AUDIOLOGY - EVALUATION ALL TESTS (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

Which aspects should be inspected first during an ear examination?

A

Changes in auricle shape, surgical scars, crusting, discharge (cerumen, mucus, pus, blood, CSF), redness, and swelling.

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2
Q

What are the tools for hearing evaluation?

A

Tuning fork test, pure tone audiometry, speech audiometry, tympanometry, brainstem-evoked response audiometry (BERA - gold standard).

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3
Q

What are the degrees of hearing loss?

A

Mild, moderate, severe.

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4
Q

What are the reference comparisons in a tuning fork test?

A

Examiner’s ear (standard/golden ear), patient’s normal ear (for unilateral hearing loss), third person with normal hearing acuity.

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5
Q

What is measured in a tuning fork test?

A

Threshold of hearing by comparing when the patient and examiner stop hearing the sound.

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6
Q

What is the Weber’s test used for?

A

Determining lateralization of hearing loss.

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7
Q

How is Weber’s test performed?

A

A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the midline of the forehead, vertex of the skull, or incisors, and the patient is asked where they hear the sound best.

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8
Q

What does lateralization to the poorer ear in Weber’s test indicate?

A

Conductive hearing loss (attenuation of background noise and prevention of energy loss from the external auditory canal).

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9
Q

What does lateralization to the better ear in Weber’s test indicate?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss (or normal hearing in both ears/equal conductive hearing loss).

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10
Q

What does the Rinne’s test compare?

A

Bone conduction (BC) vs air conduction (AC).

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11
Q

How is Rinne’s test performed?

A

A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then moved near the external auditory canal.

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12
Q

What is a positive Rinne’s test?

A

AC > BC, indicating normal hearing or sensorineural impairment.

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13
Q

What is a negative Rinne’s test?

A

AC < BC, indicating conductive hearing loss.

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14
Q

Why is masking necessary in Rinne’s test?

A

To prevent the opposite ear from detecting sound through bone conduction, avoiding false-negative results.

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15
Q

What is the Schwabach’s test used for?

A

Comparing the patient’s bone conduction against a normal reference.

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16
Q

How is Schwabach’s test performed?

A

A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process of the patient until inaudible, then applied to a normal reference ear.

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17
Q

What does a prolonged Schwabach’s test result indicate?

A

Conductive hearing loss (EAC/ME pathology).

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18
Q

What does a diminished Schwabach’s test result indicate?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss (cochlear/retrocochlear pathology).

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19
Q

What is the Bing’s test used for?

A

Assessing the occlusion effect.

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20
Q

How is Bing’s test performed?

A

A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid while the examiner alternately occludes and opens the external auditory canal by pressing on the tragus.

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21
Q

What is a positive Bing’s test?

A

Increase in loudness when ear is covered and decrease when opened, indicating normal or sensorineural hearing loss.

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22
Q

What is a negative Bing’s test?

A

No change in loudness, indicating conductive hearing loss.

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23
Q

What are the limitations of tuning fork tests?

A

Subjectivity in detecting inaudibility, difficulty in reproducibility, background noise interference, and skull vibration stimulating both cochleae.

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24
Q

Why is the 256 Hz tuning fork preferred?

A

It is the most accurate for detecting slight conductive hearing loss.

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25
Q

Why is the 512 Hz tuning fork preferred?

A

It is more useful for Bing’s test.

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26
Q

Why can tuning fork tests produce false results?

A

Bone conduction vibrates the entire skull, allowing sound to be heard in both ears, leading to false positives/negatives.

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27
Q

Why is it recommended to use multiple tuning fork tests?

A

To improve accuracy by cross-checking results due to the unreliability of single tests.

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28
Q

What technological advancement in the early 1920s made pure tone audiometry possible?

A

The invention of vacuum tubes to produce electronic tones.

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29
Q

Which frequencies are sampled in pure tone audiometry that represent the spectrum of human hearing capability?

A

125, 250, 500, 1000, 2000, 4000, and 8000 Hz.

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30
Q

What are the half-octave interval frequencies provided in pure tone audiometry?

A

750, 1500, 3000, and 6000 Hz.

31
Q

What is the advantage of pure tone audiometry regarding tonal intensity?

A

Tonal intensity can be maintained at a fixed level or interrupted at will at fixed intervals.

32
Q

Name the three essential parts of pure tone audiometry (PTA).

A
  1. Variable frequency oscillator, 2. Attenuator, 3. Transducer.
33
Q

What is the function of a variable frequency oscillator in PTA?

A

To produce sounds with changeable frequencies.

34
Q

What role does the attenuator play in PTA?

A

It changes the volume to permit variations in intensity of the sound.

35
Q

What is the purpose of a transducer in PTA?

A

To convert electrical energy to acoustic energy using devices like earphones, bone vibrators, or loudspeakers.

36
Q

What is an audiogram?

A

A graph of the patient’s hearing sensitivity for various frequencies.

37
Q

How are measures recorded on an audiogram?

A

Separately for each ear, with frequency on the x-axis (abscissa) and intensity on the y-axis (ordinate).

38
Q

Define ‘threshold’ in the context of audiometry.

A

The lowest intensity level in dB that can be heard for each frequency.

39
Q

What is ‘Audiometric Zero (ANSI)’?

A

The median average threshold of a large sample of young adults with no hearing complaints, representing 0 dB HL.

40
Q

What does it indicate when bone conduction thresholds are better than air conduction by 10 dB or more and are normal?

A

The hearing loss is conductive.

41
Q

What type of hearing loss is indicated when bone conduction thresholds are the same as air conduction and neither is normal?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss.

42
Q

If bone conduction thresholds are reduced but still better than air conduction by 10 dB or more, what type of hearing loss is this?

A

Mixed or combined hearing loss.

43
Q

What does the horizontal axis on an audiogram represent?

A

Frequencies (Hz), ranging from 250 to 8000 Hz.

44
Q

What does the vertical axis on an audiogram represent?

A

Intensity of the sounds (dB).

45
Q

What is considered a normal hearing threshold in dB?

A

0-20 dB is considered normal; clinically, up to 25 dB is acceptable.

46
Q

What dB range indicates mild hearing loss?

47
Q

What dB range indicates moderate hearing loss?

48
Q

What dB range indicates severe hearing loss?

49
Q

What dB range indicates profound hearing loss?

A

80-100 dB.

50
Q

In audiogram color coding, which color represents the right ear?

51
Q

In audiogram color coding, which color represents the left ear?

52
Q

What symbol is typically used to represent air conduction in the right ear on an audiogram?

A

A circle (O).

53
Q

What symbol is typically used to represent air conduction in the left ear on an audiogram?

A

An ‘X’.

54
Q

What does a ‘Carhart’s notch’ at 2000 Hz on an audiogram suggest?

A

It is a signature for otosclerosis.

55
Q

What does a notch at 4000 Hz on an audiogram typically indicate?

A

Noise-induced hearing loss.

56
Q

What does pure tone audiometry (PTA) measure?

A

The ability to hear various tones, typically beeps or warbles, across different frequencies.

57
Q

Why is speech audiometry important in hearing assessments?

A

It evaluates the ability to understand speech, which is crucial for effective communication.

58
Q

What is the purpose of masking the non-test ear during speech audiometry?

A

To prevent crossover hearing, ensuring accurate assessment of each ear individually.

59
Q

How does Speech Reception Threshold (SRT) differ from Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA)?

A

SRT measures sensitivity using words, while PTA uses tones; SRT assesses the lowest level at which speech can be recognized 50% of the time.

60
Q

What type of words are used in determining the Speech Reception Threshold?

A

Spondee words, which are two-syllable words with equal stress on each syllable.

61
Q

How is the Spondee Threshold defined?

A

The faintest presentation level in dB at which the patient correctly identifies 50% of the test words.

62
Q

Which pure tone frequencies does the Spondee Threshold closely agree with?

A

500, 1000, and 2000 Hz, as these frequencies are commonly used in human speech.

63
Q

What might a difference of 15 dB or more between the Spondee Threshold and Pure Tone Average indicate?

A

Possible equipment calibration error, patient misunderstanding, lack of cooperation, or malingering.

64
Q

What does Speech Discrimination Testing assess?

A

The patient’s ability to understand speech, aiding in diagnosing the site of lesion and planning rehabilitation.

65
Q

What type of word lists are used in Speech Discrimination Testing?

A

Phonetically balanced, single-syllable word lists that reflect the relative incidence of various speech sounds in the chosen language.

66
Q

At what level are words presented during Speech Discrimination Testing?

A

20 to 40 dB above the Speech Reception Threshold or at the patient’s most comfortable level.

67
Q

What is considered a normal score in Speech Discrimination Testing?

A

94-100% correct word recognition.

68
Q

What does Tympanometry measure?

A

The compliance (mobility) of the tympanic membrane and ossicular chain system under varying air pressures, assessing middle ear function.

69
Q

What does a Type A tympanogram indicate?

A

Normal middle ear pressure with maximum compliance near ambient air pressure.

70
Q

What condition might a Type AS tympanogram suggest?

A

Fixation or stiffening of the ossicular system, as it shows normal pressure but reduced compliance.

71
Q

What does a Type AD tympanogram signify?

A

Very high compliance at ambient pressure, possibly indicating ossicular discontinuity or a monomeric tympanic membrane.

72
Q

What does a Type B tympanogram typically indicate?

A

A flat curve suggesting middle ear fluid, a thickened drum, or impacted cerumen.

73
Q

What might a Type C tympanogram reveal?

A

Maximum compliance at negative pressure, often associated with a retracted tympanic membrane or Eustachian tube dysfunction.