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Year 4 Overview/Random tests > Derm > Flashcards

Derm Flashcards

1
Q

How many Fitzpatrick skin types?

A

1-6

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2
Q

Pattern of sun exposure for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Chronic sun exposure

Precursors: Bowens/Actinic keratosis (Full/partial thickness keratotic dysplasia)

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3
Q

Pattern of sun exposure for basal cell carcinoma?

A

Intermittent damage ?

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4
Q

Treatment options for actinic keratosis?

A

Solase: topical diclofenac first line

Also, more potent: efudix (5-fluoracil) and imiquimod cream

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5
Q

Variant of SCC?

A

Keratoacanthoma - treat as such

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6
Q

What is a dermatofibroma?

A

Hard lump, typically history of trauma, typically insect bite

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7
Q

Types of bullae?

A

Unilocular or multilocular

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8
Q

Common cause of pustules?

A

Unilocular/multilocular

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9
Q

Keloid scar?

A

Grows outwith original scar area

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10
Q

Alopecia in kids?

A

Often an easily treated fungal hair infection

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11
Q

Severe bacterial infection secondary to fungal?

A

Often fungal infection from animals

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12
Q

Function of mast cells?

A

Histamine release

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13
Q

Function of fibroblasts?

A

Collagen production

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14
Q

Langerhans cell

A

Antigen presentation

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15
Q

Melanocyte

A

Protection from UV radiation

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16
Q

Keratinocyte

A

Vitamin D synthesis

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17
Q

Typical description of lichen planus?

A

Flat topped, violaceous papules
Symmetrical - flexor surfaces of wrists and ankles

Wickhams striae: fine white networks, also in buccal mucosa

Itchy

Scalp involvement: skin atrophy and scarring alopecia.

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18
Q

Is lichen Plans associated with atopy?

A

No

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19
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

Linear eruption of lesions form itching/scratching.

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20
Q

Treatment of lichen planus?

A

Topical steroids, PUVA, UVB and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation.

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21
Q

Layers of epidermis?

A 
Keratin
Granular
Prickle cell
Basal
Dermo-epidermal junction
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22
Q

What is necrobiosis lipoidica

A

Associated with diabetes mellitus

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23
Q

Recognised manifestations of endogenous dermatitis?

A

Nodular prurigo
Discoid eczema
Pompholyx

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24
Q

Mycosis fungoides?

A

Form of cutaneous T cell lymphoma

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25
Q

Where is adrenaline contra-indicated?

A

Fingers, toes and penis

Areas supplied by end arteries

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26
Q

Where is keloid scarring most common?

A

Shoulders, upper back and sternal area

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27
Q

Management of Basal Cell Papilloma

A

Cryotherapy

If unresponsive -> C+C

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28
Q

Management of autoimmune skin conditions? EG bullous disease

A

Immunofluoresence

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29
Q

Recurrent BCC or BCC in difficult anatomical sites?

A

Mohs Surgery

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30
Q

Management of Bowen’s on shin?

A

Diagnostic biopsy

31
Q

Widespread, flaccid blisters?
Shear off and leave painful erosions

Intra-epidermal blistering

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

32
Q

Pyogenic granuloma - what is it?

A

In response to trauma - typically on extremities.

Remove surgically to exclude amelanotic melanoma

33
Q

Where is Bowen’s disease commonly seen?

A

Legs of older ladies

34
Q

What kind of alopecia is alopecia areata?

A

Localised non-scarring with spontaneous regrowth of initially fine white downy hair by 9 months in majority of patients.

35
Q

How to diagnose alopecia areata?

A

Exclamation mark hairs: short broken hairs seen at edge of enlarging bald areas

36
Q

What is alopecia areata associated with?

A

Autoimmune thyroid disease, vitiligo and atopy.

37
Q

Suspect fungal infection with alopecia areata? Management

A

Treat with Wood’s lamp

38
Q

What might isotretinoin affect?

A

Liver function and lipid levels.

Does not affect glucose tolerance or thyroid function

39
Q

Side effects of isotretinoin?

A

Dry skin, eyes and lips. Dry fingers.

Nosebleeds, muscle aches and increased sensitivity to sunlight.

40
Q

Where is the bullous pemphigoid blistering?

A

sub-epidermal

41
Q

Treatment for bullous pemphigoid?

A

Systemic steroids/immunosuppression

42
Q

Natural history of bulls pemphigoid?

A

Spontaneously resolves in around 50% of patients

43
Q

Conditions where oncholysis might be present?

A

Psoriasis, thyrotoxicosis, infection, trauma, raynauds.

Hypo/hyperthyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda

44
Q

Nail changes in psoriasis?

A

Pitting, oncholysis and subungual hyperkeratosis (symmetrical)

45
Q

Common differential for oncholysis?

A

onychomycosis

46
Q

Cause of cold sores?

A

Herpes simplex

47
Q

Cold sores precipitants?

A

UV exposure (immunosuppressive), URTI, menstruation, stress etc

48
Q

Chronic urticaria - hallmark from history?

A

‘Moves around’

Individual lesions resolve within 24 hours

49
Q

Cut off for acute vs chronic urticaria?

A

6 weeks

50
Q

Normal PUVA administration?

A

Psoralen taken 2 hours before (orally) or applied immediately (topically)

Twice weekly treatments

Wear photo protective glasses for 2 hours after psoralen due to cataract risk

51
Q

Contraindications to PUVA?

A

Methotrexate/cyclosporin -> increased carcinogen risk

52
Q

Common side effect of psoralens?

A

Nausea

53
Q

Is compression bandaging safe if ABPI is more than 1.4

A

No

May indicate calcification.

54
Q

Do retinoids require LFTs etc done before treatment?

A

Yes

55
Q

Typical response time to systemic antibiotics in acne?

A

6-8 weeks

56
Q

Roacutane and scarring

A

Not great

57
Q

Mechanism of action re: dianette in acne?

A

Reduces sebum production via anti-androgen effects

58
Q

Commonest skin tumour

A

Basal cell carcinoma

59
Q

Variants of BCC?

A

Nodular, pigmented, morphealike and superficial

60
Q

‘stuck-on’ well defined border and warty?

A

Sebborheic wart

61
Q

Manifestations of endogenous dermatitis?

A

Nodular prurigo
Pompholyx
Discoid eczema

62
Q

What is mycosis fungoides?

A

Form of cutaneous T cell lymphoma

63
Q

Most common drug eruption?

A

exanthematous or morbiliform eruption

64
Q

Impetigo causative organism?

A

Staph aureus/beta-haemolytic strep

65
Q

Typical precipitant of guttate psoriasis?

A

Strep throat infection

66
Q

Differential of guttate psoriasis?

A

Pityriasis rosacea

67
Q

IMF of cutaneous discoid lupus erythematosus?

A

Immunofluorescene: presence of autoantibodies

68
Q

ABPI for full compression

A

0.8 or above

69
Q

Non-sedating antihistamines only useful for itch in which conditions?

A

Insect bite

Urticaria

70
Q

Herald patch?

A

Single patch preceding pityriasis rosea

71
Q

Allergy to thiuram?

A

Rubber accelerator products

72
Q

Most appropriate initial treatment of plaque psoriasis?

A

Vit D analogue

73
Q

Do atypical naevi have more malignant potential?

A

Yes and extends to normal skin

74
Q

Max isotretinoin dose with PUVA?

A

Around 20mg

Year 4 Overview/Random tests (11 decks)

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