in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Facial nerve palsy

68
Q

What is the treatment for severe cases of herpes zoster oticus?

A

Antivirals, symptomatic pain management, vitamin B12, and systemic steroids for facial palsy

69
Q

What is Bell’s palsy associated with?

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

70
Q

What are common causes of contact dermatitis in the ear?

A

Earphones, ear plugs, hearing aids, fake jewelry

71
Q

What is the main feature of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Erythematous, raised plaque with a greasy scale

72
Q

What is the causative organism of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Malassezia furfur

73
Q

What is the treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Topical steroids and/or keratolytics

74
Q

What percentage of psoriasis cases involve the external ear?

75
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild psoriasis?

A

Topical steroids and UV phototherapy

76
Q

What systemic treatments are used for severe psoriasis?

A

Cyclosporine or methotrexate

77
Q

What is necrotizing external otitis (NEO) also known as?

A

Malignant otitis externa

78
Q

Why is NEO considered malignant?

A

It is a life-threatening condition due to its potential to spread to vital structures

79
Q

What is the most common risk factor for NEO?

A

Diabetes or immunocompromised status

80
Q

What is the primary bacterial pathogen in NEO?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

81
Q

What are the key symptoms of NEO?

A

Deep-seated aural pain, chronic purulent otorrhea, aural fullness

82
Q

What is the treatment for NEO?

A

IV antibiotics for at least 4 weeks, followed by oral antibiotics and serial gallium scans

83
Q

What is the key treatment step for NEO?

A

Removal of all necrotic and granulated tissues

84
Q

What is relapsing polychondritis?

A

A progressive destruction of cartilage affecting the nose, ears, and larynx

85
Q

What are the key features of relapsing polychondritis?

A

Inflamed cauliflower ear, saddle bridge deformity of the nose

86
Q

What is the treatment for relapsing polychondritis?

A

Steroids to control acute attacks and suppress recurrences

87
Q

What is erysipelas?

A

Acute superficial cellulitis caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci

88
Q

What is the hallmark feature of erysipelas?

A

Bright red skin with well-demarcated advancing margins

89
Q

What is the treatment for erysipelas?

A

Rapid administration of oral or IV antibiotics

90
Q

What is keratosis obturans?

A

Accumulation of squamous epithelium in the EAC

91
Q

What age group is commonly affected by keratosis obturans?

A

Young individuals

92
Q

What are the symptoms of keratosis obturans?

A

Pain, hyperemia, granulation, and occasional hearing loss

93
Q

What is the treatment for keratosis obturans?

A

Regular debridement and topical steroids

94
Q

What is canal cholesteatoma?

A

Cystic collection of squamous epithelium in the EAC

95
Q

What is a key feature of canal cholesteatoma on examination?

A

Pearly white, foul-smelling, soft, and pliable mass

96
Q

How does canal cholesteatoma behave clinically?

A

It is benign but behaves like a malignant lesion due to aggressive local destruction

97
Q

What are the symptoms of canal cholesteatoma?

A

Unilateral pain, purulent otorrhea, bony erosion on imaging

98
Q

What is the primary management for canal cholesteatoma?

A

Frequent debridement and topical antibiotics

99
Q

When is surgery considered for canal cholesteatoma?

A

In complicated cases or failure of medical therapy