Dion exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A company is having a new T1 line installed. Which of the following does this connection MOST likely terminate?

  • Patch panel
  • IDF
  • Demarcation point
  • Krone block
A

Demarcation point

OBJ-1.2: The telecom company usually terminates the circuits at the Main Distribution Facility (MDF) at the demarcation point. A main distribution frame (MDF or main frame) is a signal distribution frame for connecting equipment (inside plant) to cables and subscriber carrier equipment (outside plant). An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is a distribution frame in a central office or customer premises, which cross connects the user cable media to individual user line circuits and may serve as a distribution point for multipair cables from the main distribution frame (MDF) to individual cables connected to equipment in areas remote from these frames. A Krone block is an insulation-displacement connector for telecommunications networks used in Europe and is similar to a 110 punch down block. A patch panel is a device or unit featuring a number of jacks, usually of the same or similar type, for the use of connecting and routing circuits for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner. Since a T1 line is provided by a telecommunications service provider, it should terminate at your demarcation point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the broadcast address associated with the host located at 192.168.0.123/29?

  • 192.168.0.191
  • 192.168.0.63
  • 192.168.0.255
  • 192.168.0.127
A

192.168.0.127

OBJ-1.4: In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the broadcast address is the last IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /29, so each subnet will contain 8 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 192.168.0.123, the broadcast address will be 192.168.0.127.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You are assisting the company with developing a new business continuity plan. What would be the BEST recommendation to add to the BCP?

  • Perform recurring vulnerability scans
  • Build redundant links between core devices
  • Physically secure all network equipment
  • Maintain up-to-date configuration backups
A

Build redundant links between core devices

Overall explanation
OBJ-3.2: The business continuity plan focuses on the tasks carried out by an organization to ensure that critical business functions continue to operate during and after a disaster. By keeping redundant links between core devices, critical business services can be kept running if one link is unavailable during a disaster. Some of the other options are good ideas, too, but this is the BEST choice to maintain a high availability network that can continue to operate during periods of business disruption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Jonah is conducting a physical penetration test against Dion Training. He walks up to the access control vestibule and tells an employee standing there. He says, “I forgot my access card on my desk when I left for lunch, would you mind swiping your badge for me so I can go to my desk and retrieve my access card?” What type of social engineering attack is Jonah attempting?

  • Phishing
  • Shoulder surfing
  • Tailgating
  • Piggybacking
A

Piggybacking

Overall explanation
OBJ-4.2: Piggybacking attack is a social engineering attempt by cyber threat actors in which they trick employees into helping them gain unauthorized access into the company premises. The big difference between tailgating and piggybacking is permission. Tailgating is when an unauthorized person physically follows an authorized person into a restricted corporate area or system. With tailgating, the authorized person doesn’t know the unauthorized person is walking behind them. With Piggybacking, the authorized person will allow the unauthorized person to enter the secure area using the authorized person’s access credentials. Shoulder surfing is a type of social engineering technique used to obtain information such as personal identification numbers, passwords and other confidential data by looking over the victim’s shoulder. Phishing is a type of social engineering where an attacker sends a fraudulent email designed to trick a human victim into revealing sensitive information to the attacker or to deploy malicious software on the victim’s infrastructure like ransomware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following describes the process of layer protective measures in the network to protect valuable data and information?

  • Acceptable use policy
  • Zero trust
  • Least privilege
  • Defense in depth
A

Defense in depth

Overall explanation
OBJ-4.1: Defense in Depth is an approach to cybersecurity in which a series of defensive mechanisms are layered in order to protect valuable data and information. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict the ways in which the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used. Zero-trust is a security framework that requires all users, whether in or outside the organization’s network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data. Least privilege is the concept and practice of restricting access rights for users, accounts, and computing processes to only those resources absolutely required to perform routine, legitimate activities. Privilege itself refers to the authorization to bypass certain security restraints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dion Training uses a VoIP conferencing solution to conduct its weekly staff meetings. When Jason is talking, some of the employees say it sounds like he is speeding up and slowing down randomly. Tamera is sitting in the office with Jason, and she says Jason is speaking at the same rate the entire time. Which of the following network performance metrics would be most useful in determining why the VoIP service is not presenting a consistent pace when delivering Jason’s voice over the network?

  • Jitter
  • Throughput
  • Bandwidth
  • Latency
A

Jitter

Overall explanation
OBJ-3.2: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. A jitter is simply a variation in the delay of the packets, and this can cause some strange side effects, especially for voice and video calls. If you have ever been in a video conference where someone was speaking and then their voice started speeding up for 5 or 10 seconds, then returned to normal speed, you have been on the receiving end of their network’s jitter. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Your office is located in a small office park, and you are installing a new wireless network access point for your employees. The companies in the adjacent offices are using Wireless B/G/N routers in the 2.4 GHz spectrum. Your security system uses the 5 GHz spectrum, so you have purchased a 2.4 GHz wireless access point to ensure you don’t cause interference with the security system. To maximize the distance between channels, which set of channels should you configure for use on your access points?

  • 3, 6, 9
  • 1, 6, 11
  • 2, 6, 10
  • 1, 7, 13
A

1, 6, 11

Overall explanation
OBJ-2.4: Wireless access points should always be configured with channels 1, 6, or 11 to maximize the distance between channels and prevent overlaps. Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide. This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis?

  • IaaS
  • DaaS
  • PaaS
  • SaaS
A

DaaS

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.8: Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following levels would an information condition generate?

  • 7
  • 1
  • 6
  • 0
A

6

Overall explanation
OBJ-3.1: The severity levels range from zero to seven, with zero being the most severe and seven being the least severe. Level 0 is used for an emergency and is considered the most severe condition because the system has become unstable. Level 1 is used for an alert condition and means that there is a condition that should be corrected immediately. Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system’s primary application and it requires immediate attention. Level 3 is used for an error condition, and it means that something is happening to the system that is preventing the proper function. Level 4 is used for warning conditions and it may indicate that an error will occur if action is not taken soon. Level 5 is used for notice conditions and it means that the events are unusual, but they are not error conditions. Level 6 is used for information conditions and it is a normal operational message that requires no action. Level 7 is used for debugging conditions and is just information that is useful to developers as they are debugging their networks and applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A network administrator wants to increase the speed and fault tolerance of a connection between two network switches. To achieve this, which protocol should the administrator use?

  • LLDP
  • LACP
  • LDAP
  • L2TP
A

LACP

Overall explanation
OBJ-3.3: The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) provides a method to control the bonding of several physical ports to form a single logical channel. The LACP is defined in the 802.3ad standard. The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. The Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol used to support virtual private networks (VPNs) or as part of the delivery of services by ISPs. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an open, vendor-neutral, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following utilizes a well-written set of carefully developed and tested scripts to orchestrate runbooks and generate consistent server builds across an enterprise?

  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
  • Software-Defined Networking (SDN)
  • Infrastructure as Code (IaC)
A

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.8: Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is designed with the idea that a well-coded description of the server/network operating environment will produce consistent results across an enterprise and significantly reduce IT overhead costs through automation while precluding the existence of security vulnerabilities. SDN uses software to define networking boundaries but does not necessarily handle server architecture in the same way that IaC can. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a computing method that uses the cloud to provide any or all infrastructure needs. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a computing method that uses the cloud to provide users with application services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An administrator notices an unused cable behind a cabinet that is terminated with a DB-9 connector. What protocol is likely to be used with this cable?

  • Token ring
  • RS-232
  • ATM
  • 802.3
A

RS-232

Overall explanation
OBJ-5.2: RS-232 is a standard for serial communication transmission of data. It formally defines the signals connecting a DTE (data terminal equipment) such as a computer terminal and a DCE (data circuit-terminating equipment or data communication equipment). A DB-9 connector is often found on a rollover or console cable and is used to connect a router to a laptop using the RS-232 serial transmission protocol for configuring a network device. IEEE 802.3 is the standard for Ethernet. Ethernet commonly uses twisted pair, fiber optic, and coaxial connections, not a DB-9 serial connector. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses a fiber or twisted pair cable similar to an ethernet connection. Token ring usually uses a fiber optic cable, not a DB-9 serial cable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

You have been asked to troubleshoot a router which uses label-switching and label-edge routers to forward traffic. Which of the following types of protocols should you be familiar with to troubleshoot this device?

OSPF

MPLS

EIGRP

BGP

A

MPLS

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.2: Multi-protocol label switching (MPLS) is a mechanism used within computer network infrastructures to speed up the time it takes a data packet to flow from one node to another. The label-based switching mechanism enables the network packets to flow on any protocol. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) refers to a gateway protocol that enables the internet to exchange routing information between autonomous systems (AS). Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link-state routing protocol that was developed for IP networks and is based on the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is an advanced distance-vector routing protocol that is used on a computer network for automating routing decisions and configuration. BGP, OSPF, and EIGRP do not use label-switching technology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Your company’s corporate headquarters provided your branch office a portion of their Class C subnet to use at a new office location. You must allocate the minimum number of addresses using CIDR notation in order to accommodate each department’s needs. What is the correct CIDR notation for the Human Resources (HR) department’s subnet, which requires 25 devices?

/26

/30

/27

/25

/29

/28

A

/27

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.4: Since the Human Resources (HR) department needs 25 devices plus a network ID and broadcast IP, it will require 27 IP addresses. The smallest subnet that can fit 27 IPs is a /27 (32 IPs). A /27 will borrow 3 host bits and assign those to the network portion of the subnet mask. This would create a subnet with 2^5 available host IP addresses, or 32 total IP addresses. Of the 32 IP addresses, there are 30 available for clients to use, one for the network ID, and one for the broadcast address.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A network architect is designing a highly redundant network with a distance vector routing protocol to prevent routing loops. The architect wants to configure the routers to advertise failed routes with the addition of an infinite metric. What should the architect configure to achieve this?

Route poisoning

Spanning tree

Hold down timers

Split horizon

A

Route poisoning

Overall explanation
OBJ-2.2: Route poisoning is a method to prevent a router from sending packets through a route that has become invalid within computer networks. This is achieved by changing the route’s metric to a value that exceeds the maximum allowable hop count so that the route is advertised as unreachable. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks and operates at layer 2 of the OSI model. The basic function of STP is to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast radiation that results from them. A split-horizon route advertisement is a method of preventing routing loops in distance-vector routing protocols by prohibiting a router from advertising a route back onto the interface from which it was learned. A hold down timer is a function of a router that prevents a route from being updated for a specified length of time (in seconds). A hold down timer allows for the routers in a topology to have sufficient time to reach convergence and be updated when a route fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A user was moved from one cubicle in the office to a new one a few desks over. Now, they are reporting that their VoIP phone is randomly rebooting. When the network technician takes the VoIP phone and reconnects it in the old cubicle, it works without any issues. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the connectivity issue?

Misconfigured DNS

Bad power supply

Attenuation

Cable short

A

Cable short

Overall explanation
OBJ-5.2: Since the scenario states the VoIP phone works properly from the old desk, it is properly configured and the hardware itself works. This indicates the problem must be caused by the new desk which contains a different network cable from the switch to the wall jack in the cubicle. This is most likely a bad cable, such as one with a short in it. To verify this theory, the technician should use a cable tester to verify if the cable does have a short or not. While attenuation is a possible cause of the problem described, it is unlikely since the employee only moved a few desks (10-15 feet), and is not a large enough distance to cause significant attenuation issues.

15
Q

A company needs to implement stronger authentication by adding an authentication factor to its wireless system. The wireless system only supports WPA with pre-shared keys, but the back-end authentication system supports EAP and TTLS. What should the network administrator implement?

PKI with user authentication

802.1x using PAP

MAC address filtering with IP filtering

WPA2 with a pre-shared key

A

802.1x using PAP

Overall explanation
OBJ-4.3: The network administrator can utilize 802.1x using EAP-TTLS with PAP for authentication since the backend system supports it. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) is a password-based authentication protocol used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) to validate users. MAC address filtering does not filter based on IP addresses, but instead, it filters based on the hardware address of a network interface card, known as a MAC address. WPA2 is a secure method of wireless encryption that relies on the use of a pre-shared key or the 802.1x protocol. In the question, though, it states that the system only supports WPA, therefore WPA2 cannot be used. PKI with user authentication would be extremely secure, but it is only used with EAP-TLS, not EAP-TTLS. EAP-TTLS only works with credential-based authentication, such as a username and password. Therefore, 802.1x using PAP is the best answer.

16
Q

What port number does LDAPS utilize?

636

389

1433

3389

A

636

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.5: The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure (LDAPS) uses port 636 and is an open, vendor-neutral, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network that is encrypted using an SSL connection. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) uses port 389 and is an open, vendor-neutral, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol (IP) network. Microsoft SQL uses ports 1433 and is a proprietary relational database management system developed by Microsoft that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.

17
Q

Which of the following open-source remote access tools allows users to connect to their desktop remotely, see what is on their screen, and control it with their mouse and keyboard?

RDP

VNC

SSH

Telnet

A

VNC

Overall explanation
OBJ-4.4: VNC (virtual network computing) is a remote access tool and protocol. It is used for screen sharing on Linux and macOS. RDP is not open-source. SSH and telnet are text-based remote access tools. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 and is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. Secure Shell (SSH) uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the Internet for remote access to a server or system. Telnet uses port 23 to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection but sends its data in plaintext making it an insecure protocol.

18
Q

You are configuring a point-to-point link and want to ensure it is configured for the most efficient use of your limited pool of available public IP addresses. Which of the following subnet masks would be BEST to use in this scenario?

/28

/24

/29

/30

A

/30

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.4: The most efficient subnet mask for a point-to-point link is actually a /31 subnet, which only provides 2 addresses. This will only work if both routers use a newer routing protocol like OSPF, IS-IS, EIGRP, or RIPv2 (or above). The most widely accepted and used method is to use a /30 subnet consisting of 4 IP addresses. The first is the network IP, the last is the broadcast, and the other 2 IPs can be assigned to the routers on either end of the point-to-point network. For the exam, if you see the option of /30 or /31, remember, they can be used for point-to-point networks.

19
Q

Dion Training believes there may be a rogue device connected to their network. They have asked you to identify every host, server, and router currently connected to the network. Which of the following tools would allow you to identify which devices are currently connected to the network?

Protocol analyzer

Port scanner

IP scanner

NetFlow analyzer

A

IP scanner

Overall explanation
OBJ-5.3: An IP scanner is used to monitor a network’s IP address space in real-time and identify any devices connected to the network. Essentially, the tool will send a ping to every IP on the network and then creates a report of which IP addresses sent a response. A NetFlow analyzer is used to perform monitoring, troubleshooting, inspection, interpretation, and synthesis of network traffic flow data. A port scanner is used to determine which ports and services are open and available for communication on a target system. A protocol analyzer is used to capture, monitor, and analyze data transmitted over a communication channel

20
Q

Which of the following layers within software-defined networking focuses on providing network administrators the ability to oversee network operations, monitor traffic conditions, and display the status of the network?

Control layer

Infrastructure layer

Management plane

Application layer

A

Management plane

Overall explanation
OBJ-1.7: The management plane is used to monitor traffic conditions, the status of the network, and allows network administrators to oversee the network and gain insight into its operations. The application layer focuses on the communication resource requests or information about the network. The control layer uses the information from applications to decide how to route a data packet on the network and to make decisions about how traffic should be prioritized, how it should be secured, and where it should be forwarded to. The infrastructure layer contains the physical networking devices that receive information from the control layer about where to move the data and then perform those movements.

21
Q

Your co-worker has just installed an unmanaged 24-port switch. He is concerned with the amount of broadcast traffic that may exist when using this device. How many broadcast domains are created when using this single 24-port switch?

2

1

24

0

A

1

Overall explanation
OBJ-2.1: A single 24-port unmanaged switch will have only 1 broadcast domain. Routers and VLANs split up broadcast domains. Since this is an unmanaged switch, it will only have a single broadcast domain, but it will have 24 collision domains. If this was a managed layer 3 switch, it could provide routing functions and break apart the broadcast domains. But, since this was an unmanaged switch, there must be only 1 broadcast domain on this switch.

22
Q

Due to numerous network misconfiguration issues in the past, Dion Training adopted a policy that requires a second technician to verify any configuration changes before they are applied to a network device. When the technician inspects a newly proposed configuration change from a coworker, she determines that it would improperly configure the AS number on the device. Which of the following issues could have resulted from this configuration change if it was applied?

Wireless coverage area would be decreased

BGP routing issues would have occurred

Spanning tree ports would have entered flooding mode

A frequency mismatch would have occurred

A

BGP routing issues would have occurred

Overall explanation
OBJ-5.5: BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used to route data between autonomous systems (AS). A collection of networks within the same administrative domain is called an autonomous system (AS). The routers within an AS to use an interior gateway protocol, such as the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) or the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol, exchange routing information among themselves. Autonomous systems operate at layer 3 and are focused on wired networks. Therefore, the frequency mismatch, decreased wireless coverage areas, and spanning tree ports would not be affected by the improper configuration of an AS number on a device.

23
Q

Which of the following security features should be enabled to configure a quality of service filter to manage the traffic flow of a Cisco router or switch and protect it against a denial-of-service attack?

Dynamic ARP inspection

Control plane policing

DHCP snooping

Router Advertisement Guard

A

Control plane policing

Overall explanation
OBJ-4.3: The Control Plane Policing, or CPP, feature allows users to configure a quality of service (or QoS) filter that manages the traffic flow of control plane packets to protect the control plane of Cisco IOS routers and switches against reconnaissance and denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. This helps to protect the control plane while maintaining packet forwarding and protocol states despite an attack or heavy traffic load on the router or switch.