Derivatives Flashcards
How does future contracts and forward contracts relate?
- futures contract is a standardized forward contract, a legal agreement to buy or sell something at a predetermined price at a specified time in the future, between parties not known to each other.
- Futures are traded on an exchange whereas forwards are traded over-the-counter.
(Advanced) When interest rates and futures prices for an asset are uncorrelated and forwards are less liquid than futures, it is most likely that the price of a forward contract is:
A) less than the price of a futures contract.
B) equal to the price of a futures contract.
C) greater than the price of a futures contract.
B
Because gains and losses on futures contracts are settled daily, prices of forwards and futures that have the same terms may be different if interest rates are correlated with futures prices. When interest rates and futures prices are uncorrelated the prices of forward and futures on the same asset will be equal. Liquidity is not an issue as no-arbitrage prices are based on riskless hedges that are held until settlement of the derivative security.
Fill in the blanks with either “futures” or “forwards”:
_____ are traded over-the-counter
_____ are traded on an exchange
_____ have lower counter risk (and why)
- forwards are traded over-the-counter.
- futures are traded on an exchange
- futures have lower counter risk (since it is traded on exchange and all futures positions are marked-to-market daily, with margins required to be posted and maintained by all participants at all times
What is the definition of margin (for future contracts)
Margins are financial guarantees required of both buyers and sellers of futures contracts to ensure that they fulfill their futures contract obligations.
Name the two types of margins and what is the difference between them
- Initial: Upon opening the futures position, an amount equal to the initial margin requirement will be deducted from the trader’s margin account and transferred to the exchange’s clearing firm.
- Maintenance: The maintenance margin is the minimum amount a futures trader is required to maintain in his margin account in order to hold a futures position. The maintenance margin level is usually slightly below the initial margin.
Futures are ___ (more/less) valuable than forwards when interest rates and futures prices are positively correlated
more valuable
If interest rates _____, the prices of futures and forwards are the same.
are constant or uncorrelated with futures prices
(Intermediate) An option’s intrinsic value is equal to the amount the option is:
A) out of the money, and the time value is the market value minus the intrinsic value.
B) in the money, and the time value is the intrinsic value minus the market value.
C) in the money, and the time value is the market value minus the intrinsic value.
C
Intrinsic value is the amount the option is in the money. In effect it is the value that would be realized if the option were at expiration. Prior to expiration, the option’s market value will normally exceed its intrinsic value. The difference between market value and intrinsic value is called time value.
(Intermediate) Which of the following will increase the value of a call option?
A) A dividend on the underlying asset.
B) An increase in the exercise price.
C) An increase in volatility.
C
Increased volatility of the underlying asset increases both put values and call values.
A or B - A higher exercise price or an increase in cash flows on the underlying asset decrease the value of a call option.
*increase in cashflow/dividend could be seen as benefit of holding an underlying assets
Increase in Price of underlying asset will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Increase; Decrease
Increase in exercise price will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Decrease; Increase
Increase in Riskfree rate will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Increase; Decrease
Increase in volatility of underlying asset will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Increase; Increase
Increase in Time to expiration will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Increase; Increase (except some
European puts)
Increase in Costs of holding underlying asset will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Increase; Decrease
think dividend and interest payments
Increase in Benefits of holding underlying asset will ____call option values and ____ put option values
Decrease; Increase
Name factors that will increase value of call options
5 and 2
increase in:
- Price of underlying asset
- Risk-free rate
- Volatility of underlying asset
- Time to expiration
- Costs of holding underlying asset
decrease in:
- Exercise price
- Benefits of holding underlying asset
(Intermediate) A fiduciary call is a portfolio that is made up of:
A) a call option and a share of stock.
B) a call that is synthetically created from other instruments.
C) a call option and a bond that pays the exercise price of the call at option expiration.
C
A fiduciary call combines a call option and a bond that pays the exercise price of the call at option expiration.
_____ and ______ have the same payoffs at expiration
fiduciary call and a protective put
A fiduciary call is ______
A fiduciary call is a call option and a risk-free zero-coupon bond that pays the strike price X at expiration
A ____ is a call option and a risk-free zero-coupon bond that pays the strike price X at expiration
fiduciary call
(Advanced) A one-period binomial model is useful for valuing options because it:
A) can account for contingent payoffs of options.
B) considers the additional risk inherent in options.
C) does not require an assumption about volatility.
A
Binomial models are used to value options because they can account for contingent payoffs (i.e., the exercise value after an up-move or down-move in the underlying asset price).
C - The size of an up-move in a binomial model represents an assumption about the volatility of the underlying asset price.
B - Binomial models can use risk-neutral pseudo-probabilities and thereby use the risk-free rate to discount the expected future payoff.
(Basic) A put option is in the money when:
A) the stock price is lower than the exercise price of the option.
B) there is no put option with a lower exercise price in the expiration series.
C) the stock price is higher than the exercise price of the option.
A
The put option is in-the-money if the stock price is below the exercise price.
(Advanced) A synthetic European put option includes a short position in:
A) the underlying asset.
B) a European call option.
C) a risk-free bond.
A
A synthetic European put option consists of a long position in a European call option, a long position in a risk-free bond that pays the exercise price on the expiration date, and a short position in the underlying asset.
A synthetic European put option consists of?
- a long position in a European call option,
- a long position in a risk-free bond that pays the exercise price on the expiration date,
- and a short position in the underlying asset.
(Intermediate) The underlying instrument in a forward rate agreement is:
A) a fixed-income security.
B) an asset.
C) an interest rate.
C
A forward rate agreement is a forward contract with an interest rate, such as 30-day LIBOR, as its underlying instrument.
(Intermediate) If the price of a forward contract is greater than the price of an identical futures contract, the most likely explanation is that:
A) the forward contract is more liquid.
B) the futures contract is more difficult to exit.
C) the futures contract requires daily settlement.
C
The reason there may be a difference in price between a forward contract and an identical futures contract is that a futures position has daily settlement and so makes or requires cash flows during its life.
(Basic) When calculating the payoff for a stock option, if the stock price is greater than the strike price at expiration:
A) a call option expires worthless.
B) the payoff to a put option is equal to the strike price.
C) the payoff to a call option is the difference between the stock price and the strike price
C
If the stock price is greater than the strike price at expiration, the payoff to a call option on the stock equals the stock price minus the strike price, while a put option on the stock expires worthless.
Think about the call-put parity: Fo(T) = So(1+Rf)^t
What should investor do when left is greater than right?
- forward
- underlying asset
- loan
Since left is greater, so you should want to get money at Fo in the future:
- Short the forward (so you can get the amount in the future),
- Borrow money at Rf and use the proceed to buy the asset.
~~ At time T, sell assets at Fo, pay back the proceed. Keep the difference
Think about the call-put parity: Fo(T) = So(1+Rf)^t
What should investor do when left is smaller than right?
- forward
- underlying asset
- loan
Since left is smaller, you should want to get the money at So (compounded at Rf) in the future
- Short the asset at So, and then invest the proceed at Rf.
- Long a forward contract for Fo
~~At time T, receive the invested proceed and extra return: So (1+Rf)^t, pay Fo to buy the asset in order to cover the forward contract
(Intermediate) An analyst is determining the value of a put option with a one-period binomial model. Using an up-move size of 25% and a risk-free rate of 3%, the analyst calculates the following:
Down-move size = 0.80 Up-move probability = 0.51 Down-move probability = 0.49 Value after up-move = $1.07 Value after down-move = $5.01 Probability-weighted average = 0.51($1.07) + 0.49($5.01) = $3.00
The analyst should determine that the value of the put option is:
A) less than $3.00.
B) equal to $3.00.
C) greater than $3.00.
A
The probability-weighted average is an estimate of the option’s expected value after one period. To determine the option’s value the analyst must discount this expected value by one period.
(Intermediate) Which of the following most accurately states an example of replication in derivatives pricing?
A) Risky asset + risk-free asset = (- derivative position).
B) Risky asset + derivative = risk-free asset.
C) Derivative position - risk-free asset = risky asset.
B
Replications of future payoffs, composed of a risky asset, a risk-free asset, and a derivative on the risky asset, are as follows:
- Risky asset + derivative = risk-free asset
- Risky asset - risk-free asset = (- derivative position)
- Derivative position - risk-free asset = (- risky asset).
(Advanced) A net benefit from holding the underlying asset of a forward contract will:
A) increase the value of the forward contract during its life.
B) decrease the value of the forward contract at expiration.
C) decrease the no-arbitrage forward price at initiation.
C
F0(T) = [S0 + PV0 (cost) - PV0 (benefit)] (1 + Rf )T
Compared to an underlying asset with no net holding cost or benefit, a net benefit from holding the underlying asset will decrease the no-arbitrage forward price at initiation and the value of a forward contract during its life. Holding costs and benefits have no effect on the value of a forward contract at expiration.
**benefit of holding – decrease the incentive to trade – decrease the value of forwards
(Intermediate) Using put-call parity, it can be shown that a synthetic European call can be created by a portfolio that is:
A) long the stock, long the put, and long a pure discount bond that pays the exercise price at option expiration.
B) long the stock, long the put, and short a pure discount bond that pays the exercise price at option expiration.
C) long the stock, short the put, and short a pure discount bond that pays the exercise price at option expiration.
B
A stock and a put combined with borrowing the present value of the exercise price will replicate the payoffs on a call at option expiration.
*parity formula is fiduciary call = protected put
call + bond = put + stock
call = put and stock - bond
so long put, long stock, short bond
What is a protected put?
Protected put is a share of stock and a put option on the stock
What is the formula for European call-put parity?
fiduciary call = protected put
call + bond = put + stock
(Basic) Greater volatility in the price of the underlying asset will have what effect on the value of a call option and the value of a put option?
Value of a call option Value of a put option A) Increase Decrease B) Increase Increase C) Decrease Increase
B
Greater volatility in the price of the underlying asset increases the values of both puts and calls because options are “one-sided.” Since an option’s value can fall no lower than zero (it expires out of the money), increased volatility increases an option’s upside potential but does not increase its downside exposure.