Diabetes Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the micro vascular complication associated with diabetes?

A

Retinopathy neuropathy, neuropathy

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2
Q

What are the macro vascular complications of diabetes?

A

Coronary heart disease stroke, myocardial infarction

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3
Q

When is insulin indicated?

A

Type 1, LADA, GDM, and type 2 as step therapy.

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4
Q

When is insulin recommended in type 2?

A

10% HGBA1C 10% or BG or > 300 and unexpected weight loss

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5
Q

What are the three rapid acting insulin’s?

A

Aspart, glulisine, lispro

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6
Q

Short acting insulin type?

A

Human regular?

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7
Q

What is the intermediate acting insulin?

A

NPH

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8
Q

What is the long acting (basal) insulin?

A

Glargine, detemir, degludec

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9
Q

Which insulin lasts for 42 hours?

A

Degludec

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10
Q

Which insulin is ULTRA rapid acting

A

Inhaled afrezza

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11
Q

What is basal insulin used for?

A

Maintain insulin of NPO patients

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12
Q

What is the goal of basal insulin?

A

To supress hepatic glucose production, and improve fasting hyperglycemia

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13
Q

Which insulin cannot be mixed with other insulin?

A

Glargine the basal insulin

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14
Q

What is the drug of choice for patient with gestational diabetes?

A

Glargine

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15
Q

Which insulin can you use in both type one and two

A

Degludec

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16
Q

Which insulin has no true peak and is marketed as a premix insulin with Aspart

A

Degludec

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17
Q

When should glulusine insulin be administered?

A

30 minutes prior to meals

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18
Q

Which insulin’s are available over-the-counter

A

NPH regular and 7030 premix

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19
Q

Which insulins are available premixed

A

NovoLog, Humalog, humulin, and novolin

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20
Q

What is the goal of basil bowl is coverage

A

To avoid hypoglycemic and hypoglycemic values by suppressing hepatic glucose production and improved fasting hyperglycemia

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21
Q

When a ministering replacement therapy and people with type two diabetes, how is insulin given?

A

50% of the total daily insulin dose is given as basal and 50% as a bonus divided up before breakfast lunch and dinner

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22
Q

How do you dose correction doses

A

One unit for acting insulin for every 25 mg that the glucose is above target

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23
Q

What is split mixed dose?

A

Pre breakfast and pre dinner dose of an intermediate insulin like lispro or regular.

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24
Q

How is basal bolus dosed by three injections?

A

Three injections daily as preprandial, regular or Lispro and then basal and bolus was pre-meals right insulin.

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25
Q

How is basal bolus dosed by four inductions daily?

A

Preprandial regular or Lispro and then intermediate acting NPH at a.m. and HS

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26
Q

Which two insulins are bolus insulin

A

Preprandial regular or Lispro

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27
Q

What are the basal insulin?

A

Glargine, detemir, and degludec

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28
Q

What is the rate of CSII?

A

.4-2 units an hour

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29
Q

Which diabetic medication do you use for PCOS?

A

Metformin

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30
Q

What are the major drug interactions of insulin?

A

Beta blockers, levothyroxine, alcohol, corticosteroids, and thiazide diuretics

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31
Q

Why must insulin be given by induction and not orally?

A

Insulin is the protein digested in the stomach for this reason it may not administered orally

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32
Q

Which type of insulin is preferred for these in continuous subcutaneous insulin?

A

Rapid acting

33
Q

What is the first line pharmacologic treatment recommended for gestational diabetes?

34
Q

Which insulin could be administered IV

35
Q

What should you take into account when choosing what to start a patient on?

A

Amount and rapidity of the glucose lowering required, adverse effects, the possible min glycemic effects like lipid lowering, compliance issues, and cost.

36
Q

When are oral meds considered?

A

They are add on meds after hgba1c gangs be reached after 3 months of injections.

37
Q

How should you dose metformin?

A

Start at a low dose and titrate up to 1000mg twice daily. Max dose is 2550. Dose with meals.

39
Q

How is glocophage XR different from metformin

A

It is extended related and increased aborsption with food

40
Q

At what GFR should you discontinue metformin?

41
Q

When is metformin contraindicated?

A

When GFR is less than 30 alcohol use disorder, cardio, respiratory insufficiency, hypersensitivity, and greater than 80 years old unless they have a normal creatinine clearance

42
Q

What labs did you check with metformin once a year?

A

LFTs and creatinine

43
Q

What medication causes decreased serum B12 levels

44
Q

Which alpha glucosidase inhibitor has less drug interactions?

45
Q

When do you see benefits of TZDs

A

6-12 weeks

46
Q

T or F TZDs cause hypoglycemia

47
Q

Which diabetic medication would you take if you also want to lower triglycerides?

48
Q

How is TZDs metabolized?

A

CYP3A4 and CYP2C8

49
Q

Which medication causes increased bone fracture rates in women and risk for bladder cancer

50
Q

What are the common adverse reactions to TZD’s?

A

Sinusitis, myalgia, fluid retention, edema, delusional, anemia, and weight gain

51
Q

When are SGLT2 inhibitors recommended

A

Type two diabetes and people that are high risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease

52
Q

What are advantages of SGLT 2 inhibitors?

A

Moderate lowering glucose levels, weight loss, reducing blood pressure, low risk of hypoglycemia effective as monotherapy or combo

53
Q

What are the adverse reactions of SGLT – two inhibitors

A

Increase potassium increased genital yeast infections increased risk for renal insufficiency, hypovolemia or the side of hypotension UTI and non-HDL cholesterol

54
Q

At what GFR level should you avoid starting? SGLT – two inhibitors

55
Q

At the four classes of oral agents which one binds to enzyme and slows absorption of carbohydrates

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

56
Q

Which class of oral agents reduces absorption of filtered glucose from the renal tubular lumen increasing urinary excretion of glucose

A

SGLT – two inhibitors

57
Q

Which drug class is a selective agonist for PPARY

58
Q

What is the oral GLP1

A

Semaglutide rybelsus

59
Q

What are the most common incretin hormones?

A

GIP and GLP1

60
Q

How does GIP differ from GLP in the gut?

A

GIP does not slow gastric motility

61
Q

What are GLP one receptor agonist contraindicated?

A

Type 1 DM, DKA, gastroparesis, reglan use, pancreatitis, and for bydureon a history of thyroid cancer

62
Q

Which DPP4 inhibitors has the best compliance?

A

Linagliptin

63
Q

Which DPP4 has the longest half life?

A

Alogliptin

64
Q

Where do TZDs act in the body?

A

The liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue.

65
Q

Where do incretins works?

A

The guy, brain, and pancreas.

66
Q

Where do SGLT-2 inhibitors work in the body?

A

Renal tubules to decrease glucose reabsorption

67
Q

What are the two non insulin injectable classes?

A

GLP-1 incretin or amylimomimetics

68
Q

How do sulfonyureas work?

A

The stimulate the pancreas to release more insulin

69
Q

Which generation of sulfonureas is more frequently prescribed?

A

Second gen

70
Q

When is glyburide contraindicated?

A

In hepatic and renal disease

71
Q

Which sulfonureas has the shortest half life and is more commonly prescribed?

72
Q

How is glimepiride given?

A

Once daily as mono therapy or with insulin

73
Q

How should sulfonylureas be given in regard to meals?

A

With meals except for glipizide which is 30 min prior to meals.

74
Q

Why should patients with angina avoid sulfonylureas?

A

They can cause myocardial ischemia

75
Q

What are the two meglitinides?

A

Repaglinide and nateglinide

76
Q

When should dose with meglitinides in regard to food?

A

With 15 minutes of meals

77
Q

Which oral agent is more likely to cause hypoglycemia

A

Sulfonylureas and meglitinides

78
Q

What is the side effect of metformin that becomes less bothersome overtime?

A

G.I. upset