Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

describe the epidermis

A

multiple layer of keratinocyte cells
outermost layer; cornified layer of dead cells responsible for the barrier function
innermost layer; basal cells (single layer of keratinocytes)
melanocytes can be found between these layers

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2
Q

what are the functions of skin?

A
protective barrier 
sensation (multiple nerve endings)
thermoregulation
immunological surveillance (Langerhans cells)
vitamin D production
psychosocial
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3
Q

what should be asked in a dermatology history?

A
time of onset
where/how the skin problem started
evolution of change
associated symptoms - itch, pain, swelling, bleeding
aggravating and relieving factors
any treatments tried so far
how fair the skin is
sun exposure
previous skin problems
anticoagulants (biopsy)
work, school, quality of life
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4
Q

what are you looking for in a skin examination?

A
location
localised/generalised
distribution
symmetrical
size
shape
colour
well/ill-defined
other associated locations - scalp, nails, mucosa
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5
Q

describe macules and patches

A

flat to the surface
macule <5mm
patch >5mm

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6
Q

describe papule and plaques

A

raised lesion
papule <5mm
plaque >5mm

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7
Q

describe a nodule

A

raised and round-topped

may be superficial or deep

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8
Q

describe vesicles, bulla and pustules

A

vesicles; <5mm with clear fluid
bullae/blisters; >5mm with clear fluid
pustule; opaque fluid

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9
Q

describe a cutaneous horn

A

abnormally thick cornified layer

overlying a pre-malignant lesion causing actinic keratosis or a squamous cell carcinoma

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10
Q

what features of a pigmented lesion indicate malignant melanoma?

A
asymmetrical
irregular border
2 or more colours
diameter >6mm
evolution
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11
Q

describe acute eczema

A

high level of inflammation
red oedematous skin
papules and vesicles often present
wet eczema appearance

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12
Q

describe chronic eczema

A
dry
slightly less red changes
some thickening of the skin
lichenification and fissuring
post-inflammatory hypo/hyperpigmentation may also occur
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13
Q

describe the pathophysiology of eczema

A

genetic predisposition
primary defect; skin barrier dysfunction, water loss, sensitivity
inflammation and pruritus reduce the skin barrier
scratching exacerbates the inflammation
itch-scratch cycle

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14
Q

what are the clinical subtypes of eczema?

A

intrinsic (eczema); atopic seborrhoeic, discoid, pompholyx, varicose, venous eczema
extrinsic (dermatitis); an extrinsic factor brings about the skin barrier problem, contact irritant and contact allergic dermatitis

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15
Q

describe atopic eczema

A
most common form
particularly in children
genetic predisposition
chronic relapsing course
pattern can vary; face and flexural aspects in children, flexural areas and hands in adults
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16
Q

what are the triggers of atopic eczema?

A

stress
scratching
secondary infections (staphylococcus, herpes, molluscum)
hot and sweaty conditions
irritants (wool, dust, soap, bubble bath)
allergens (fragrance, preservative in topicals agents or cosmetics, pet dander)

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17
Q

what are the complications of eczema?

A
due to the defective skin barrier;
secondary bacterial infection
secondary viral infection
contact allergy
itch
sleep deprivation
growth impairment
depression
social isolation
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18
Q

what is the pharmacological management of eczema?

A

emollients and soap substitutes; maintenance
anti-inflammatories
topical steroids
calcineurin inhibitors (anti-inflammatory agent) 2nd line after steroids
antibiotics/virals
sedative antihistamines
severe refractory disease; phototherapy
ciclosporin, azathioprine, mycophenolate require side effect counselling

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19
Q

what is the non-pharmacological management of eczema?

A

dermatology nurse
education in application of cream
wet wraps
clinical psychologist; break the itch-scratch cycle

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20
Q

describe seborrhoeic eczema

A

classic distribution over the scalp
associated with minimal itch due to an overgrowth of commensal yeast organisms (malassezia)
high prevalence in those with HIV

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21
Q

what is the treatment of seborrhoeic eczema?

A

mild topical steroids; hydrocortisone
anti-fungals; canesten, daktarin
or a combination of both

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22
Q

describe the presentation and differential diagnosis of discoid eczema

A

intensely itchy plaques of wet eczema
often on the limbs
often difficult to treat; require potent topical steroids

differential diagnosis; Bowen’s disease (pre-malignant lesions), fungal infection, psoriasis

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23
Q

describe pompholyx eczema

A
very small blisters on the palmar-plantar surface; hands and feet
intensely itchy
lateral borders of the fingers
within the web spaces
can be linked to sweating
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24
Q

describe varicose eczema

A

bilateral
chronic
may be a Hx of varicose veins, DVT
eczematous change (acute or chronic) develops on a background of lipodermatosclerosis; inverted Champagne bottle leg
haemosiderin; brown, patchy appearance over lower legs
at risk of venous ulceration

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25
what is the treatment of varicose eczema?
lots of emollient | compression stockings
26
describe asteatotic eczema
very common in hospital and elderly patients very dry skins cracks develop in a typical crazy paving pattern aggravated by soaps and poor nutrition
27
describe contact allergic dermatitis
extrinsic eczema delayed hypersensitivity reaction to substances in contact with the skin causes; nickel, fragrance, hair dye diagnosis; patch testing
28
describe contact irritant dermatitis
extrinsic eczema skin is irritated by noxious agents common on the hands treatment; very careful hand care, soap substitutes, frequent emollients
29
describe psoriasis
``` benign inflammatory condition FHx significant itch nail changes fluctuating associated potentially destructive arthropathy bimodal peak onset; 20, 50-60yrs ```
30
what are the triggers of psoriasis?
``` stress alcohol physical trauma; burns, repeated rubbing, cuts, abrasions, surgical operation sites (koebner phenomenon) lithium beta blockers ACEi anti-malarials abrupt cessation of oral/topical steroids; substantial flare ```
31
describe the pathogenesis of psoriasis
interaction of genetic, immunological and environmental factors genetic factors; influence subtype and treatment response predominately driven by T-cells within the epidermis pro-inflammatory cytokines; TNF, IL-12, 23, 17 cause the hyperproliferation of keratinocytes and angiogenesis
32
describe chronic plaque psoriasis
most common subtype symmetrical well defined salmon pink plaques on extensor sites; elbows, knees, sacrum, scalp thick, silvery scale auspitz sign; removed/scratched off, pinpoint bleeding dermal blood vessels become much more close to the skin surface
33
describe subacute psoriasis
when chronic plaque psoriasis becomes inflamed or fiery red | less obvious scale
34
what is the treatment of chronic plaque psoriasis?
vitamin D analogues tar preparations topical steroids; used in short bursts only narrow-band UVB; if topicals are ineffective systemic medications; UVB ineffective biologics; fail first line systemic agents, sc injection, immunosuppressive
35
describe erythrodermic psoriasis
deep red appearance >90% body surface widespread, exfoliative scaling extremely unwell; fever, malaise, raised WCC
36
what are the complications and treatment of erythrodermic psoriasis?
defective thermoregulation fluid and protein loss high output HF secondary cutaneous infection supportive care; fluids, emollients, skin care systemic treatment
37
describe pustular psoriasis
``` extensive sheets of small pustules skin red and painful well-demarcated patches and plaques mortality of up to 10% significant systemic symptoms; fever, malaise ```
38
what is the treatment of pustular psoriasis?
supportive; fluids, emollients, skin care | systemic therapy required to control the skin
39
describe palmoplantar psoriasis
``` exclusively affects the palms and soles pustules on a background of erythema; instep of soles, heels of palms symmetrical painful itchy significant functional impairment ```
40
what is the treatment of palmoplantar psoriasis?
tar potent topical steroids hand and foot PUVA systemic agents
41
describe guttate psoriasis
common in teenagers classically follows a streptococcal throat infection small teardrop plaques particularly over the trunk may clear in 4-6 weeks or cause chronic psoriasis
42
what is the treatment of guttate psoriasis?
vitamin D topical steroid preparation tar preparations phototherapy; UVB, responds extremely well
43
describe flexural psoriasis
reflects the flexures; axilla, sub-mammy areas, groins very well demarcated red, glistening plaques minimal scale due to occlusion of the areas associated with secondary candidiasis infection; seen as satellite lesions, papule and pustules situated away from the plaques
44
what is the treatment of flexural psoriasis?
mild topical steroid and anti fungal mix | topical calcineurin inhibitor; causes local irritation in the first few days
45
what is the treatment of psoriasis?
``` topical; vitamin D analogues phototherapy; narrow-band UVB, PUVA widespread; oral psoralen local; topical psoralen limit of total lifetime exposures of PUVA, significant risk factors for skin cancer ```
46
what are the systemic agents that are used to treat psoriasis?
methotrexate; inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, used in skin and joint disease, immunosuppressive (monitor blood count and LFTs) ciclosporin; only skin disease, immunosuppressive, renal complications and hypertension acitretin; vitamin A analogue, non-immunosuppressive biologics; anti-TNF, IL12/23, IL17, those who have failed standard systemic treatment options apremilast; oral inhibitor of phosphodiesterase four, non-immunosuppressive
47
what are the complications of psoriasis?
psoriatic arthropathy; can be destructive, lead to enthesitis, requires early intervention with systemic agents metabolic syndrome; increased risk of CVD (could be improved by methotrexate) psychological/psychiatric impairment; depressed, anxious, unemployed, socially isolated
48
describe psoriatic nail dystrophy
pitting; coarse, >5 oil-drop spots oncholysis; may be caused by subungal hyperkeratosis more prone to secondary fungal nail infection
49
describe psoriatic arthropathy
``` often asymmetrical can affect small or large joints, sacroiliac and spinal joints enthesitis sausage deformity of the fingers arthritis mutilans ```
50
describe psoriatic scalp disease and its treatment
``` can be very extensive can cause significant distress itch excessive scaling falling onto clothing ``` treatment; shampoos, pomades, steroid shampoos or gels, olive oils, coconut oils, systemic therapy
51
describe acne vulgaris
chronic inflammation of the pilosebaceous unit | onset usually in adolescence
52
describe the pathophysiology of acne
increased sebum production blockage/plugging of the pilosebaceous unit; obstruction of the outflow of sebum abnormal microbial colonisation of the unit; propionibacterium acnes inflammation
53
what are the clinical signs of acne?
``` open comedones; blackheads closed comedones; whiteheads papules and pustules; blocked follicle ruptures into the skin nodules cysts scarring ```
54
what is the difference between open and closed comedones?
open; blockage of the follicular opening, still open to the surrounding skin closed; follicle remains closed over the swollen sebaceous gland
55
describe papules and pustules in acne
increased inflammation development of pus often following the rupture of a wall of a closed comedone
56
describe nodules and cysts in acne
larger and deeper within the skin significant inflammatory component can be very painful at the most risk of leaving severe scarring
57
describe scarring in acne
usually improve 6-12 months after the inflammatory phase has been resolved ice pick scarring hypertrophic scarring exacerbated by excessive picking or squeezing
58
what are the aggravating factors for acne?
PCOS CAH; endocrine causes of hyperandrogenism drugs; steroids, hormones, anti-convulsants pregnancy occlusive oil-based cosmetics smoking
59
define mild acne
classically involves comedones and a few small pustules
60
define moderate acne
papulopustular lesions in a wider area or failure of mild acne to respond to therapy
61
define severe acne
widespread nodular cystic lesions, or a failure of moderate acne to response to treatment, or a patient with significant psychological upset associated with their acne
62
what is the treatment of mild acne?
topical agents; benzoyl peroxidase topical retinoid; derived from vitamin A, particularly effective for comedonal cream formulation; least irritant second line topicals; combine benzoyl peroxidase with an antibiotic or a retinoid topical antibiotics; never used as a mono therapy topical treatment; synergistic with oral therapy
63
what is the treatment of moderate acne?
systemic antibiotics; tetracyclines, 6-12 weeks, tetralysal and doxycycline OCP topical agents; synergistic with systemic treatments
64
what is the treatment of severe acne
``` isotretinoin; roaccutane vitamin A derivative/retinoid 4-6 month course 40%; excellent response 40%; minimal recurrence 20%; may require a second course ```
65
what is the mechanism of action of isotretinoin?
dramatic reduction in sebum production inhibition of P. acnes anti-inflammatory
66
what are the side effects of isotretinoin?
``` dry skin and mucosae nose bleeds flare of eczema muscle aches hepatitis elevated triglycerides photosensitivity teratogenicity depression ```
67
describe rosacea
``` chronic inflammatory skin disorder crops of papules and pustules background of erythema and telangiectasia affects convexities increased age group females fairer skin type ```
68
what are the causes of rosacea?
``` multifactorial; UV exposure demodex mite and skin peptide activation genetic factors vascular abnormalities ```
69
what are the clinical features of pustular rosacea?
papules and pustules on the convexities; nose, cheeks, chin, forehead no comedones rhinophyma lymphedema of the skin of the nose ocular involvement; up to 50%, most commonly blepharitis
70
what are the clinical features of erythematous rosacea?
frequent facial flushing over months-years, may become persistent triggers; alcohol, spicy food, UV, caffeine, topical steroids extremely sensitive skin to any topical applications or cosmetics may have ocular involvement
71
what is the treatment of pustular rosacea?
UV protection topical ivermectin 1st line topical metronidazole orał tetracyclines; 4-6 month course, failing or adjunct to topical agents eye involvement; lid hygiene, refer to ophthalmology
72
what is the treatment of erythematous rosacea?
UV protection emollients; settle the highly sensitive skin trigger avoidance laser therapy cosmetic camouflage topical brimonidine gel/mirvaso; severe flushing, alpha-2 agonist, vasoconstriction temporarily, some pallor eye involvement; lid hygiene, refer to ophthalmology
73
describe impetigo
a common superficial bacterial skin infection pustules heavy-coloured crusted erosions usually caused by staph aureus non-bulbous; caused by group A beta-haemolytic strep acutely contagious; avoid using the same face cloth and towels
74
what is the treatment of impetigo?
relatively localised simple antiseptics; chlorhexidine to wash topical antibiotics; fucidic acid or fucidin more widespread, resistant to topical treatment, patient is unwell; swab, initiate antibiotics (flucloxacillin or erythromycin)
75
what are the clinical features of venous stasis?
``` afebrile itch Hx of DVT or varicose veins bilateral light pink/red crusting, weeping not tender varicose veins skin pigmentation and fibrosis inverted Champagne bottle leg normal inflammatory markers ```
76
what are the clinical features of cellulitis?
``` febrile pain usually unilateral intense erythema tender no crusting occasionally blisters lymphadenopathy/lymphadenitis necrosis if severe athletes foot/ulceration; blood sugar, HbA1c raised inflammatory markers ```
77
define cellulitis
acute, subacute or chronic area of inflammation and infection of subcutaneous tissue
78
describe erysipelas
``` similar to cellulitis sometimes in the face acute well defined more superficial; affecting the dermis and upper subcutaneous tissue ```
79
what is the treatment of cellulitis and erysipelas?
antibiotics analgesia blood cultures; if they are systemically unwell with a pyrexia swab in areas of skin that may be broken
80
describe necrotising fasciitis
medical and surgical emergency cellulitic-looking process pain out of keeping with what you initially see can become systemically unwell; septic shock
81
what are the causes and treatment of necrotising fasciitis?
typically polymicrobial group A haemolytic strep clostridium perfringens if progresses; will most likely require surgical debridement, high mortality rate initiate IV antibiotics, swab any areas that are broken
82
describe chicken pox
``` caused by varicella zoster acute fever prodrome; feeling unwell subsequent vesicular eruption incubation period; 10-21 days vesicles can take 3 weeks to clear and can leave residual scars ```
83
what is the management of chicken pox?
``` usually symptomatic mild analgesia rest at home fluids calamine lotion; relief, topical immunocompromised; antivirals, acyclovir, varicella zoster globulin ```
84
describe shingles
herpes zoster localised, vesicular, painful rash reactivation of the varicella zoster virus typically unilateral dermatomal distribution; will not cross the midline
85
what is the treatment of shingles
antivirals; acyclovir simple analgesia secondary infection; treat with antibiotics
86
what happens if shingles affects the facial nerve?
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome | can cause a degree of facial paralysis and hearing loss in the affected ear
87
describe the pain that occurs after the resolution of the shingles rash
post-herpetic neuralgia | treatment; amitriptyline, can have a significant impact on patient
88
describe cold sores
herpes simplex virus localised vesicular eruption often triggered by a preceding illness, generally being run down, UV light
89
what are the causes of cold sores?
HSV1; oral and facial cold sores | HSV2; genital and rectal infections, anogenital herpes
90
what are the complications of herpes simplex virus?
eye involvement; dendritic ulcers disseminated eczema herpeticum; if the patient has pre-existing eczema erythema multiforme; classic targeted lesions
91
what is the treatment of cord sores?
acyclovir oral prophylactic dose if recurrent viral swab of any vesicular eruption; exclude underlying HSV
92
describe the different types of tinea fungal infections
``` tinea pedis; foot tinea corporis; body tinea capitus; scalp tinea cruris; groin tinea unguium; nails tinea incognita; masked by steroids tinea manuum; hand ```
93
what are the investigations and treatment of cutaneous fungal infections?
swab for fungal O&S skin scrapings woods light nail clippings; tinea unguium stop topical steroid topical (lamisul) or oral terbinafine, itraconazole or fluconazole duration depends on site monitor LFTs if long course
94
describe pityriasis versicolor and its treatment
scaly hypo or hyper pigmented patches on the chest and back common yeast infection associated with humid environments, travelling should respond to a 5 day course of ketoconazole shampoo persistent; oral antifungals, itraconazole, fluconazole
95
describe scabies
caused by a mite common in travellers, use of hostels intensely itchy rash, particularly between the fingers mite burrow sites; web spaces, wrists, areola, genitalia can present as a vesicular eruption excoriations inflammatory nodules adults; face usually spared severe; peripheral eosinophilia, raised eosinophil count
96
what is the differential diagnosis of scabies?
contact eczema | delusions of parasitosis; nothing to see in the skin
97
what is the treatment of scabies?
patient and all household contacts permethrin 5%, or other suitable alternatives applied to the entire body 8-12 hours repeated after 1 week clothes and bed linen washed at a high temperature; capture any evolving mites or erupting from legs
98
describe erythema migrans
lyme disease rash occurring 3-30 days after being bitten by a tick of the borrella-carrying bacteria lyme serology before serology/if suspicious; doxycycline 100mg BD
99
what are the causes and signs of skin ageing?
intrinsic genetic factors age smoking UV radiation ``` wrinkling loss of elasticity telangiectasia pigmentary change; freckling, fragility, bruising skin cancers ```
100
what advice should be given to patients regarding UV protection?
``` avoid burning seek shade between 11 and 3 clothing; long sleeves, long legs, hats, sun glasses plentiful sun cream; reapply, >30 SPF avoid tanning beds/lamps keep babies and children out of the sun see their GP about new/changing moles high risk groups; children, fair skin, outdoor workers, outdoor habits, immunosuppressed ```
101
what questions should be asked when a patient presents with a lesion?
``` risk factors for skin cancer; skin type history of UV exposure; work or hobbies living abroad using sunbeds immunosuppression previous history of skin cancer lesion history; duration, evolution, associated symptoms ```
102
how should a lesion be examined?
``` inspection of the site; sun exposed location site shape colour specific morphological description well/ill defined assess for a second lesion lymph node examination ``` melanocytic; ABCDE
103
describe seborrhoeic keratoses
``` very common >30yrs usually asymptomatic can be multiple start as small lesions very waxy skin coloured or yellow, over time can become brown or black warty texture stuck-on appearance often well-demarcated usually occur on the trunk and face benign, no treatment required ```
104
describe viral warts
caused by human papillomavirus finely-formed surface can sometimes see pinpoint haemorrhages within the lesions slow growing children; hands and face adults; hands and feet 90% will resolve within 2 years, may not require treatment wart paint/cryotherapy; painful or particularly distressing
105
what is the differential diagnosis of a viral wart?
squamous cell carcinoma; a new wart develops in a older patient
106
describe vascular lesion
include pyogenic granulomas rapidly developing nodules that grow over 1-2 weeks site of trauma; prick of finger on a thorn bleed easily Campbell-de-morgan spots common; seen also in liver disease venous lakes common; soft, compressible blue nodules, usually on lip
107
what is the differential diagnosis of a vascular lesion?
melanotic melanoma squamous cell carcinoma require histology
108
describe infantile haemangiomas
grow rapidly after birth benign slowly resolve from 6-12 months or may take years can leave a scar site; important, require treatment if obstructing any vital functions, vision, breathing, feeding deeper, segmental distribution; associated with underlying abnormalities or complications
109
what is the treatment of infantile haemangiomas?
propanolol
110
describe lipomas
benign fat tumours soft, jelly-like texture definable border multiple within a single patient
111
describe dermatofibromas
asymptomatic usually on lower leg very firm can dimple in the centre when gently squeezed can be pigmented, with a ring around the periphery of the lesion thought to be a healing response to trauma; insect bite
112
describe epidermoid cysts
``` benign lesions skin coloured firm but fluctuant mobile above the underlying structures frequently seen in the scalp, face and trunk ```
113
describe chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis
``` painful nodule on the rim of the ear benign caused by recurrent pressure on the ear cartilage as they always lie on the same side at night need to be distinguished from SCC require histology ```
114
describe keloid scarring
a scar that extends beyond the original wound often occur after trauma; ear piercing, tattoo, skin surgery, or spontaneously usually occur in the head and neck region, or upper torso
115
describe an incisional biopsy
small sample | usually carried out using a punch biopsy
116
describe an excision
small; punch biopsy | larger; elliptical excision
117
describe shave or curettage
removal of a lesion flush with the skin surface leave the roots of the deeper part of the lesion behind should only be used for benign lesions convenient; no suturing, heal with good cosmetic result
118
describe mohs micro graphically controlled surgery
a specialist surgery carried out in stages to ensure that the margins of a difficult tumour are clear used for difficult cases of BCC
119
describe premalignant lesions
precursors of squamous cell carcinoma | most common; actinic keratosis, Bowens disease
120
describe actinic keratosis
focally abnormal areas within the epidermis dysplasia within keratinocytes, partial thickness; brought about by UV-induced cellular DNA damage ill-defined sun exposed sites surrounded by sun damaged skin; pigmentary change, wrinkles, fragility, telangiectasia 10-15% chance of developing a future SCC
121
describe the grading of actinic keratoses
1; macular erythema that is barely visible, slight gritty feel 2; easy to see and feel 3; fleshy and hyperkeratotic lesions, highest risk for converting into SCC
122
describe feel change
describes an area of skin that has extensive confluent actinic damage may include actinic keratosis of various grades
123
what features indicate conversion of actinic keratoses to SCC?
``` tenderness non-responsiveness to treatment recent/rapid growth induration ulceration lip lesions multiple lesions ```
124
what is the treatment of a single AK?
cryotherapy | curettage; thick lesion
125
what is the treatment of field AK?
topical treatment; diclofenac gel (low grade) patients should expect significant local irritation inflammation; effective and lasting response photo dynamic therapy; combination approach sun protection and vitamin D advice
126
describe Bowens disease
SCC in situ keratinocyte dysplasia is evident throughout the full thickness of the epidermis mostly on the lower legs single or multiple very well-defined erythematous plaques with overlying scale 5% risk of progressing to SCC higher risk of developing a subsequent skin cancer elsewhere
127
what is the differential diagnosis of Bowens disease?
inflammatory rashes; psoriasis, eczema, tinea SCC superficial BCC amelanotic melanoma
128
what is the treatment of Bowens disease?
photodynamic therapy topical therapy; 5-fluorouracial, imiquimod cryotherapy curettage excision full body examination; looking for second or third lesions sun protection advice vitamin D replacement no response to treatment, concerns about developing SCC; refer using the 2-week wait rule
129
name the types of non-melanotic skin cancers
basal cell carcinoma | squamous cell carcinoma
130
describe a basal cell carcinoma
most common form of skin cancer develop from the basal layer of cells in the epidermis very slow growing develop over months-years local invasive irregular sub-clinical finger-like projections that grow into the dermis
131
what are the clinical features of a BCC?
usually grow on sun-exposed sites | nodular BCC; pearly surface, rolled edge, ulceration, arborising telangiectasis
132
what happens when basal cells are incompletely excised or neglected?
can become very destructive | especially in the head and neck region
133
describe nodular BCCs
``` usually appear on sun damaged skin nodular or plaque like shiny/pearly surface telangiectasia often ulcerate high risk in central facial location ```
134
describe superficial/multifocal BCCs
``` usually appear on trunk scaly erythematous plaque raised rim rarely ulcerate low risk ```
135
describe morphoeic /infiltrative BCCs
``` usually appear on the face shiny white plaque with ulceration may intermittently heal/recur initially often ulcerate very high risk ```
136
what is the treatment of BCCs?
most treated by standard excision with adequate margin; usually curative more difficult/recurrent tumours may be referred for Mohs surgery
137
describe squamous cell carcinomas
red flag cancer; locally invasive and metastatic potential develop when dysplastic cells in the epidermis invade into the dermis features; fleshy nodule, sometimes with a keratotic surface, grow rapidly (over weeks), painful
138
what are the risk factors for developing a SCC?
sun exposure fair skin immunosuppression chronic inflammation; chronic ulcers, Bowens disease
139
which factors indicate aggressive behaviour of a tumour?
size; >2cm depth; >4mm invading beyond the depth of subcutaneous fat location; scalp, ear, lip presence of immunosuppression histology; poor differentiation, perineurial invasion
140
what is the treatment of a SCC?
excision with a clear margin | follow up; looking for signs of local/metastatic recurrence and other primary tumours
141
what is the differential diagnosis of a nodular lesion on a sun exposed site?
``` BCC SCC dermal naevi dermatofibroma cysts molluscum contagiosum lipoma keloid ```
142
what is the differential diagnosis of a lesion covered in scale?
``` SCC actinic keratosis Bowens disease superficial BCC chondrodermatitis viral warts tinea psoriasis ```
143
what is the differential diagnosis of a fleshy/bleeding lesions?
SCC amelanotic melanoma vascular lesions; pyogenic granuloma
144
describe a cutaneous lymphoma
most commonly seen when a systemic lymphoma involves the skin as a secondary site primary cutaneous formal mycosis fungoides T-cell lymphoma of the skin patches and plaques on su protected sites; buttocks
145
describe sezary syndrome
a systemic variant of T-cell lymphoma | presents with erythroderma
146
what is the treatment of a cutaneous lymphoma?
topical steroids | UV light
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describe acanthosis nigricans
may indicate an underlying GI malignancy | can be benign; more common, related to diabetes
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describe serpiginous erythema
may indicate an underlying lung malignancy
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describe Pagets disease
of the nipple; underlying breast disease acquired ichthyosis, dermatomyositis, new onset pruritus, erythroderma, pemphigus, scaling of the palms and soles (tylosis)
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describe cutaneous secondary deposits
may be the presenting feature of an underlying carcinoma usually presents as pink or blue firm nodules solitary or multiple common sites; scalp, umbilicus, upper trunk usually occur late and indicate poor prognosis
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describe the ABCDE algorithm
``` differentiate potentially benign lesions from those that are concerning for malignancy asymmetry inconsistent borders 2 or more colours >6mm diameter history of evolution ```
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what is the differential diagnosis for pigmented lesions?
melanocytic; naevi, moles, freckles, lentigo, melanoma in situ, melanoma non-melanocytic; seborrhoeic keratosis, dermatofibroma, vascular lesions (haemangioma, pigmented BCC)
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describe melanocytes
pigment producing lesions; melanin within the basal layer of the epidermis melanin; acts as a protective barrier against UV exposure
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what is seen after an increase in melanin
freckling
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what is seen after an increase in clusters of melanocytes
naevi
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what is seen after an increase in individual melanocytes
lentigo
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describe melanoma
occurs when melanocyte proliferation becomes upregulated 50%; from pre-existing moles 50%; de novo
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describe congenital naevi
may develop coarse hairs later in life | giant/>20cm; increased risk of melanoma developing, should be routinely screened
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describe acquired naevi
junctional; epidermis only, flat, dark brown compound; epidermis and dermis, light brown, raised dermal; raised, flesh coloured, dermis only halo; teenagers, usually benign if it is regular and symmetrical
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describe atypical naevi
moles with atypical clinical appearance benign on histological assessment clinically similar to a superficial spreading melanoma usually large, variegated colour, ill defined borders increased risk of melanoma may be inherited; AD
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describe lentigo
in adults permanent increase in individual melanocytes in the epidermis scattered, small macules, usually across the shoulders larger, light brown homogenous patches on sun exposed sites; face, lower arms background skin damaged benign
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describe pre-malignant melanocytes lesions
melanoma in situ, lentigo maligna can occur when melanocytes become dysplastic and contained in the epidermis high risk of lentigo maligna to progress to lentigo maligna melanoma treatment; excision with a clear margin
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name the subtypes of melanoma
nodular; grow vertically, can quickly metastasise superficial spreading; most common, grows laterally acral; on palms, subungal areas, predominantly non-white population lentigo maligna; exposed sites, elderly, large, difficult to manage, can be cosmetically sensitive
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describe breslow depth
best prognostic indicator for melanoma depth of the tumour on histological assessment thin tumours, <8mm; prognosis very good depth >4mm; 50% 5 year survival
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describe the management of suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care
red flag pathway 3/7 point checklist, 2 on ABCDE; referred under 2 week wait rule refer when you have strong concerns about any individual features; new pigmented or vascular nodules, new nail changes excision of suspicious pigmented lesions should be avoided in primary care high risk individuals should be referred for screening; giant congenital melanocytes naevi, atypical moles, FHx of 3+ melanomas, >100 normal moles
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describe the management of suspicious pigmented lesions in secondary care
full body examination identifying all pigmented lesions; examine with the naked eye and dermoscopy initial excision; narrow margin (diagnosis, breslow depth) second procedure; achieve appropriate wide margins regular follow up; local/metastatic recurrence PET scanning sentinel lymph node biopsy
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describe the new melanoma-targeted therapies available
BRAF targeted therapy; BRAF is a gene involved in cell growth and mutations significant side effects
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describe lupus erythematous
``` a group of autoimmune disorders caused by antibodies against components of cell nuclei systemic discoid, subacute (primarily cutaneous) cutaneous features often provoked by sun exposure worse in smokers ```
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describe discoid LE
most common form of cutaneous LE single/multiple scaly plaques sun exposed distribution scarring or pigmentary change; very common scalp may be affected; permanent hair loss 5% go on to develop SLE
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describe subacute LE
presents with annular/polycystic scaly plaques on the trunk often follows an episode of sun exposure higher proportion go on to develop SLE
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describe SLE
multi-systemic autoimmune disorders neurological and renal disease; most serious problems common cutaneous features; butterfly rash (photosensitivity), mouth ulcers, hair thinning, vasculitis show features of DLE and subacute LE f>m
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describe the management of SLE
patient education topical therapies sun protection potent topical steroids; prevention of scarring systemic treatments; hydroxychloroquine, oral prednisolone (vitamin D replacement)
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describe dermatomyositis
inflammatory condition of proximal muscles accompanied by a characteristic rash skin changes can develop several months prior to muscle weakness
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what are the risk factors for dermatomyositis?
``` autoimmunity infection medications underlying malignancy age ```
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what are the features of dermatomyositis?
heliotrope rash (light purple) on the eyelids purplish patches on sun exposed sites; back of the hands, bony prominences, become scaly (gottrons papules) prominent nail-fold capillaries calcinosis on the fingers
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what investigations should be performed to diagnose dermatomyositis?
``` CK ANA; + in 70%, low specificity anti-Jo antibodies EMG muscle MRI skin or muscle biopsy ```
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what is the treatment of dermatomyositis?
identify and treat any malignancy high dose oral prednisolone steroid bearing agents; methotrexate, azathioprine, mycophenolate
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describe systemic sclerosis/scleroderma
multi-system disease caused by autoimmunity to endothelial cells resulting in excessive fibrosis mostly cutaneous, cardiac, renal, respiratory and GI vascular changes; raynauds, telangiectasia limited systemic sclerosis; distal limbs, lower chance of significant organ involvement localised scleroderma; skin only, isolated fibrotic plaques
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what are the cutaneous features of systemic sclerosis?
bird-like facial appearance; beaked nose, pursed lips tight skin over the hands sclerodactyly calcinosis over the fingertips; can be painful ulceration over bony prominences and calcinosis prominent nail-fold capillaries telangiectasia; often in the face and hands
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what are the investigations and treatment of systemic sclerosis?
anti-centromere antibodies scl-70 antibodies ANA symptomatic treatment high dose oral prednisolone difficult and often gets a poor response
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describe erythema nodosum
painful erythematous nodular eruption extensor aspect of the lower limbs hypersensitivity reaction to a number of stimuli
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what are the causes of erythema nodosum?
``` sarcoidosis TB streptococcal infection mycoplasma infection some medications IBD idiopathic >50% ```
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what investigations are required to diagnose erythema nodosum?
``` CXR; most important history; drug history examination throat swabs ASO titre (group A streptococcus) mantoux (TB) and mycoplasma serology ace levels (sarcoidosis) ```
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what is the treatment of erythema nodosum?
treat the underlying cause rarely oral steroids required mostly respond to conservative therapy
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describe erythema multiforme
hypersensitivity reaction to an infection; HSV (>30%), mycoplasma, hepatitis, HIV to a drug signs can last for 1-4 weeks and can recur less severe than Stevens Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis
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what are the clinical signs of erythema multiforme?
target lesion; dusky, red central area, pale surround, outer dusky ring localised to acral or distal sites; hands and feet often symmetrical can involve the face may have mucosal lesions; some may be very extensive
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what is the treatment of erythema multiforme?
``` symptomatic topical steroid analgesics antihistamines oral steroids; very severe recurrence; linked to HSV, prophylactic oral acyclovir ```
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describe pyoderma gangrenosum
ulceration often on the lower leg extremely painful rapidly progressive
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what are the clinical features of pyoderma gangrenous?
irregular ulcers with a purple undermined edge necrotic base single or multiple
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what other conditions are associated with pyoderma gangrenous?
IBD inflammatory arthritis; RA haematological malignancies; behcets disease
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what is the treatment of pyoderma gangrenous?
identify and treat the underlying cause analgesia appropriate dressing super potent topical steroids; ulcer edges oral steroids steroid sparing agents; ciclosporin, mycophenolate, azathioprine, dapsone anti-TNF agents
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describe necrobiosis lipoidica
presents with sharply demarcated plaques red-brown edge central, atrophic area with a yellow hue usually on anterior shins strong association with DM; microvasculature problems can progress over many years before it stabilises can become ulcerative
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what is the treatment of necrobiosis lipoidica?
topical steroids; early disease | aspirin
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describe drug eruptions
wide variety of clinical presentations onset usually 7-10 days after starting can be similar to an infectious exanthem often caused by antibiotics; stop and switch to another class
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what are the clinical features of a drug eruption?
rash fever raised inflammatory markers
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describe a mild drug exanthem
maculopapular/morbilliform rash; measles-like usually starts on the trunk and spreads to the proximal limbs can mimic a viral or bacterial exanthem patient systemically well
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describe Stevens Johnson syndrome
usually start with painful, targeted lesions >2 mucosal surfaces involved haemorrhage crusting affects <10% of body surface
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describe toxic epidermal necrolysis
``` affects >30% of body surface blistering and separation of the epidermis from the dermis risk of skin failure nikolsky's sign may be positive mortality <40% ```
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describe drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
can mimic an exanthema initially may have a maculopapular rash tends to regress to confluent erythema generally more unwell
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what are the symptoms and signs of DRESS?
``` peripheral eosinophilia; FBC facial swelling lymphadenopathy systemic symptoms; high fever raised LFTs renal impairment; increased creatinine dyspnoea ```
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what drugs are more likely to cause DRESS?
anticonvulsants penicillins vancomycin
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describe acue generalised eruptive pustulosis (AGEP)
``` acute onset of erythema and pustules high fever usually start in the flexures appear 2-3 days after starting and resolve 1-3 weeks after stopping elevated WCC can be confused with pustular psoriasis ```
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what is the management of drug eruptions?
withdrawal of the causative agent emollients; maintain the skin barrier integrity topical steroids and antihistamines; mild eruptions severe eruptions; management in HDU or ICU, careful monitoring of fluid and electrolyte balance monitor and treat for sepsis; high risk of infection due to loss of skin barrier mucosal care; high importance, eyes may scar involve dermatology at an early stage
204
what are the signs of a life-threatening drug eruption?
``` angiodema blistering positive nikolsky sign mucosal involvement; could indicate Steven Johnson syndrome extensive purpura pustules; could be AGEP high eosinophil count; could be DRESS extensive confluent erythema ```
205
describe urticaria
can be acute or chronic chronic idiopathic urticaria; urticaria alone, persists for >6 weeks can appear as hives, wheals wheals; intensely itchy, usually resolve within 24hrs, come in waves extensive urticaria; responds well to oral antihistamines
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define angiodema
swelling of the deep dermis subcutaneous tissues and mucosa
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define anaphylaxis
severe life-threatening systemic hypersensitivity reaction | develops quickly; within half an hour of ingesting the causative agent
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describe purpura
``` non-blanching palpable rash can appear red, purple or black usually on the lower legs but can be anywhere can be painful or bullous clinical finding, not a diagnosis ```
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describe petechiae
pinpoint haemorrhages | causes; low platelets, pressure from BP cuff
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what are the embolic causes of purpura?
DIC septic emboli meningococcaemia infective endocarditis
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what are the coagulopathy causes of purpura?
thrombocytopenia liver disorder anticoagulant medication vitamin C deficiency
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what are the vascular causes of purpura?
senile purpura; often related to oral steroids | vasculitis
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describe vasculitis
can be classified based on the inflammation of small, medium or large vessels often due to medication or infection cutaneous vasculitis; only limited to the skin usually self-limiting if confined to the skin
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describe henoch Schonlein purpura
usually affects a younger age group post streptococcal throat infection extensor surface and buttock involvement systemic involvement; arthritis, renal, GI, churg strauss, wegeners, PAN, giant cell arteritis at risk of progressive renal disease; close follow up
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what are the investigations required if purpura is found?
``` history examination vasculitic screen ASOT titres throat swab antinuclear antibodies, other rheumatological investigations vitamin C; nutritional status organ-specific inflammation; inflammatory markers, BP, urinalysis, urine microscopy, CK, LFTs, amylase ```
216
describe bullous pemphigoid
``` relatively common blistering condition autoimmune IgG auto-antibodies against BP180 and BP230 in the basement membrane loss of hemidesmosomes sub-epidermal blister formation ```
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what are the symptoms and signs of bullous pemphigoid?
``` typically elderly patient sever itch tense blisters on erythematous skin sub-epidermal blister on histology slide stain skin for immunofluorescence treatment; oral steroids, doxycycline ```
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describe pemphigus
autoimmune relatively rare blistering IgG auto-antibodies against desmoglein 3 in the epidermis this protein binds the cells together loss of protein; separation of the skin cells and intra-epithelial blisters
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what are the signs and symptoms of pemphigus?
blisters and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes pathology slide; blister within the epidermis immunofluorescence; IgG antibodies in the epidermis treatment; steroids, steroid-sparing systemic agents
220
describe dermatitis herpetiformis
more common in caucasian males linked to coeliac disease caused by gluten intolerance IgA antibodies target the skin and gut; sup-epidermal blister formation
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what are the signs and symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis?
intensely itchy papules and vesicles on extensor surfaces histology; sub-epidermal separation, micro abscesses treatment; gluten free diet, dapsone
222
describe erythroderma
a true skin emergency erythema affecting 90% of the body surface area almost entirely red only small sparing of normal skin
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what re the causes of erythroderma?
``` eczema psoriasis drugs cutaneous T-cell lymphoma pityriasis rubra pillaris no underlying cause ```
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define skin failure
sudden and widespread impairment of normal skin function
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what are the complications of skin failure?
``` cutaneous pain and itching impaired temperature regulation infection risk fluid loss loss of electrolytes and proteins increased energy requirements oedema risk of high output cardiac failure mucosal ulceration later complications; hair and nail loss ```
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what is the management of erythroderma?
stop any unnecessary drugs admission; further treatment and investigation bland emollients; soft white paraffin soap substitutes adequate pain relief antihistamines monitor for infections managing food balance and body temperature skin biopsy; establish the underlying cause further treatment depends on the underlying cause
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describe rashes flat with skin
<1cm; macule | >1cm; papule
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describe raised rashes
fluid filled; pus; pustule clear fluid; <1cm; vesicle, >1cm; bullae not fluid filled <1cm; papule >1cm; plaque
229
describe a skin examination
inspection describe palpate systematic check
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describe the inspection section of a skin examination
``` distribution; flexors/extensors generalised/localised photosensitive dermatomal ``` ``` confirmation; koebner phenomenon annular targetoid discoid/nummular ```
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describe the description section of a skin examination
``` size shape colour morphological term surface change ```
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describe the palpation section of a skin examination
``` texture; gritty; keratin tenderness firm; dimple sign heat ```
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name the types of pigmented lesions
benign; naevus pre-malignant; melanoma-in-situ malignant; melanoma
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name the types of non-pigmented lesions
benign; seborrhoeic keratosis pre-malignant; actinic keratosis, Bowen's disease malignant; SCC, BCC
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what are the treatment options for actinic keratosis?
``` good sun proection solaraze cryotherapy efudix actikerall imiquimod photo dynamic therapy curettage excision ```