Acute medicine and infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

what is the first line treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia?

A

amitriptyline
gabapentin
duloxetine
pregabalin

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2
Q

what are the causes of bilateral swellings?

A
systemic
cardiac
renal
low serum albumin
dependency oedema
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3
Q

what are the causes of unilateral swellings?

A
arterial
venous
lymphatic
cellulitis
baker's cyst
haematoma
joint pathology
lymphoedema
superficial thrombophlebitis
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4
Q

what questions would you ask a patient regarding limb swelling?

A
uni/bilateral
acute/chronic
history of pain
history of trauma
skin changes
adverse impact on mobility
systemic symptoms; fever, dyspnoea, night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite
medical history; DVT, malignancy, lymphoedema
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5
Q

what are the mode of action of OCP?

A

inhibit ovulation by suppressing the release of gonadotrophins from hypothalamus

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6
Q

what are the common side effects of OCP?

A
nausea
breast tenderness
mood changes
break-through bleeding
increased risk of thromboembolism, ischaemic disease, breast cancer
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7
Q

what are the clinical features of compartment syndrome?

A

loss of muscle function
pain on active or passive contraction
muscle eventually shortens
patient develops ischaemic contracture

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8
Q

what are the causes of compartment syndrome?

A

venous occlusion
trauma
reperfusion injury
misplaced arterial or venous cannula

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9
Q

how is a patient with a Well’s score >/= 2 managed?

A

USS of leg
DVT; anticoagulant
negative; check D-dimer, if positive, do another USS in 6-8 days

or

check D-dimer
positive; anticoagulant
USS within 24hrs
positive; continue anticoagulant
negative; stop anticoagulant and repeat USS in 6-8 days
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10
Q

what are the causes of fever?

A
infection
malignancy
drug fever
autoimmune
inherited fever syndromes; familial Mediterranean fever
acute inflammatory processes; PE
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11
Q

describe serology

A

used to detect antibodies against a certain pathogen or detect antigens associated with a certain pathogen
e.g.; HIV, EBV, ASOT, leptospirosis, malaria, leishmania

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12
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of serology?

A

can identify organisms that are difficult to culture
point of care tests
retrospective diagnosis
can be used to monitor treatment response

false positives/negatives
relies on correct interpretation

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13
Q

what is associated with neutrophil increase?

A

acute inflammation/bacterial

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14
Q

what is associated with lymphocyte increase?

A

viral

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15
Q

what is associated with eosinophil increase?

A

allergy

psoriatic infection

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16
Q

what biochemical and clinical values are required in sepsis?

A
oxygen levels; requiring mechanical ventilation
platelets
bilirubin
GCS
MAP
vasopressor requirements
creatinine
urine output
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17
Q

what are the signs and symptoms associated with UTIs?

A
dysuria
new nocturia
increased frequency
urgency
strong smelling urine
cloudy urine
blood stained urine
persistent lower abdominal pain
upper UTIs; loin pain, fever
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18
Q

describe lower UTIs

A

cystitis; bladder

urethritis; urethra

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19
Q

describe upper UTIs

A

pyelitis; proximal part of the ureters
pyelonephritis; kidneys
can cause renal scarring, abscess, failure and sepsis

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20
Q

what are the risk factors for developing UTIs?

A
sexual activity
use of spermicidal agents
female
UTI Hx
increasing age
urologic abnormalities
debilitating comorbid conditions
urinary catheter
recent urinary tract instrumentation
wiping back to front
not urinating/drinking water within 15 minutes of sex
washing genitals with soap after urinating
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21
Q

what is the management of asymptomatic bacteruria?

A

nothing in non-pregnant women

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22
Q

what is the initial management of suspected pyelonephritis or suspected sepsis?

A

urine culture
antibiotics/management for upper UTI/sepsis
refer if symptoms or signs of serious illness or condition appear

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23
Q

describe urinalysis results in UTIs

A

nitrite; positive helpful to rule in a UTI, negative does not exclude a UTI
leucocyte esterase; produced in response to inflammation

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24
Q

how is a UTI diagnosed?

A

in the presence of 2 or more urinary symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency, visible haematuria, nocturia) and a positive dipstick test result for nitrite

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25
describe asymptomatic bacteruria and UTIs in pregnancy
asymptomatic bacteruria; risk factor for pyelonephritis and premature labour UTIs; associated with developmental delay, cerebral palsy, foetal death treat after confirming with 2nd sample to exclude contamination
26
what is the treatment of a lower UTI?
nitrofurantoin 100mg 6hrly PO with food or pivmecillinam 400mg PO loading dose, then 200mg PO 8hrly female 3 days, male 7 days
27
what is the treatment of an upper UTI?
gentamicin 5mg/kg 24hrly IV or piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5mg 8hrly IV 7-10 days
28
what is the treatment of urosepsis?
piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5mg 8hrly IV + gentamicin 5mg/kg 24hrly IV
29
what is the lifestyle management of UTIs?
increasing fluid intake NSAIDs insufficient evidence for cranberry juice, herbal products, lactobacillus
30
describe the pathogenesis of meningitis
haematogenous spread, direct contiguous spread, iatrogenic immune system activation cytokine production increased BBB permeability, altered cerebral blood flow, leukocyte adherence to capillary endothelium, increased reactive oxygen species changes in CSF flow and composition neuronal damage, increased ICP and cerebral oedema
31
what is the differential diagnosis of acute bacterial meningitis?
``` fungal meningitis TB meningitis amoebic meningitis syphilis atypical infections in the immunocompromised vial meningitis/encephalitis inflammatory meningitis carcinomatous/lymphomatous meningitis SAH intracranial venous thrombosis tonsilitis ```
32
what are the clinical signs of meningitis?
rash; neiserria meningiditis in adults, meningococcal meningitis in children children; kernig's sign, brudzinski's sign
33
what investigations are required to diagnose meningitis?
``` bloods; FBC, U&E, creatinine, LFTs, coag procalcitonin meningococcal and pneumococcal PCR serology sample glucose throat swab; bacterial culture CSF; protein, glucose, lactate, meningococcal and pneumococcal PCR, microscopy, culture, sensitivity ```
34
what features of infection should delay a LP?
``` signs of severe sepsis rapidly evolving rash respiratory/cardiac compromise anticoagulant therapy known thrombocytopenia infection at LP site focal neurological signs papilloedema continuous/uncontrolled seizures GCS <12 ```
35
describe viral meningitis
``` accounts for 50-80% of total meningitis WCC and CRP often normal CSF used for PCR no treatment of proven benefit IV aciclovir; suspected HSV encephalitis, changes in personality, behaviour, cognition or altered conscious level ```
36
describe infection control in viral meningitis
isolation until meningococcal disease excluded or 24hrs IV ceftriaxone antibiotic chemoprophylaxis for those exposed to respiratory secretions or droplets of meningococcal disease; during CPR or intubation
37
what are the risk factors of staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia?
``` recent hospitalisation surgery vascular device IV drug use haemodialysis previous SAB ```
38
what are the sources of staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia?
``` vascular device skin/soft tissue/wound septic arthritis osteomyelitis discitis endocarditis prosthesis infected DVT/septic thrombophlebitis pneumonia ```
39
what is the treatment of staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia?
minimum 2 weeks IV flucloxacillin
40
what is the clinical management of staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia?
examine and investigate to find source source control; joint washout, remove IV device transthoracic echo (in all patients) repeat blood cultures 48-96hrs after starting IV antibiotics
41
what are the symptoms and signs of infective endocarditis?
``` fever chills poor appetite weight loss heart murmurs emboli to lung, spleen and brain ```
42
what are the risk factors for developing infective endocarditis?
``` prosthetic valve native valve disease cardiac device male IV drug use recent dental procedure ```
43
what are the causative organisms of infective endocarditis?
``` streptococcus staph aureus coagulase negative staphylococci enterococcus HACEK ```
44
what is the treatment of infective endocarditis?
ampicillin 12g IV with flucloxacillin 12g IV with gentamicin 3mg/kg/day IV or vancomycin 30-60mg/kg/day IV with gentamicin 3mg/kg/day IV
45
in what cases should antibiotic prophylaxis be considered for infective endocarditis?
any prosthetic valve previous episode of IE current CAD certain dental procedures (not all)
46
what is the immediate management and investigations of VHF?
``` isolate in a side room urgent malaria investigation FBC, U&E, LFT, coagulation, CRP, glucose, blood cultures inform laboratory of possible VHF case blood cultures VHF screen ```
47
what are the symptoms and signs of malaria infection?
``` return from an exposed country fever headache myalgia abdominal pain tachycardia fever ```
48
what is the treatment of malaria?
IV artesunate IV meropenem; covered for fever stop if blood cultures return negative and patient improves improvement; switch to artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
49
describe the host defences to infection
physical barriers; skin, mucous, GI and urinary tract flushing, normal microbiota innate immunity; phagocytes, complement system, NK cells adaptive immunity; B and T lymphocytes
50
what is the treatment of COVID-19 pneumonitis?
tocilizumab and dexamethasone
51
what are the signs of infection that are inhibited by COVID-19 pneumonitis treatment?
tocilizumab; suppresses pyrexic response and CRP | dexamethasone; causes neutrophilia
52
what are the symptoms and treatment of pneumocystis jirovecii infection?
``` weight loss exertional dyspnoea fever dry cough pleuritic chest pain immunosuppression ``` high dose co-trimoxazole 14 days
53
describe pneumocystis jirovecii infection of a HIV positive patient
``` gradual onset time to respiratory failure 2 weeks to 2 months more PCP and less neutrophils less severe oxygen impairment diagnosis with clinical picture and PCR adjunctive corticosteroids in hypoxia high dose co-trimoxazole 21 days prophylaxis for CD4 <200 ```
54
describe pneumocystis jirovecii infection of an immunosuppressed patient (not HIV)
time to respiratory failure 1 week less PCP and higher inflammatory markers in BAL suggests severe or dysregulated inflammatory response diagnosis more difficult; fewer organisms, upper respiratory samples frequently negative consider use of beta D glucan high dose co-trimoxazole 134 days
55
describe HIV immunosuppression
HIV infects CD4+ T cells normal CD4 count; evidence of immune dysregulation heavily immunocompromised once CD4 <200
56
describe immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
IRIS occurs in patients with AIDS; CD4 <100mm3 preexisting infectious process that worsens paradoxically after initiation of highly active antiretroviral therapy
57
define severe sepsis
``` already in sepsis; altered conscious level or hypoxia; <94% or shock; SBP <90 ```
58
how is neutropenic sepsis identified and treated?
assume in all haematology/oncology patients within 6/52 SACT observations; temp, HR, BP, O2, AVPU commence NEWS IV access and blood; cultures, FBC, U&E, CRP, LFTs, venous lactate treatment; 1st line antibiotics immediately, consider need for IVF and supplemental O2 commence neutropenic sepsis care pathway
59
what is the antibiotic treatment in neutropenic sepsis?
piperacillin 4g and tazobactam 500mg IV QDS or ciprofloxacin 600mg slow IV BD, gentamicin 5mg/kg IV BD after line flush and teicoplanin 10mk/kg IV (BC x 3 then OD)
60
describe the prophylaxis management of infection recurrence in stem cell transplants
HSV; acyclovir 400mg PO BD CMV; letemovir 280mg PO OD 100 days post-transplant PCP; co-trimozaxole once neutrophils and platelets recovered fungal; posaconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole
61
what infections should we watch for when beginning a TNF alpha inhibitor?
``` TB; CXR, IGRA (latent TB) hep B & C; HBsAg HIV VZV; VZV antibody test if they have no history of chickenpox leishmaniasis endemic mycoses ```
62
what is the treatment of latent TB?
for those with HIV, <65 with evidence of latent TB and have been in contact with suspected/confirmed TB 3 months isoniazid and rifampicin or 6 months isoniazid
63
what is the management of patients with infection on immunosuppressive drugs?
lower threshold for starting broad spectrum antibiotics only speak with team about potential for stopping/holding/decreasing dose of relevant drugs do not stop their anti-rejection transplant drugs hold any DMARDs for inflammatory conditions until infection resolved/resolving
64
describe bacteriostatic antibiotics
inhibits bacterial growth | assumed to require phagocytic cells to definitely clear bacteria
65
describe bactericidal antibiotics
kills bacteria preferred in serious infection and immunocompromsied e.g.; beta lactase, polymyxins, vancomycin, quinolone, rifampicin, chloramphenicol, aminoglycosides
66
what is the treatment of cellulitis caused by MSSA?
flucloxacillin IV 2g QDS penicillin allergic alternative; vancomycin or clindamycin check weight, renal function and drug interactions before prescribing
67
how is an anaphylaxis reaction diagnosed?
look for; acute onset of illness life-threatening breathing/airway/circulation problems usually skin changes
68
what is the management of an anaphylaxis reaction?
IM adrenaline; 500mcg IV (>12yrs) IVF challenge; 500-1000ml stop IV colloid; may be the cause of anaphylaxis
69
describe a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
allergy IgE mediated symptoms; urticaria, anaphylaxis
70
describe a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
IgG and FC receptor mediated | symptoms; blood cell dyscrasia
71
describe a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
IgG complement/FC receptor | symptoms; vasculitis
72
describe a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
T-cell mediated | symptoms; eczema, exanthema, DRESS, TEN
73
what is the difference between a severe and non-severe penicillin allergy?
severe; anaphylaxis, angioedema, urticarial rash, pruritus, wheezing/stridor usually within 1hr non-severe; maculopapular/morbilliform rash, serum sickness usually within 24hrs
74
what is the standard treatment of a patient with pneumonia with a CURB65 of 2?
no cultures back amoxicillin 1g 8hrly PO IV + clarithromycin 500mg 12hrly PO or doxycycline 100mg 12hrly PO
75
what is the best antibiotic treatment for a patient with legionella pneumophilia pneumonia?
levofloxacin | alternative; in torsade de pointes, doxycycline
76
what is the management of levofloxacin-induced tornadoes de pointes?
stop all drugs known to prolong the QT interval correct electrolyte abnormalities, especially hyperkalaemia magnesium sulphate 2g IV / 10mins adverse features; arrange immediate synchronised cardioversion pulseless; attempt defibrillation immediately stop levofloxacin; treatment with alternative (doxycycline)
77
which drugs prolong the QT interval?
antiarrhythmics antihistamines antipsychotics; haloperidol, chlorpromazine atypical antipsychotics; citalopram, zimelidine antibiotics; macrolides, fluoroquinolones, anti-malarials, pentamidine anti-emetics; ondansetron, domperidone
78
name the macrolide antibiotics
erythromycin clarithromycin azithromycin
79
name the fluoroquinolone antibiotics
ciprofloxacin levofloxacin moxifloxacin ofloxacin
80
what are the dangerous side effects of fluoroquinolone antibiotics (stop taking immediately)?
``` tendon pain or swelling join pain swelling of the arms, shoulders, legs abnormal pain or sensations; pins and needles etc. weakness; in legs, arms, difficulty walking severe tiredness depressed mood anxiety problems with memory sleeping problems changes in vision, smell, taste, hearing ```
81
describe fulminant c. diff infection
presence of hypotension, shock, ileus, toxic megacolon, colonic perforation
82
what is the management of fulminant c. diff infection?
discontinue concomitant antibiotics stop any PPI treatment if unnecessary surgical review indicated vancomycin 500mg PO NG QDS + metronidazole 500mg IV TDS 10-14 days presence of ileus/NBM; intra-colonic vancomycin 500mg in 100ml NaCl 0.9% QDS + IV metronidazole 500mg TDS 10-14 days
83
what antibiotics have c. diff as a common side effect?
``` clindamycin cephalosporins monobactams carbapenems fluoroquinolones penicillins tetracyclines ```
84
what is the clinical presentation of IM?
abrupt onset of severe sore throat with cervical lymphadenopathy or gradual onset of low-grade fever, malaise, arthralgia, myalgia acute, generalised maculopapular rash, non-itchy more intense and extensive cutaneous eruption appears in up to 90% 2-10 days after starting antibiotics
85
describe the immediate treatment of someone with a bacterial infection
thorough drug allergy history antibiotic treatment within 1hr of diagnosis of severe sepsis or life-threatening infection comply with local antibiotic prescribing guidance document clinical indicate, dose and route include review/stop date obtain cultures prior to commencing therapy if possible but do not delay treatment
86
describe the clinical review and decision at 48-72hrs of someone with a bacterial infection
check microbiology; stop, IV to oral switch, change antibiotic, continue, OPAT document all decisions