Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ALU-101 & Anatomy > Diagnostic and Imaging Technology/Terminology > Flashcards

Diagnostic and Imaging Technology/Terminology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Physics 101 flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards
1
Q

How is an x-ray created?

A

radiation beam emitted is scattered or absorbed in diffedrent amounts by different tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are densities responsible for the shades of black, grey and white produced on the x-ray film?

A

fat, water, air, and bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does computer radiography work?

A

Much like an x-ray but uses a laser and a computer to read and store the image of the plate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does digital radiography work?

A

a digital x-ray sensor are used to transmit the image immediately to a computer where it an be viewed on a monitor - no plate required. Its faster and emits a lower dose of radiation. Allows a technician to manipulate the images stored in the computer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a down fall of x-ray imaging (regarding a patient health)

A

the images are only 2-D, thus multiple angle shots will sometimes be required. Each image creates a dose of radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is fluroscopy?

A

imaging tool that allows “real” time view of moving parts of the body. (can be used for dx and tx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how does fluoroscopy work?

A

x-ray scanner produces images of the area of interrest that are projected onto a monitor by the use (most often) of contract agents. Great for invasive surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how are contrast agents taken?

A

they are a substance taken orally or instilled into hollow organs that tolerate well and have low allergic reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

give three examples of contrast agents

A

Barium, iodine and gaolinium-based contrast agents are most common- other available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a con of using contrast agents>

A

they can cause hypersensitivity reactions- most often cured by taking an antihestimine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how are contrast agents eliminated from the body?

A

through waste or urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is nuclear medicine?

A

the use of small amounts of short-live radiative substances that is formulated to be absorbed by targeted tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are common radionuclides?

A

radioactive iodine, technetium, thallium, gallium, and indium, though other are available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how are radionuclides imaged?

A

though a scanning device or gamma camera which records the distribution of the radioactive material in the target organ. They are then produced as a 3-D data displayed in 2-D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can a computer improve radionuclear imaging.

A

to quantify imaging, into this sliced images. Simmilar to CT scanning. They are useful to study bone, and thyroid and hepatobiliary function, and CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is an ultrasonography?

A

uses high-frequency sound waves to image soft tissue and produce an image called Ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what kind of waves are used to transmit the echos through the patient

A

sound waves, they are read through the transducer and trasmitting gel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

depending on the tissue how can the waves alter in an US?

A

they can be scattered, refracted or attenuated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how are US projected?

A

the size of the organ is calculated by measuring the time it takes for the waves to travel from the transducer to the reflecting surface being studied and back to the transducer where they are amplified and displayed on a monitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

explain how fat reflects sound waves.

A

fat is hyperechoic tissue- which reflects a large number of sound waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

explain how fluid reflects sound waves.

A

fluid is a hypoechoic (tissue that reflects only a few sound waves) or anechoic (refers to the total absence of reflected sound waves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name 5 advantages of US over MRI and CT scanning imaging

A
  1. differentiate between fluid and solid- filled structures
  2. low cost
  3. portability
  4. accessibility
  5. no exposure to ionizing agents.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are 3 limitations to ultrasonography?

A
  1. skill level of technician
  2. image resolution that is not as good as other techniques
  3. “noise” produced when US waves hit gas and bone.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name the 5 times of US techniques

A

A-mode, B-mode, M-mode, Gray-scale, real time, and Doppler.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the difference between doppler and (a-mode, b-mode, gray-sale and real time)

A

the group: provides info on size, motion or both. (can be rapid)
doppler: measures velocity and direction of blood flow within heart and Blood vessels by measuring changes in pitch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a duplex scan?

A

combines both b-mode with doppler US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CT and CAT are created how?

A

passing a rotating beam of x-rays into the individual and obtaining thousand of point images at specific depths. the data produces a cross-sectional, 2-D image or program it into 3-D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is an advantage of CT or CAT scans, as well as a disadvantage.

A

produces an image of a much higher resolution, but also exposes an individual to a significantly higher dose of ionizing radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how are spiral or helical scanners better than scanners from before?

A

they are faster, can have multiple rows, of detectors provide thinner slices, minimize motion artifact and move continuously as the table moves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how can CT/CAT scans be improved?

A

oral or instilled contrast medium, intravenous contrast or a radionuclide can be used. it is used to define the size, precise location and extent, of a tumors involment with surrounding tissues. CT can also be sed for image-guided biopsies or treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are electron beam CT scans? (A.K.A ultrafast CT scans)

A

use an electron beam that allows such rapid acquisition of images that it can produce images of coronary arteries despite the motion of the heart?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how is an MRI -magnetic resonance imaging- projected?

A

uses a magnetic field to induce changes in proton spin within tissues. Radio waves are emitted at specific frequencies that make atoms resonate and absorb energy. The tissues then release a weak radio wave that can be measured by a scanner and amplified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what kind of tissues are seen through MRI?

A

produces unparalleled pictures of soft-tissue, organs, bone and other internal structures without ionizing radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a con of MRI?

A

because of the strong magnetic pull of the machine- no metal is permitted near the machine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when is MRI preferred over CT?

A

when soft tissue resolution is needed. Useful for spinal imaging, brain abnormalities, internal joint derangements and trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how can an MRI, CT, or CAT be improved?

A

by using contrast agents- to highlight vasculature areas of inflammation and tumors. Gadolinium is a common contrast medium used for MRIs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is doppler ultrasonography

A

used to measure the velocity and direction of blood flow within the heart and blood vessels by measuring changes in pitch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A duplex scan combines what types of imaging?

A

B-mode and the doppler US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

whats unique about CT (computer tomography) /CAT scans?

A

rotating beam of x-rays to obtain thousands of point images at specific depths. rs: cross-sectional, 2-D images. You get high resolution imaging with more exposure to radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

name two types of CT scanners, and how they work

A

Spiral and helical scanners, their fast, multiple row detectors, provide thinner slices, minimize motion artifact and move continuously as the table moves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is PET?

A

position emission tomography scans are diagnostic images obtained from the decay of a positron emiting, radionuclide agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is FDG?

A

its the agent used in PET scans, abnormal tissue and ca-cells, absorb this agent differently than normal tissues, and will show up on the scan in different colours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are limitations to PET?

A

although they can be combined with CT and MRI’s, theyre are limitation.

  1. cost
  2. accessibility
  3. short half-life of agent
  4. ^ serum glucose or insulin can affect the rs
  5. limited sensitivity for tumors smaller than 10 mm
  6. ^ degree of expertise required for proper interpretation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is an Angiography, and what is it called when used to image viens and arteries?

A

An imaging study use to visualize the major blood vessels using contrast material, a needle is inserted, a catheter is then inserted through to target vessel where contrast agent is directly injected.. Veins= venogram, arteries= arteriogram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what does CTA and MRA stand for?

A

CTA is computed tomography angiography and MRA is magnetic resonance angiogrpahy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is CTA and MRA?

A

its a less invasive, less risky form of angiography. they produce reasonably accurate images of arteries and veins. contrast material is inserted intravenously into a peripheral vessel and the computer produces 2 or 3-d images of the blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is an endoscopy used for?

A

inspect cavities or hollow organs inside the body. its invasive uses fiberoptic technology and power lens system. it also has a port to inject (air,drugs,fluid), suck, cauterize, biopsy and irrigate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is an endoscopy used for?

A

visualizing polyps, tumors, bleeding sites, inflammation, and erosion, biliary cirrhosis, gallbladder stones, abscess and degenerative disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what influences the choice in which imaging test to use?

A
  1. condition of the individual
  2. presenting symptoms
  3. facilities available
  4. insurance approval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A PET scan is a valuable tool to:

A
  1. identified the extent and speed of certain brain caners, evaluate the efficacy of chemotheraphy and identified recurrent lesions
  2. dx early alzheimers,
  3. localize epileptic foci
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is SPECT?

A

single photon emission computed tomography, used for functional brain imaging. IT uses a gamma camera, computer, and IV radionuclide to look at Blood flow and provide 3D photo. Less sensitive than PET scans for the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is a spinal tap?

A

insertion of a needle into subarachnoid space between the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae to withdraw CSF for testing. good for haemorrhage, inflammation, sclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what test is used to dx cerebral spinal fluid problems?

A

cisternography

sometimes combined with MRI and CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what test would be used to evaluate fainting, when cardiac testing and seizure evaluation couldn’t provide a dx

A

a tilt table test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ECG’s measure what in the brain?

A

records the low voltage electrical activity. Alpha, beta, delta and theta waves influence a persons alertness, and level of consiousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does an EMG measure?

A

electrical activity of muscle fibres both individually and collectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is used to dx multiple sclerosis?

A

Visual evoked potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is used to dx deafness?

A

BAER bransteam auditory evoked response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what can be used to monitor nerve functions during surgery, (second to MRI)?

A

SSEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the difference between shave/punch biopsy and excisional biopsy?

A
  1. shave/ punch remove small pieces of tissues

2. excisional for large and pigmented lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what test is used to detect diabetic retinopathy, vascular occlusions, leaks, and macular degeneration?

A

fluorescein angiography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what tests visual acuity?

A

snellen test (eye chart)

63
Q

what measures intraoccqular pressure?

A

tonometry

64
Q

what test would determine if the eye is producing sufficient tears to keep it moist?

A

schrimer tear test.

65
Q

what is the radio of absorbed RAI during a thyroid uptake test, for hypothyroid and hyperthyroid?

A

hypoactive cells take up less, hyperactive cells take up more

66
Q

what classification categories are nodules noted on the thyroid scans are placed in?

A
  1. cold (less uptake)
  2. functional (same uptake)
  3. hot (greater uptake)
67
Q

why are cold nodules concerning during a thyroid test?

A

they have ^ probabilty of malignancy.

68
Q

when would a thyroid U/S be preformed?

A

if a suspicious nodule is seen on a thyroid scan, and to determine if the nodule is solid or systic.

69
Q

what test would you preform following a surgical removal of the thyroid?

A

whole body iodine scans - looks fo extra-grandular metastaes or to look for reoccurance

70
Q

what test would you preform to determine if a thyroid nodule is benign or metastatic?

A

FNA (fine needle aspirate)

71
Q

what is used to diagnose and manage parotid lesions?

A

parotid sialography, f/u with a PA and lateral x-ray. this test can also differentiate intrinsic from extrinsic masses.

72
Q

what test is used to dx xerostomia?

A

parotid sialography

73
Q

what test dx pheochromocytoma or neuroblastoma?

A

CT and MRI, and if they fail then an MIBG. PET scans are also useful in localizing pheochromocytomas that can develop outside the adrenals

74
Q

what test would you use to dx pneumonia or atelectasis, pneumothorax, foreign body, aspiration, placement of tubes, trauma, asbestosis?

A

x-ray

75
Q

what test would you use to measure S.O.B, COPD, intertitial lung disease or chronic cough?

A

x-ray, PFTs, CT

76
Q

what test would you use to dx bronchiectasis?

A

x-ray, PFT, bronchoscopy, CT

77
Q

what would you use to detect blebs and bullae

A

x-ray and CT

78
Q

what tests can you use to dx hemoptysis or lung tumor?

A

x-ray, CT, Bronchoscopy

79
Q

what tests could you use to detect mediastinal mass

A

CT with contract

80
Q

what test would be use to detect pulmonary nodules?

A

CT

81
Q

what test would you use to detect localization of pleural effusion before thoracentesis?

A

X-ray, U/S

82
Q

what test would you use to dx pulmonary embolus?

A

x-ray, V/Q scan, Angiography, CT

83
Q

what can be useful to differentiate between benign and malignant tumors?

A

PET scans

84
Q

what is required for pulmonary lesions that are large, growing or obstructing?

A

biopsy, preformed via, bronchoscopy or mediastinoscope.

85
Q

laryngoscopy is what?

A

visualizing the pharynx, laryns and voccal cords with specialized instrument, or using light and a mirror.

86
Q

how is a mediatinscopy preformed?

A

used fiberoptic endoscope to examine chest structures between and in front of the lungs

87
Q

what method is used to visualize the trachea and vocal cords, in addition to the main bronchial tubes and smaller branches (note does not give a direct view of the lung parenchyma)

A

bronchoscopy

88
Q

what procedure is preformed when fluid accumulates between the visceral and parietal pleura?

A

thoracentesis

89
Q

what test is used to study air-flow and blood flow in the lungs?

A

ventilation perfusion scan.

90
Q

how is oxygen saturation measures?

A

using a pulse eximeter that is attached to index finger. (uses a reflective light)

91
Q

what is a PFT?

A

pulmonary function test that records the movement of air into and out of the lung and plot it against time.

92
Q

what study is used to confirm a diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea-hypopnea syndrome?

A

polysomnography

93
Q

what is recorded during a sleep study?

A
  1. EEG to observe sleep stages,
  2. EOG (eye movement)
  3. respiratory effort
  4. airflow
  5. oxygen saturation
  6. electrocardiogram
  7. body position
  8. submental and anterior tibialis movements
  9. noises, including snoring
94
Q

what is AI

A

the number of apneas divided by the total sleep time in hourse

95
Q

what is AHI?

A

number of apneas plus hypopneas divided by the total sleep time.

96
Q

what test is used to diagnose tuberculosis (TB)

A

PPD, positive test leads to a chest x-ray.

97
Q

what is septum and how is it useful?

A

septum is collected after a deep cough, it can be analyzed for blood, and culture to determine a sensitivity of antibiotic tx.

98
Q

what is the first test used when determining breast-mass.

A

mammogram. Today digital mammography with CAD is typically used over traditional x-ray films.

99
Q

what are some limitations to mammograms?

A

dense breast tissue, implants and radiologist skills. cannot detect inflammatory breast-ca and 10-15% of palpable breast-ca.

100
Q

what is recommended for women with high risk breast-ca?

A

breast MRI with gadolinium. Also good for stating of cancer and monitoring reoccurance

101
Q

when would you use breast ultrasonography?

A

for women who have dense breast tissue. (usually a good step two).

102
Q

what kinds of biopsies would you use, in the case of finding complex custs and solid nodules?

A 
fine needle aspirate (small sample vaccumed into a syringe) 
Core biopsy (large bore needing + vaccume)
stereoactic biopsy (preformed with computer to pinpoint area)
open surgical biopsy (small insition with local anesthesia)
103
Q

which diagnostic test would you preform for most cardiac problems?

A

chest x-ray, EKG and stress test

104
Q

what 3 tests are used to dx L ventricular ejection fraction?

A

gated radionuclide blood pool study, ECHO, SPECT

105
Q

what text is used to dx Congestive heart failure?

A

chest x-ray and echo

106
Q

what test would you use for a thoracic aneurysm or aortic aneurysm>

A

CT with contrast

107
Q

what test would you use to dx either endocarditis or valvular disease?

A

echo

108
Q

what tests could you use when you suspect coronary artery ischemia?

A

EKG, Stress test, stress radionuclide imaging or stress echo, cardiac catherization, MRA or CTA

109
Q

what could you use to dx a congenital heart disease?

A

chest x-ray, echo, cardiac catherixation?

110
Q

why would you preform a dopppler ultrasonography?

A

to dx peripheral vascular disease or carotid bruit.

111
Q

when would you preform an ankle-brachial index?

A

when you suspect peripheral vascular disease.

112
Q

what tests provide details of he heart including coronary artery stenosis, chamber columes, and ejection fraction?

A

CT and magnetic resonance angiography.

113
Q

what is the gold standard for cardiac imaging? And what are two following tests that could be used?

A

gold standard is catheterization (often reserved for intervention is necessary) , and high resolution MRA and CTA provide 2 and 3-D pictures of arteries and viens.

114
Q

what two tests are non-invasive and are excellent for measuring chamber sizes, and valve structures?

A

TTE combined with Doppler. if TTE is not adequate, it can be positioned into the esophagus for better visualization > this step is called TEE.

115
Q

what is use to dx a patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect?

A

Echo with bubble study.

116
Q

what test is preformed to asses significant arrhythmias?

A

EP mapping. uses catheter to induces controlled cariac arrhythmias. > good for atrial fibrillation or centricular tachycardia.

117
Q

an EKG *holter monitor, is used to dx what kind of heart condition?

A

arrhythmias that cause palpitations, dizziness, syncope, or chest pains associated with ischemia.

118
Q

what test is performed when sarcoidosis or hemochromatosis is suspected, or to monitor transplant rejection?

A

endomuocardial biopsy

119
Q

how could you identify a lymph vessel that are not easily seen on plain x-rays?

A

with a lymphangiogram- largely replaced by US, CT and MRI

120
Q

what study is used to show areas of stricture, ulceration, obstruction and inflammation in the abdomen?

A

Barium study. Cx swallows contrast material, for better x-ray visualization.

121
Q

what test is typically used to image the liver, kidney, gallbladder, bile duct, pancrease and ascites?

A

abdomen u/s.

122
Q

what test is used to determine gastric outlet obstruction and gastric pareiss?

A

gastric emptying

123
Q

what is an HIDA?

A

a radionuclide scan of gallbladder. it defines liver disease, gallbladder disease, bile duct obstruction or cystic duct obstruction.

124
Q

what is a laparoscopy>?

A

small incision near the naval, and CO2 is pumped in to move the abdomen wall and separate surrounding structures. This is great for todays surgical procedures, biopsies, and adhesions.

125
Q

EGD permits visualization on what?

A

esophagus, stomach and duodenim for inflammation, erosion tumors polyps, or ulcerations

126
Q

what is used to diagnosis of crohns disease, obscure bleeding or tumors in the small bowel.

A

video capsule endoscopy

127
Q

in what kind of dx would you use an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?

A

used for imaging of the bile duct and pancreas, but EUS and MRCP are slowly replacing ERCP.

128
Q

what organ is being studied with a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography?

A

bile ducts, it is used in conjunction with x-rays, but is slowly being replaced by MRA and CTA.

129
Q

what test detects blood in stool? and how many stool samples are usually needed?

A

3, and its called a FOB, (fecal occult blood)

130
Q

what tests can be done to dx calculus?

A

KUB, CT

131
Q

what test can be done to dx hematuria

A

IVP, cystoscopy

132
Q

what test is used to dx renal traume?

A

CT with contrast

133
Q

what is used to dx hydronephrosis or obstruction?

A

U/S and IVP

134
Q

what is used to dx renal vein thrombosis?

A

MRI

135
Q

what is used to identify probably cyst as incidental findings on IVP CT.

A

U/S

136
Q

what is used to dx probably masses found on IVP

A

Ct with and without contrast, MRI

137
Q

what is used to dx PKD?

A

CT or U/S

138
Q

what is used to detect bladder tumors?

A

Cystoscopy, CT with contrast

139
Q

What is used to determine renal artery stenosis?

A

captopril renal scan, duplex CT, MRA

140
Q

IVP uses a contrast agent to provide detailed images of what?

A

collecting system, calyces, and renal pelvis of the kidneys, and ureters.

141
Q

what test is typically used to dx atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis, by observing renal function?

A

renal scan, but duplex CT and MRA are also used.

142
Q

how are obstructing uretral stones or lesions studies?

A

retrograde pyelogram with cystoscopy to inject die into the ureters.

143
Q

what musculoskeletal disorder can be detected with a bone scan?

A

stress fracture or hip fracture

144
Q

what test is done to determine bone/mineral loss or therapeutic intervention?

A

dexa scan

145
Q

what is used to determine if someone has carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Nerve conduction test

146
Q

what test is used to follow up after an abnormal pap smear

A

colposcopy

147
Q

what test is used to detect testicular/scrotal masses?

A

doppler u/s

148
Q

what is used to investigate postvoid residual urine?

A

catheter insertion after voiding, u/s

149
Q

what would a pelvic or transvaginal u/s diagnose in terms of genitourinary disorders

A

dysfunctional uterine bleeding, polyps, fibroids, masses adhesions and atrophy

150
Q

what test is used to dx infertility, adhesions, masses and uterine fibroids

A

hysterosalpingogram utlizes fluroscopy and x-ray after the infusions.

151
Q

why would one preform a TRUS

A

when PSA is rising in the blood- review the prostate or an abnormality is felt on digital rectal exam.

152
Q

what measures urinary rentention?

A

PVR

153
Q

how is voiding problems evaluated

A

uroflowmetry.

154
Q

what PFT measurements are most commonly used in uw?

A

FVC, FEV, FEV/FVC, and diffusion capacity

ALU-101 & Anatomy (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions