DESR 6055.09 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the primary purpose of the DoD hazard classification procedures?
A
To ease identification of hazard characteristics for storage and transportation
The procedures are based on Army Technical Bulletin 700-2, Naval Sea Systems Command Instruction 8020.8C, and Technical Order 11A-1-47.
2
Q
Which regulations must be applied for hazardous materials according to the DoD?
A
Department of Transportation (DOT) hazardous materials regulations, Title 49, CFR parts 171 through 177
These regulations govern the transportation of hazardous materials.
3
Q
What international classification system does the DoD reference for dangerous goods?
A
The United Nations’ international system of classification, UN Publication ST/SG/AC.10/1
This system is used for the transport of dangerous goods globally.
4
Q
How many hazard classes are in the DoD hazard classification system?
A
Nine hazard classes plus a non-regulated category
The non-regulated category applies when explosives and hazardous materials are present but do not meet the criteria for the nine classes.
5
Q
What does Class 1 in the DoD hazard classification system signify?
A
AE where the explosive hazard predominates
Class 1 is further divided into six divisions and three division 1.2 subdivisions.
6
Q
What is the purpose of the 13 compatibility groups (CGs) in the DoD classification system?
A
To segregate AE based on similarity of function, features, and accident effects potential
Compatibility groups help ensure safety in storage and transportation.
7
Q
What does a parenthetical number indicate in the hazard classification designators?
A
The minimum separation distance (MSD) necessary for protection from debris, fragments, and firebrands
This number is expressed in hundreds of feet and aids in determining safe distances.
8
Q
Fill in the blank: The DoD hazard classification system consists of _______ hazard classes.
A
nine
9
Q
True or False: The three division 1.2 subdivisions are applicable for both storage and transportation applications.
A
False
The three division 1.2 subdivisions are only applicable for storage applications.
10
Q
What is the significance of the predominant hazard characteristic in the DoD classification?
A
AE is assigned to the class that represents its predominant hazard characteristic
This helps in determining the appropriate safety measures for handling and storage.
11
Q
What term is used to express an item’s hazard classification simply?
A
HD
This avoids using the cumbersome terminology ‘Subdivision X of Division Y of Class Z.’
12
Q
What is HD 1.1?
A
Mass explosion.
13
Q
What is HD 1.2?
A
Non-mass explosion, fragment producing.
See section V3.E3.2.
14
Q
What defines HD 1.2.1?
A
Items with a NEWQD > 1.60 pounds (Ibs) or exhibit fragmentation characteristics similar to or greater than M1 105-millimeter (mm) projectiles.
15
Q
What defines HD 1.2.2?
A
Items with a NEWQD ≤ 1.60 lbs or exhibit fragmentation characteristics similar to high-explosive 40-mm ammunition.
16
Q
What defines HD 1.2.3?
A
AE that exhibits no reaction more severe than burning in liquid fuel or external fire, bullet impact, and slow heating tests.
17
Q
In sympathetic reaction tests for HD 1.2.3, what is the maximum reaction exhibited by all acceptors in packages surrounding the donor package?
A
At most an explosion reaction.
18
Q
What is HD 1.3?
A
Mass fire, minor blast or fragment
19
Q
What does HD 1.4 signify?
A
Moderate fire, no significant blast or fragment
20
Q
Define HD 1.5.
A
Explosive substance, very insensitive (with mass explosion hazard)
21
Q
What characterizes HD 1.6?
A
Exhibits no reaction more severe than burning in liquid fuel or external fire, bullet impact, and slow heating tests
22
Q
What are the 13 CGs assigned based on?
A
Similarity of function, features, and accident effects potential
23
Q
What does Group A consist of?
A
Initiating (primary) explosives
24
Q
Name an example of a bulk initiating explosive.
A
Bulk lead azide, lead styphnate, mercury fulminate, tetracene, dry RDX, or dry PETN
25
What is included in Group B?
Detonators and similar initiating devices not containing two or more effective protective features
26
What are examples of Group B items?
Detonators, blasting caps, small arms primers, and fuzes
27
What does Group C encompass?
Bulk propellants, propelling charges, and devices containing propellant with or without its own means of ignition
28
Fill in the blank: Bulk _______ are included in Group C.
[propellants]
29
True or False: Group A includes bulk propellants.
False
30
What does Group D consist of?
Bulk black powder, bulk high explosives (HE), and AE without a propelling charge but containing HE without its own means of initiation
## Footnote
Examples include bulk trinitrotoluene (TNT), Composition B, black powder, bulk wet RDX, PETN, bombs, projectiles, cluster bomb units, depth charges, and torpedo warheads.
31
What defines Group E explosives?
AE containing HE without its own means of initiation and either containing or packaged with a solid propelling charge
## Footnote
Examples include artillery AE, rockets, and guided missiles.
32
What characterizes Group F explosives?
AE containing HE with its own means of initiation and with or without a solid propelling charge
## Footnote
Examples include grenades, sounding devices, and similar items having explosive trains with fewer than two effective protective features.
33
What types of AE are included in Group G?
Illuminating, incendiary, and smoke-producing AE, excluding those that are water-activated or contain WP or a flammable liquid or gel
## Footnote
Examples include flares, signals, and pyrotechnic substances.
34
What is the main component of Group H explosives?
AE containing white phosphorus (WP)
## Footnote
These contain fillers that are spontaneously flammable when exposed to the atmosphere, such as WP and plasticized white phosphorus (PWP).
35
What defines Group J explosives?
AE containing flammable liquids or gels other than those that are spontaneously flammable when exposed to water or the atmosphere
## Footnote
Examples include liquid- or gel-filled incendiary AE, fuel-air explosive devices, and flammable liquid-fueled missiles and torpedoes.
36
What types of chemicals are found in Group K explosives?
AE containing toxic chemical agents (CAs) designed for incapacitating effects more severe than lachrymation
## Footnote
Examples include artillery or mortar AE (fuzed or unfuzed), grenades, rockets, and bombs filled with a lethal or incapacitating CA.
37
What is Group L in the context of AE storage?
AE not included in other CGs and having characteristics that present a special risk that does not permit storage with other types of AF.
## Footnote
Examples include water-activated devices, pyrophorics, phosphides, prepackaged hypergolic liquid-fueled rocket engines, triethyl aluminum (TEA), thickened TEA (TPA), and damaged or suspect AE of any group.
38
What types of AE can be stored together in Group L?
Different types of AE in CG L presenting similar hazards.
## Footnote
This allows for more efficient storage while maintaining safety protocols.
39
What is Group N in the context of AE storage?
AE containing only extremely insensitive detonating substances (EIDS).
## Footnote
An example is HD 1.6 AE.
40
What characterizes Group S in AE storage?
AE that presents no significant hazard and is packaged or designed to limit hazardous effects from accidental functioning.
## Footnote
Examples include explosive switches or valves and small arms ammunition.
41
What are Sensitivity Groups (SGs) used for?
For storage within a high performance magazine (HPM) or where earth-filled steel bin revetments or substantial dividing walls are used to reduce the maximum credible event (MCE).
## Footnote
Each HD 1.1 and HD 1.2 AE item is designated into one of five SGs based on the item's physical attributes.
42
How are directed energy weapons identified in relation to Sensitivity Groups?
By assigning the letter 'D' following the SG designation (e.g., SG 2D).
## Footnote
This designation helps in understanding the specific handling and storage requirements.
43
Where can the SG assigned to an HD 1.1 and HD 1.2 AE item be found?
In the Joint Hazard classification hazards.
## Footnote
This classification aids in the proper storage and management of these items.
44
What is the sensitivity order of the five SGs from least sensitive to most sensitive?
SG 2, SG 1, SG 3, SG 4, SG 5
## Footnote
SG 2: Non-robust military munitions; SG 1: Robust military munitions; SG 3: Fragmenting military munitions; SG 4: Cluster bomb/dispenser unit military munitions; SG 5: Sympathetic detonation sensitive military munitions.
45
What is SG 2?
Non-robust military munitions
## Footnote
See the definition of 'non-robust munitions' in the Glossary.
46
What is SG 1?
Robust military munitions
## Footnote
See the definition of 'robust munitions' in the Glossary.
47
What is SG 3?
Fragmenting military munitions
## Footnote
See the definition of 'fragmenting military munitions' in the Glossary.
48
What is SG 4?
Cluster bomb/dispenser unit military munitions
## Footnote
See the definition of 'CBU military munitions' in the Glossary.
49
What is SG 5?
Sympathetic detonation sensitive military munitions
## Footnote
See the definition of 'SG' in the Glossary.
50
Can item-specific testing change an item's SG?
Yes
## Footnote
Item-specific testing or analyses can be used to change an item's SG.
51
What storage method provides the highest degree of safety for AE?
Separate storage by HD and type
## Footnote
Mixed storage is normally implemented when separate storage is not feasible.
52
What determines what can be stored with AE?
The CG assigned to AE
## Footnote
The CG determines compatibility to avoid increasing accident probability or magnitude.
53
What types of substances may not be stored with AE?
Dissimilar substances or articles
## Footnote
Examples include flammable materials, acids, or corrosives unless determined to be compatible.
54
What is the consideration for explosive weight of nonregulated AE and AE assigned to Classes 2 through 9?
Not considered for QD purposes
## Footnote
Nonregulated AE and AE assigned to Classes 2 through 9 may have a CG assigned for storage purposes.
55
What does the DoD hazard classification system classify articles that contain riot control substances without explosives components as?
HD 6.1
## Footnote
This classification also includes bulk toxic CAs.
56
How should AE in damaged packaging or suspect condition be stored?
Stored separately as CG L
## Footnote
AE with characteristics that increase risk in storage are also included.
57
If different types of CG N munitions are mixed and untested for non-propagation, how are they classified?
Individually considered to be HD 1.2.1 D or HD 1.2.2 D
## Footnote
Classification is based on their NEWQD or overriding fragmentation characteristics.
58
What is the maximum allowable NEWQD in an HPM storage cell?
30,000 lbs [13.608 kg]
## Footnote
This is applicable when considering compatibility and mixing requirements.
59
What is the maximum allowable NEWQD in the loading dock of an HPM?
60,000 lbs [27.215 kg]
## Footnote
This maximum is subject to certain restraints.
60
When SG 1, 2, or 3 AE is present in an HPM cell, what happens to the allowable NEWQD in adjacent cells and the loading dock?
Remains the maximum
## Footnote
All cells maintain the maximum allowable NEWQD.
61
What is the allowable NEWQD in each adjacent cell when SG 4 AE is present in an HPM cell?
Reduced to 15,000 lbs [6,804 kg]
## Footnote
The maximum remains in diagonal cells and the loading dock.
62
When SG 5 AE is present in an HPM, how should the NEWQD of all cells and the loading dock be treated?
Must be summed for QD purposes
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining safety regulations.
63
What must be done with directed energy weapons in an HPM regarding orientation?
Oriented to direct consequences away from any other cell
## Footnote
If not, the NEWQD of all cells and the loading dock must be summed for QD purposes.
64
When mixing HDs and SGs within an HPM cell, what controls the allowable NEWQD in adjacent cells?
The most sensitive SG associated with the AE in that cell
## Footnote
This includes scenarios where different HD items are stored together.
65
What does V1.E6.4 address regarding mixed CG storage?
AE of different CGs may be mixed in storage only as indicated in Table V1.EG. T1.
66
What exceptions exist for mixing AE in storage?
Exceptions exist when applying Enclosure 3 of Volume 6 at BLAHAs and AHAs, and at locations designated by a DoD Component.
67
What is the purpose of V1.E10.1?
To establish standard firefighting hazard identification measures for AE.
68
Into how many fire divisions are AE fires classified according to V1.E10.1?
Four fire divisions.
69
What must emergency plans developed by DoD Components include?
* Safety
* Security
* Environmental protection
70
True or False: The firefighting procedures are included in V1.E10.1.
False
71
What is the coordination requirement for emergency plans?
Plans must be coordinated with local authorities.
72
Fill in the blank: V1.E10.1.2.1 is responsible for _______.
[Firefighting procedures]
73
Fill in the blank: V1.E10.1.2.2 is responsible for _______.
[Training of firefighting personnel]
74
What is the focus of V1.E10.1.2.3?
Use and maintenance of firefighting equipment and vehicles
## Footnote
This section emphasizes the importance of proper use and upkeep of firefighting tools and vehicles.
75
What does V1.E10.1.2.4 address?
Provision of water supply and alarm systems
## Footnote
Essential for effective firefighting operations.
76
What is included in V1.E10.1.2.5?
First-aid measures
## Footnote
Important for addressing injuries during firefighting.
77
What does V1.E10.1.2.6 refer to?
Other measures required in firefighting
## Footnote
This can include various strategies and protocols.
78
What do AE hazard symbols indicate?
Firefighting situations
## Footnote
These symbols help identify hazards during firefighting.
79
How many fire divisions are there?
Four
## Footnote
Each division represents a different level of hazard.
80
What does Fire Division 1 indicate?
The greatest hazard
## Footnote
It is assigned to the most dangerous situations.
81
What type of hazard does Fire Division 2 represent?
Non-mass explosion, fragment producing
## Footnote
This division indicates a significant risk, but less than Division 1.
82
What is the predominant hazard for Fire Division 3?
Mass fire, minor blast or fragment
## Footnote
Represents a moderate risk level.
83
What does Fire Division 4 signify?
Moderate fire, no blast or fragment
## Footnote
This division indicates the least hazardous conditions.
84
What hazard divisions are associated with HD 1.1 and 1.5?
Fire Division 1
## Footnote
Indicates the most severe hazards.
85
Fill in the blank: Fire Division 2 is associated with HD _______.
1.2 and 1.6
## Footnote
These HD numbers relate to non-mass explosion risks.
86
What HD is associated with Fire Division 3?
1.3
## Footnote
This indicates mass fire risks.
87
Which HD is linked to Fire Division 4?
1.4
## Footnote
Represents moderate fire hazards.
88
What are the four fire divisions represented by?
Four distinctive symbols
## Footnote
Each symbol allows firefighting personnel to recognize hazards.
89
What is shown on each fire division symbol?
A fire division number
## Footnote
This aids in identifying the specific fire division.
90
How do the fire division symbols differ for long-range identification?
They differ in shape
## Footnote
This design choice enhances visibility from a distance.
91
What shape is associated with Fire Division 2?
Octagon
92
What shape is associated with Fire Division 3?
CrOSs
93
What shape is associated with Fire Division 4?
Diamond
94
What shape is associated with Fire Division 1?
Inverted Triangle
95
What do the shape and dimensions of the symbols comply with?
UN, NATO, and International Maritime Organization requirements
## Footnote
This ensures standardization across different organizations.
96
What is the size of the symbols that may be used on doors or lockers?
Half-sized symbols
## Footnote
This is applicable for indoor identification.
97
Under what circumstances may it be undesirable to post fire symbols at a storage site?
Security concerns
## Footnote
This discretion is left to the DoD Components.
98
What is required for the storage of CAs and chemical munitions?
The use of chemical hazard symbols and fire symbols where appropriate.
99
What do paragraphs V1.E10.4.2.1. through V1.E10.4.2.5. describe?
Symbols, hazards indicated by the symbols, and recommended protective clothing and equipment for fighting fires.
100
What determines protective clothing requirements for situations other than firefighting?
The DoD Components.
101
What does Set 1 of chemical hazard symbol 1 indicate?
The presence of highly toxic CAs that may cause death or serious damage to body functions.
102
List the required full protective clothing for Set 1 of chemical hazard symbol 1.
* Service-certified protective gas mask
* Impermeable suit
* Impermeable hood
* Impermeable boots
* Impermeable undergarments
* Impermeable coveralls
* Impermeable protective footwear
* Impermeable gloves
103
True or False: Protective clothing is not needed for firefighting situations involving CAs.
False.
104
Fill in the blank: The chemical hazard symbols must be used in conjunction with _______.
[fire symbols]
105
What is the significance of Figures V1.E10.F3. and V1.E10.F4.?
They identify the chemical hazard symbols.
106
What type of clothing must be used for highly toxic CAs according to the document?
Full protective clothing.
107
What does Set 2 of chemical hazard symbol 1 indicate?
The presence of harassing agents (e.g., riot control agents and smokes)
## Footnote
Set 2 requires full protective clothing as identified in Figure V1.E10.F3. and Table V1.E10.T9.
108
Who does not require Set 2 protective clothing?
Firefighting personnel equipped with normal heat-resistant clothing and gas masks or SCBAs
## Footnote
Normal heat-resistant clothing includes bunker suits.
109
What type of protective gas masks are required for Set 2?
Service-certified protective gas masks or SCBAs
## Footnote
SCBAs stands for self-contained breathing apparatuses.
110
List the protective clothing required for Set 2.
* Permeable coveralls
* Protective gloves
111
What does Set 3 of chemical hazard symbol 1 indicate?
The presence of WP or other spontaneously combustible material
## Footnote
Set 3 requires full protective clothing as identified in Figure V1.E10.F3. and Table V1.E10.T9.
112
Who does not require Set 3 protective clothing?
Firefighting personnel equipped with normal heat-resistant clothing and gas masks or SCBAs
## Footnote
Normal heat-resistant clothing includes bunker suits.
113
What type of protective clothing is required for Set 3?
Service-certified protective gas masks or SCBAs
## Footnote
SCBAs stands for self-contained breathing apparatuses.
114
List the protective clothing required for Set 3.
* Flame-resistant coveralls
* Flame-resistant gloves
115
What does chemical hazard symbol 2 indicate?
Requires the wearing of a breathing apparatus due to incendiary or readily flammable chemical agents.
## Footnote
Indicates an intense radiant heat hazard and necessitates protective masks to prevent inhalation of smoke from burning incendiary mixtures.
116
What does chemical hazard symbol 3 warn against?
Applying water to extinguish the fire.
## Footnote
A dangerous reaction will occur if water is used.
117
What should firefighters have knowledge of when responding to AE fires?
The hazards associated with AE fires and expected AE reactions.
## Footnote
It is essential for the DoD Component to brief the firefighting forces on known hazards before they approach the fire scene.
118
What procedures must be followed when fighting fires involving AE?
Fought according to the HD, fire division, progression of the fire, and DoD Component specified procedures.
## Footnote
Special firefighting instructions addressing AE hazards will be developed as needed.
119
What should be done if a fire does not involve AE?
It must be fought.
## Footnote
Personnel must be evacuated if the fire involves AE or is too large to extinguish with available equipment.
120
What is the responsibility of commanders regarding emergency withdrawal distances?
Developing evacuation plans that include applicable withdrawal distances.
## Footnote
This is part of the installation's emergency planning.
121
Fill in the blank: Protective masks must be used to prevent inhalation of smoke from burning _______.
incendiary mixtures.
122
True or False: Fires involving AE should always be fought regardless of conditions.
False.
## Footnote
Fires involving AE should not be fought if they are supplying heat to the AE or are too large.
123
What must be done immediately regarding all fires in the vicinity of AE?
They must be reported immediately.
## Footnote
Specific actions depend on whether the fire involves AE.
124
What is the purpose of the emergency withdrawal distances?
Application in emergency situations only
## Footnote
These distances are not used for facility siting.
125
What must the initial withdrawal distance for nonessential personnel be?
At least IBD for the PES involved
## Footnote
IBD stands for Initial Buffer Distance.
126
When should the emergency withdrawal distances listed in Table V1.E10.T10 be used?
If the fire involves AE, AE involvement is imminent, or the fire is or may become uncontrollable.
127
What factors do the emergency withdrawal distances depend on?
Fire involvement, HD, fire division, and quantity of explosives
## Footnote
HD refers to Hazard Division.
128
Who determines the withdrawal distance if the fire is not affecting AE?
Emergency authorities based on the situation.
129
What may be used instead of relocating personnel to the specified emergency withdrawal distance?
Structures or protected locations offering equivalent protection
## Footnote
This applies for the distances in Table V1.E10.T10.
130
Who determines the withdrawal distance for essential personnel at accidents?
Emergency authorities on site.
131
What requires special attention and precautions in firefighting?
Fires involving AE containing both explosives and CAs
## Footnote
CAs refers to Chemical Agents.
132
What must responding personnel consider when fighting fires involving AE and CAs?
Additional hazards and precautions discussed in Enclosure 4 of Volume 6.
133
Fill in the blank: The initial withdrawal distance for nonessential personnel must be at least _______.
[IBD for the PES involved]
134
True or False: Emergency withdrawal distances are used for facility siting.
False
135
Emergency Withdrawal Distances for Nonessential Personnel
136
What precautions are required for entry to underground storage facilities following a fire or explosion?
Special precautions must be taken, including monitoring for toxic fumes and evaluating structural damage during initial entry.
## Footnote
Emergency personnel must ensure safety before entering the facility.
137
What must commanders develop for emergencies involving underground storage facilities?
Written procedures defining actions to be taken in emergency situations.
## Footnote
These procedures guide emergency personnel during critical situations.
138
What must installations or responsible activities develop for accidents involving AE?
SOPs or plans for safety, security, and environmental protection.
## Footnote
AE refers to ammunition and explosives.
139
Who must the emergency plans be coordinated with?
Federal, State, and local emergency response authorities, including law enforcement, fire departments, and hospitals.
## Footnote
Coordination ensures a unified response in emergencies.
140
What should the SOPs or plans include regarding emergency preparedness?
Specific sections and guidance for emergency preparedness, contingency planning, and security.
## Footnote
This includes limiting access to trained personnel.
141
What procedures must be included to prevent uncontrolled detonation or release of AE?
Procedures that minimize the possibility of unpermitted or uncontrolled detonation, release, discharge, or migration of AE.
## Footnote
This is crucial for protecting human health and the environment.
142
What provisions must be made for notifying agencies and the public?
Provisions for prompt notification to emergency response and environmental agencies and the potentially affected public for actual or potential detonation or uncontrolled release of AE.
## Footnote
Timely communication is vital in emergency situations.
143
Which sections of the U.S. Code must be complied with regarding emergency planning?
Sections 11001 through 11022 of Title 42, U.S.C., known as the 'Emergency Planning Community Right-To-Know Act of 1986.'
## Footnote
This act mandates transparency and communication about hazardous substances.
