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Animal Body Systems & Cases > Digestion > Flashcards

Digestion Flashcards

1
Q

Define the four boundaries of the oral cavity (rostral, caudal, lateral and corners)

A

Rostral: lips
Caudal: pharynx & palatoglossal arches
Lateral: vestibule
Corners: commissure of the mouth

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2
Q

What is the vertical slit in the upper lip of dogs and cats called

A

The philtrum

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3
Q

What bones make up the hard palate

A

The incisive, maxillary and palatine bones

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4
Q

What are the incisive papilla/ducts

A

They connect the oral and nasal cavities

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5
Q

What is another name for the vomeronasal organ

A

The Jacobson’s organ

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6
Q

What is the function of the rugae

A

To aid food to move caudally

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7
Q

Define the soft palate

A

A muscular ‘self’ dividing pharynx into nasal and/or oral compartments

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8
Q

What makes the horse an obligate nasal breather

A

The soft palate is very long

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9
Q

Describe fungiform papillae of the tongue

A

Dotted around, like toad stools/mushrooms

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10
Q

Describe the vallate papillae of the tongue

A

Caudal ‘bulls-eyes’ dome with a moat

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11
Q

Describe the filiform papillae of the tongue

A

All over the tongue surface, very small

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12
Q

Parotid salivary gland: opening

A

Vestibule, near upper 4th premolar

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13
Q

Mandibular salivary gland: opening

A

Sublingual caruncle

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14
Q

Sublingual salivary gland: opening

A

Sublingual caruncle & frenulum

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15
Q

What is the upper lip of the pig called

A

The rostrum

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16
Q

What is the upper lip of the ox called

A

Nasolabial plate

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17
Q

What is the main muscle of the cheeks

A

The buccinator

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18
Q

What takes the place of the upper incisors in ruminants

A

The dental pad

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19
Q

What causes the roughness of the cat’s tongue

A

Conical, filiform papillae

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20
Q

What causes the median groove in the dog’s tongue

A

The lyssa

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21
Q

What nerves innervate the rostral two thirds of the oral cavity

A

The lingual branch of the mandibular nerve

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22
Q

What nerve is responsible for taste

A

The facial nerve

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23
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue

A

The hypoglossal nerve

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24
Q

What are the two parts of the sublingual gland

A

The monostomatic part and the diffuse polystomatic part

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25
Q

Name 3 important physiological functions of saliva

A
  1. Lubricates bolus
  2. Contains lysozymes & buffers
  3. Has enzymes for carb digestion
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26
Q

Define diphyodont

A

Two sets of teeth - primary/secondary OR deciduous/permanent

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27
Q

Define monophydont

A

Only one set of teeth

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28
Q

Define polyphydontous

A

Continuous shedding of teeth

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29
Q

Define periodontium

A

The tissues, both hard and soft, surrounding and supporting the tooth

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30
Q

Define primary dentine

A

Present at tooth eruption

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31
Q

Define secondary dentine

A

Laid down slowly and in an organized way in response to wear and tear

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32
Q

Define tertiary dentine

A

Laid down rapidly in a disorganized response to wear
It attracts food pigments and refracts light

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33
Q

Define the cementum

A

Bone-like tissue that covers the root of the tooth

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34
Q

What keeps the tooth in the socket

A

The periodontal ligament

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35
Q

What is the hardest tissue in the body and what produces it

A

The enamel, produced by ameloblasts

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36
Q

What is the name for the soft center of teeth

A

The pulp

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37
Q

What is the periodontal space

A

The space between the tooth and the tooth socket in the jaw bone

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38
Q

What is the furcation point

A

The area between the roots in multi-rooted teeth

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39
Q

What is the gingival sulcus

A

It relates to the degree of gum attachment around a tooth (should not be deeper than 3mm in dogs and 1mm in cats)

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40
Q

Define brachyodont

A

Short crown teeth

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41
Q

Define hypsodont

A

Long crown teeth (herbivores) with a ‘reserve’ crown that is seen upon gradual wear-down of grinding teeth

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42
Q

What is the full mammalian dental formula and what species has it

A

44 teeth
3/3, 1/1, 4/4, 3/3
The pig

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43
Q

Which are the 3 rooted teeth in the dog

A

The last 3 in the upper jaw

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44
Q

What is the only 3 rooted tooth in the cat

A

The carnassial tooth (the last pre-molar in the upper jaw)

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45
Q

What is the first upper premolar tooth of the horse called

A

The wolf tooth

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46
Q

What is the crown of the tooth

A

The part that is above the gum

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47
Q

What cell type produces the dentine

A

Odontoblasts

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48
Q

The pulp cavity is __ in young animals and __ in mature

A

Wide in young
Narrow in mature

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49
Q

What is the apex/apical point of a tooth

A

The tip of the root, i.e., the point furthest from the oral cavity)

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50
Q

What nerve supplies sensation to the dental arcades

A

The trigeminal nerve

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51
Q

What part of temporary teeth form first

A

The crown (root forms later)

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52
Q

What makes canine teeth difficult to extract

A

They are wider below the gingival margin than above it

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53
Q

What are the 4 salivary glands

A
  1. Parotid
  2. Submandibular
  3. Sublingual
  4. Zygomatic
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54
Q

What are the 3 phases of swallowing

A
  1. Oral
  2. Pharyngeal
  3. Oesophageal
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55
Q

What are the 3 muscles involved in the 1st phase of swallowing (oral)

A
  1. Masseter
  2. Temporalis
  3. Pterygoid
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56
Q

What are the 3 nerves involved in the 1st phase of swallowing (oral)

A
  1. Trigeminal
  2. Facial
  3. Hypoglossal
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57
Q

What are the 2 nerves involved in the 3rd phase of swallowing (oesophageal)

A
  1. Vagus
  2. Sympathetic
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58
Q

What secretes bicarbonate

A

Pancreatic duct cells

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59
Q

What is the function of bicarbonate

A

Neutralizes acid entering the duodenum in gastric chyme

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60
Q

What is the precursor of bile acids

A

Cholesterol

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61
Q

What is the function of bile pigments

A

Breakdown products of hemoglobin

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62
Q

The ___ controls appetite

A

Hypothalamus

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63
Q

What is a pro-appetite hormone

A

Ghrelin

64
Q

What hormone, produced by adipose tissue, acts on the hypothalamus to stimulate satiety

A

Leptin

65
Q

In what portion of the brain is salivation controlled

A

Medulla oblongata

66
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation ___ salivary production and sympathetic stimulation ___ salivary production

A

Increases; decreases

67
Q

Define primary peristalsis

A

The continuation of the peristaltic wave that begins in the pharynx and spreads to the esophagus during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing

68
Q

What is the difference between segmentation and peristalsis

A

Segmentation are mixing contractions that function to mix food with enzymes and secretions (no moving)
Peristalsis are contractions that move the contents along to intestine (no mixing)

69
Q

The rate of gastric emptying depends on ___

A

Calorie density

70
Q

What are house keeping contractions

A

Sweeping contractions that empty all swallowed saliva, gastric secretions and refluxed duodenal secretions back into the duodenum

71
Q

What cells secrete pepsinogen

A

Chief cells

72
Q

What activates pepsinogen (and into what)

A

Hydrochloric acid –> into pepsin

73
Q

What produces hydrochloric acid

A

Parietal

74
Q

How can the stomach withstand the action/presence of the all gastric secretions

A

Gastric mucosal barrier and bicarbonate

75
Q

Name 3 liver secretions

A
  1. Bile acids
  2. Bicarbonate
  3. Bile pigments
76
Q

What are carrier proteins

A

Specific proteins found in the cell membrane of the enterocyte - they translocate end products of digestion from the intestinal lumen across the membrane

77
Q

Why does carbohydrate digestion not start in the oral cavity in dog’s and cats

A

Their saliva does not have amylase

78
Q

Where is the major site of fat absorption

A

The small intestine

79
Q

What makes up a micelle

A

Fat (hydrolyzed), lipase, bile acids

80
Q

What is a chylomicron

A

Triglyceride + lipoprotein

81
Q

What is the attachment of the liver to the stomach

A

The lesser omentum

82
Q

What animals do not have a gallbladder

A

The horse and the rat

83
Q

What are the 2 blood supplies of the liver

A

Hepatic artery and portal vein

84
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the caudate lobe

A

The papillary and caudate process

85
Q

What ligaments attach the liver to the diaphragm

A

Coronary and triangular ligaments

86
Q

What ligament connects the diaphragmatic surface of the liver to the abdominal wall

A

The falciform ligament

87
Q

In the spleen, hemoglobin is degraded into…

A

Heme and bilirubin

88
Q

What vein (from the hepatic artery and portal veins) drains into the caudal vena cava

A

The hepatic vein

89
Q

What makes up the portal triad

A

The hepatic artery, portal vein and bile duct

90
Q

Define the hepatic acinus

A

All hepatocytes supplied by one triad

91
Q

How is the histology of hepatic sinusoids different from capillary endothelium

A

It is fenestrated and lacks a basement membrane

92
Q

In the dog, exocrine pancreatic secretions drain via the pancreatic duct into the duodenum via the ___

A

Pancreatic & accessory ducts

93
Q

In the ruminant, exocrine pancreatic secretions drain via the pancreatic duct into the duodenum via the ___

A

Pancreatic duct

94
Q

What artery(s) supplies the right lobe of the pancreas

A

The cranial pancreatoduodenal

95
Q

What artery(s) supplies the left lobe of the pancreas

A

The splenic and caudal pancreatoduodenal

96
Q

Where does the pancreatic vein drain

A

The portal vein

97
Q

What are the 3 phases that control pancreatic secretion

A
  1. Cephalic phase (smell/sight)
  2. Gastric phase (distension)
  3. Intestinal phase (acid/fat/protein in chyme in duodenum)
98
Q

What are the 3 hormones that control pancreatic secretions and what are they secreted in response to

A
  1. Gastrin (food in stomach)
  2. CCK (protein/fat in the duodenum)
  3. Secretin (acid in duodenum)
99
Q

How is volume/composition of pancreatic secretions different between herbivores and carnivores

A

Herbivores - continuous/constant volume secreted over the day with low enzymes/bicarb
Carnivores - low volume secreted between meals, when secreted it has a high enzymes/bicarb

100
Q

What are 3 signs of exocrine pancreas insufficiency

A
  1. Large volume of fatty feces
  2. Ravenous appetite
  3. Weight loss
101
Q

What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation

A

Regurgitation is passive

102
Q

Where is the vomiting center in the brain

A

The medulla oblongata

103
Q

What is the shape of the pancreas in the dog

A

Y
Left and right limb, and the body

104
Q

The pancreas arises from the ___, with connective tissue from the ___

A

Endoderm
Mesoderm

105
Q

What are the endocrine cells of the pancreas

A

Islets of Langerhans

106
Q

What are the 2 functions of the exocrine pancreas

A
  1. Neutralize gastric contents as they enter duodenum
  2. Deliver digestive enzymes to the small intestine
107
Q

What are the 4 classes of diarrhoea

A
  1. Osmotic
  2. Secretory
  3. Altered motility
  4. Increased permeability
108
Q

What is the rule of thumb for the eruption of deciduous central, middle and corner teeth in the horse

A

6 days, 6 weeks and 6 months

109
Q

When are canine teeth present in the horse

A

In male horses - erupt at 5 years of age

110
Q

What teeth in the horse are known as the cheek teeth

A

3 premolars (2nd-4th) and the 3 molars (1st-3rd)

111
Q

How is the esophagus structure different in the horse than in the dog and ruminant

A

The esophagus in the horse is a mix of straited and smooth muscle
The esophagus in the dog and ruminant is all smooth muscle

112
Q

What is the innervation of the esophagus in the horse

A

Striated: branches of vagus (motor)
Smooth: parasympathetic

113
Q

What side of the body does the horse stomach lie on

A

The left

114
Q

When do the wolf teeth erupt in the horse

A

At 1 year old

115
Q

On what side of the horse can you find the small intestine

A

The right side

116
Q

What key feature helps distinguish the small intestine from the large intestine in the horse

A

Taenial bands

117
Q

On what side of the horse can you find the cecum

A

Right side

118
Q

Where are impactions common in the large colon of the horse and why

A

The pelvic flexure because of a decrease in fluidity of ingesta, sudden change in direction and reduction in diameter of lumen

119
Q

What is the caecocolic fold

A

Mesenteric attachment of large colon
Between RVC and lateral taenial band of caecum

120
Q

What is the ascending mesocolon

A

Mesenteric attachment of large colon
Between RVC and RDC (short) and LVC and LDC (long)

121
Q

On what side of the body is the pancreas

A

The right side

122
Q

Where does digestion of non-structural carbohydrates, protein and fat occur in the horse

A

The foregut (stomach and small intestine)

123
Q

Upper esophageal sphincter: function

A

Prevents esophagopharyngeal reflux and air distension

124
Q

Esophageal body: function

A

Primary peristaltic wave propels food down esophagus

125
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter: function

A

Closes in response to gastric distension and tone increases from vagal stimulation to stop food from coming back up

126
Q

Define dysphagia

A

Difficultly swallowing - can be oral, pharyngeal or esophageal

127
Q

Why should a horses diet be low in starch

A

They have limited amylase activity in the SI where it is digested

128
Q

What are the 3 VFAs produced in the LI of the horse

A
  1. Acetate (mostly)
  2. Propionate
  3. Butyrate
129
Q

Butyrate: function

A

Respiratory fuel for colonic epithelial cells and suppresses muscosal inflammation

130
Q

Propionate: function

A

Used by liver as precursors for gluconeogenesis

131
Q

Acetate: function

A

Source of energy by peripheral tissues

132
Q

What is responsible for the uptake of VFAs across the epithelial membrane

A

Moncarboxylate/H+ symporter

133
Q

How long does it take to ween a foal

A

6 months

134
Q

What is a haustral contraction and at what point in the GI tract do they occur

A

A kneading, non rhythmic contraction
Happen in the cecum and large colon

135
Q

Where should you hear ileocecal sounds in the horse

A

In the right paralumbar fossa

136
Q

What is the key process used in ruminants to digest plant cell wall material

A

Fermentation

137
Q

What is the dental formula of a calf

A

0/3, 0/1, 3/3

138
Q

What is the dental formula of a cow

A

0/3, 0/1, 3/3, 3/3

139
Q

What are the 3 main salivary glands in the cow

A

Parotid, mandibular, sublingual

140
Q

What side of the neck can you find the esophagus

A

Left side

141
Q

What is the order of the stomachs in the ruminant

A
  1. Rumen
  2. Reticulum
  3. Omasum
  4. Abomasum
142
Q

Describe the epithelium of the rumen

A

Keratinized, stratified, non-glandular epithelium

143
Q

What stimulates the development of the forestomach’s in the calf

A

The fiber diet

144
Q

What stimulates rumen papillae growth

A

VFA production from concentrates

145
Q

What is the reticular groove

A

The bypass of milk right to the abomasum

146
Q

How many hours a day does the cow spend ruminating

A

8-10 hours

147
Q

How much saliva does a cow produce a day

A

~150L

148
Q

What is the optimum rumen pH

A

7.0

149
Q

What are the 3 structural layers of the rumen contents

A
  1. Free gas cap
  2. Fibrous mat
  3. Liquid layer
150
Q

What is the main innervation of the rumen

A

The vagus nerve

151
Q

Where do you auscultate for the A cycle

A

The left sublumbar fossa

152
Q

What is primary bloat

A

When free gas cannot escape from the rumen

153
Q

What is secondary bloat

A

When stable foam forms in the rumen

154
Q

What are 4 end products of rumen fermentation

A
  1. VFAs
  2. Ammonia
  3. Microbial cells
  4. Gases
155
Q

What part of the diet stimulates rumination

A

Fiber

156
Q

What is the pH of the abomasum

A

3.0

Animal Body Systems & Cases (10 decks)

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