Dental Hygiene 2 Test Reviews

Question 1

The hydrodynamic theory refers to

a. too much water in the oral cavity
b. change of fluid flow in the dentinal tubules
c. change of fluid in the enamel rods
d. exposure of both dentin and cementum

Answer 1

b. change of fluid flow in the dentinal tubules

Question 2

Exposed cementum and dentin predisposes the patient to

a. periodontal pockets
b. gingival hyperplasia
c. hypersensitive teeth

Answer 2

c. hypersensitive teeth

Question 3

Hypersensitive dentin differs from normal dentin in the following

a. the number of dentinal tubules open are less
b. the dentinal tubule diameter is twice as great
c. dentinal tubules are not afftected

Answer 3

b. the dentinal tubule diameter is twice as great

Question 4

Dentin hypersensitivity can be defined as

a. constant sharp pain arising from exposed dentin
b. transient sharp pain arising from exposed enamel
c. transient sharp pain arising from exposed dentin
d. constant sharp pain arising from exposed enamel

Answer 4

c. transient sharp pain arising from exposed dentin

Question 5

Hypersensitivity can decrease over time, caused by natural methods or desensitization that include:

a. sclerosis
b. smear layer
c. calculus on the exposed dentin
d. all of the above

Answer 5

d. all of the above

Question 6

Which of the following teeth are most affected by hypersensitivity?

a. occlusal surface of 3rd molar
b. lingual surfaces of maxillary central incisors
c. facial surfaces of maxillary premolars

Answer 6

c. facial surfaces of maxillary premolars

Question 7

Why is it critical that the point of the ultrasonic tip never be adapted to the root surface?

a. it can gouge and permanently damage the root surface
b. it generates too much heat
c. it is not effective in deposit removal
d. it is uncomfortable for the operator

Answer 7

a. it can gouge and permanently damage the root surface

Question 8

Ultrasonic scaling is based on the principles of

a. rapid electrical impulses
b. a jet stream of water
c. pressure
d. high frequency mechanical vibrations

Answer 8

d. high frequency mechanical vibrations

Question 9

When using an ultrasonic scaler, the patient may experience sensitivity due to heat production. Which of the following can be done to lessen sensitivity?

a. lighten the pressure of the instrument against the tooth deposit
b. maintain constant motion of the instrument tip
c. make adjustment of the frequency applied
d. ensure that adequate water is supplied to the tip
e. all of the above

Answer 9

e. all of the above

Question 10

All of the following are correct techniques for use of an ultrasonic scaler EXCEPT:

a. apply light pressure against the tooth surface, and use the side of the tip
b. direct adaptation of the very end of the tip to the tooth surface
c. use a high-volume suction tip to remove water and to prevent inhalation of contaminated water by the patient

Answer 10

b. direct adaptation of the very end of the tip to the tooth surface

Question 11

The use of ultrasonic or sonic instruments are contraindicated for the following EXCEPT:

a. patient with a cardiac pacemaker
b. patient with a respiratory ailment
c. patient who is immunocompromised
d. patient having an overhanging restoration

Answer 11

d. patient having an overhanging restoration

Question 12

When using ultrasonic devices, the following should be done as part of the infection control protocol EXCEPT for:

a. the handpiece should be covered with a disposable barrier
b. flushing water lines 3-5 minutes before the first use of the day
c. placing ultrasonic tip inserts in cold sterilization for 2 hours
d. having patient rinse with an antimicrobial mouth rinse

Answer 12

c. placing ultrasonic tip inserts in cold sterilization for 2 hours

Question 13

While not essential for successful treatment, a standard pen grasp and a soft tissue fulcrum are recommended for use with ultrasonic instrumentation because they

a. improve penetration of fluid to the base of the pocket
b. foster a lighter working stroke
c. are gentler to the soft tissue

Answer 13

b. foster a lighter working stroke

Question 14

What is the main reason instrumentation with an ultrasonic takes less time than manual instrumentation?

a. less pressure is needed
b. fewer strokes are needed
c. strokes are performed more quickly
d. clinician tires less easily

Answer 14

c. strokes are performed more quickly

Question 15

Which of the following is the proper angulation in degrees to place the nozzle tip when air polishing the anterior teeth?

a. 90
b. 80
c. 60

Answer 15

c. 60

Question 16

All of the following methods minimize aerosol during air polishing EXCEPT for

a. rinse with a pre-procedural antimicrobial rinse prior to air polishing
b. hold the nozzle tip 2-3 mm from the tooth surface
c. use high volume evacuation

Answer 16

b. hold the nozzle tip 2-3 mm from the tooth surface

Question 17

Which of the following patients would be good candidates for air polishing?

a. asthmatic
b. high blood pressure patient
c. adult with heavy stain

Answer 17

c. adult with heavy stain

Question 18

Proper maintenance of an air polisher is important. It is essential to clean the nozzle after each use to prevent clogging.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

Answer 18

a. both statements are true

Question 19

All of the following are steps in preparing the patient for air polishing EXCEPT for:

a. place a non petroleum lubricant on the lips
b. place protection eyewear on the operator
c. instruct the patient to use a pre-procedural rinse
d. review patient’s medical and dental history

Answer 19

b. place protection eyewear on the operator

Question 20

The advantages of using ultrasonics are

a. reduction of force required
b. lower risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome
c. strokes are performed more quickly
d. all of the above

Answer 20

d. all of the above

Question 21

TRUE OR FALSE

One of the major safety concerns related to the use of ultrasonic instruments is the generation of pathogenic aerosols.

Answer 21

True

Question 22

TRUE OR FALSE

In ultrasonic scalers, water spray acts as a lavage to flush debris from the base of the pocket.

Answer 22

True

Question 23

TRUE OR FALSE

Cavitation is the formation and collapsing of bubbles in the water surrounding an ultrasonic tip.

Answer 23

True

Question 24

TRUE OR FALSE

Frequency is the speed of movement which is the number of cycles per second the tip moves.

Answer 24

True

Question 25

TRUE OR FALSE | The magnetostrictive unit has a tip motion of a linear pattern, forward and backward.

Answer 25

False

Question 26

TRUE OR FALSE | Ultrasonic scalers can not be used if the patient is pregnant.

Answer 26

False

Question 27

TRUE OR FALSE | The power control output on ultrasonic scalers control the tip amplitude.

Answer 27

False

Question 28

TRUE OR FALSE | Sodium bicarbonate powder in the air polisher can be used on all patients.

Answer 28

False

Question 29

TRUE OR FALSE | Air polishing can be damaging to composite restorations and porcelain crowns.

Answer 29

True

Question 30

TRUE OR FALSE | You can remove calculus with an air polisher.

Answer 30

False

Question 31

Before patients become concerned about oral health they must believe that: a. dental disease can have serious side effects b. dental care is too expensive c. dental decay is limited to children

Answer 31

a. dental disease can have serious side effects

Question 32

Patients who don't believe that they are personally SUSCEPTIBLE to dental disease are not likely to: a. acquire a dental disease b. adhere to a daily bacterial plaque control regimen c. develop psychomotor skills

Answer 32

b. adhere to a daily bacterial plaque control regimen

Question 33

According to the human behavior principle, once a patient has established a VALUE, it will not be dismissed easily. Therefore, (1) when a CONFLICT arises between existing values and a new behavior, (2) the new behavior will not be adopted until the value conflict is RESOLVED. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is false, the second statement is true d. the first statement is true, the second statement is false

Answer 33

a. both statements are true

Question 34

Disclosing agents can ENHANCE the teaching-learning process by: a. allowing evaluation of skill effectiveness after plaque control measure are carried out b. demonstrating a relationship between the presence of plaque and clinical signs of disease c. providing self-evaluation and immediate feedback for the patients at home d. all of the above

Answer 34

d. all of the above

Question 35

The use of VISUAL AIDS can enhance the teaching-learning process by the following: a. illustrated pamphlets reinforce oral home care instruction b. written instructions make home care more individualized c. demonstration on a model before intra-oral demonstration is helpful d. all of the above

Answer 35

d. all of the above

Question 36

The COGNITIVE domain of learning is concerned with the following: a. levels of motor skill development b. levels of moral development c. levels of comprehension development

Answer 36

c. levels of comprehension development

Question 37

In the principles of learning, from the lowest to highest stages of the LEARNING LADDER, which of the following is the correct order? a. awareness, unawareness, involvement, self-interest, action, habit b. unawareness, awareness, involvement, action, self-interest, habit c. unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action, habit

Answer 37

c. unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action, habit

Question 38

A clinician DEMONSTRATION of sulcular tooth-brushing on a dentoform to instruct a patient is an example of: a. active participation b. immediate feedback c. visual aids

Answer 38

c. visual aids

Question 39

To which level of MASLOW'S HIERARCHY would this statement apply? You really show that you care about yourself by spending time flossing your teeth before bed. a. security b. social c. ego

Answer 39

c. ego

Question 40

(1) HUMAN NEED THEORY explains that the need for FULFILLMENT dominates human activity, therefore, (2) human behavior is motivated by fulfillment of UNMET human needs. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is false, the second statement is true d. the first statement is true, the second statement is false

Answer 40

a. both statements are true

Question 41

Which of the following is the most REASONABLE expectation for a ONE-TIME group oral health education experience? a. act to improve personal oral health b. increase awareness of oral health issues c. reduce caries rates

Answer 41

b. increase awareness of oral health issues

Question 42

Which of the following statements are SOUND PRINCIPLES in teaching? a. recognize that behavior has unconscious as well as conscious motivation b. there's a direct cause and effect relationship in learning c. the intellectual, physical, emotional, and social aspects of the student must be considered d. all of the above

Answer 42

d. all of the above

Question 43

The EMPHASIS for oral health education is one of: a. preventing disease b. maintaining oral health c. treating emergencies

Answer 43

a. preventing disease

Question 44

Dental health PAMPHLETS are most effective when they are: a. sent through the mail to patients b. left in the reception room c. distributed to people in a large audience d. given to a patient in response to a question

Answer 44

d. given to a patient in response to a question

Question 45

To teach tooth-brushing to grade school children in the CLASSROOM it is best to: a. have each child use a disclosing agent b. demonstrate with oversized models of teeth and a brush c. have a child demonstrate the correct brushing procedure to the class

Answer 45

b. demonstrate with oversized models of teeth and a brush

Question 46

An objective should have the following EXCEPT for: a. content dimension b. behavioral dimension c. measurable performance d. attendance requirement

Answer 46

d. attendance requirement

Question 47

According to MASLOW'S NEEDS HIERARCHY, which of the following needs are associated with motivating a patient? a. self-actualization and fulfilling one's ambition b. need for freedom c. safety, love and self-esteem

Answer 47

c. safety, love and self-esteem

Question 48

Which of the following influences motivation on a SHORT-TERM basis? a. esthetics b. cost c. pain

Answer 48

c. pain

Question 49

Which of the following body gestures may indicate the patient has become DEFENSIVE? a. hands gripping the arms of the chair b. arms crossed over the hest c. hands linked behind the neck d. shoulders slumped forward

Answer 49

b. arms crossed over the hest

Question 50

According to the Learning Ladder Continuum, at what level is BEHAVIOR definitely modified? a. awareness b. self-interest c. involvement d. habit

Answer 50

d. habit

Question 51

Making sure that a patient has taken prophylactic ANTIBIOTICS prior to dental hygiene treatment is an example of having met the patient's need of: a. safety b. nutrition c. wholesome body image

Answer 51

a. safety

Question 52

INFORMED CONSENT has the following advantages: a. it serves as a legal document b. the patient is informed of the treatment plan c. the patient gives permission for the treatment plan to be carried out d. all of the above

Answer 52

d. all of the above

Question 53

During the IMPLEMENTATION of the dental hygiene care plan, the following are true EXCEPT for: a. the education plan is modified according to the progress demonstrated by the patient b. a logical sequence of instrumentation is followed c. if pre-medication is required, the number of appointments is irrelevant

Answer 53

c. if pre-medication is required, the number of appointments is irrelevant

Question 54

The DENTAL HYGIENE DIAGNOSIS allows the clinician to do the following: a. synthesize data b. evaluate clinical data via deductive reasoning c. develop decision making skills d. all of the above

Answer 54

d. all of the above

Question 55

A patient having SEVERE PERIODONTAL DISEASE will most likely have the following type of treatment: a. definitive b. preparatory c. transient

Answer 55

b. preparatory

Question 56

The DENTAL HYGIENE DIAGNOSIS must take into consideration the following: a. patient's perception of the problem b. patient's economic level c. patient's total health d. all of the above

Answer 56

d. all of the above

Question 57

PHASE I THERAPY of a dental treatment plan includes: a. caries control b. patient education c. debridement/ dental prophylaxis d. all of the above

Answer 57

d. all of the above

Question 58

When organizing the LESSON PLAN, which component provides the foundation for the presentation? a. objectives b. teaching strategies c. evaluation process

Answer 58

a. objectives

Question 59

Before rendering any type of DENTAL HYGIENE TREATMENT on a patient, the dental hygienist must: a. obtain a complete medical history b. explain the office policy of broken appointments c. obtain a complete set of radiographs

Answer 59

a. obtain a complete medical history

Question 60

The DENTAL HYGIENE DIAGNOSIS is a statement about: a. an actual dental hygiene problem b. an actual medical problem c. a potential dental factor

Answer 60

a. an actual dental hygiene problem

Question 61

The DENTAL HYGIENE PROGNOSIS is a statement about: a. the possible expected outcome b. the possible length of treatment c. the possible cost of treatment

Answer 61

a. the possible expected outcome

Question 62

THE COGNITIVE DOMAIN has a content dimension according to Bloom. Which of the following demonstrates a higher intellectual task? a. memorized knowledge b. analysis and synthesis of knowledge

Answer 62

b. analysis and synthesis of knowledge

Question 63

Which of the following is an example of the PSYCHOMOTOR DOMAIN? a. student knows all the state capitols b. student demonstrates proper brushing and flossing c. student regards oral health as a priority

Answer 63

b. student demonstrates proper brushing and flossing

Question 64

Which of the following is an example of the AFFECTIVE DOMAIN? a. patient knows the cause of gingivitis b. patient demonstrates the use of the water pik c. patient regards her oral health highly

Answer 64

c. patient regards her oral health highly

Question 65

TRUE OR FALSE | The dental hygiene intervention must specifically address the dental hygiene diagnosis.

Answer 65

True

Question 66

TRUE OR FALSE | The treatment plan can be signed after the removal of all the calculus.

Answer 66

False

Question 67

TRUE OR FALSE | Further inquiry of a condition is not essential in determining the dental hygiene diagnosis.

Answer 67

False

Question 68

TRUE OR FALSE | The expected outcome becomes an evaluative statement.

Answer 68

True

Question 69

TRUE OR FALSE All three aspects of the cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains, when applied, will lead to patient compliance and improvement in the plaque index score.

Answer 69

True

Question 70

TRUE OR FALSE | Patient assessment baseline information is very helpful in the maintenance phase.

Answer 70

True

Question 71

PERIODONTAL DEBRIDEMENT includes: a. scaling to remove calculus and all soft deposits b. root planing to eliminate subgingival calculus and smooth the tooth surface c. root debridement to eliminate subgingival biofilm and lightly mineralized deposits d. only A and B e. all of the above

Answer 71

e. all of the above

Question 72

Which of the following clinical data provides the most significant information regarding the LEVEL OF PERIODONTAL ATTACHMENT tissues/bone loss? a. clinical probing depth measurements and recession b. clinical probing depth measurements and abrasion c. clinical probing depth and the number of bleeding points present

Answer 72

a. clinical probing depth measurements and recession

Question 73

Which one of the following describes THE OBJECTIVE OF ROOT PLANING? a. removal of factors that promote gingival inflammation b. removal of calculus c. creating a clean, smooth, root surface d. all of the above

Answer 73

d. all of the above

Question 74

In root planing, as the SURFACE BECOMES SMOOTHER the strokes should be: a. longer with reduced pressure b. shorter with reduced pressure

Answer 74

a. longer with reduced pressure

Question 75

Which of the following instruments IS BEST SUITED for root planing? a. anterior scaler b. posterior scaler c. universal curette

Answer 75

c. universal curette

Question 76

Step(s) that must always PRECEDE SCALING and root planing are: a. a comprehensive periodontal examination b. calculus detection c. treatment plan is completed and signed d. all of the above

Answer 76

d. all of the above

Question 77

(1) When root planing, VERTICAL STROKES should be used first, followed by oblique strokes and horizontal strokes when applicable. (2) Light pressure is utilized for root planing strokes to maximize tactile sensitivity. a. first statement is true, second statement is false b. first statement is false, second statement is true c. both statements are true

Answer 77

c. both statements are true

Question 78

The stone used to sharpen the instruments in the DH clinic: a. Arkansas b. India stone c. Ceramic stone

Answer 78

a. Arkansas

Question 79

Instruments should be sharpened: a. at the first sign of dullness b. after every use c. before every use

Answer 79

a. at the first sign of dullness

Question 80

Along WHAT AREA OF THE BLADE of a universal curette or sickle scaler would a sharpening stone be moved during sharpening? a. junction of the facial and lateral surfaces b. junction of the back and lateral surfaces

Answer 80

a. junction of the facial and lateral surfaces

Question 81

The GOALS OF INSTRUMENT SHARPENING is to: a. preserve the original shape b. to restore and maintain knife-like cutting edge c. to increase working efficiency of the instrument d. all of the above

Answer 81

d. all of the above

Question 82

The instrument is held with the face of the blade parallel to the floor and the stone positioned on the lateral surface at the following angle: a. 70 to 80 degree angle b. 80 to 90 degree angle c. 100 to 110 degree angle

Answer 82

c. 100 to 110 degree angle

Question 83

Instrumentation requires a correct grasp and finger rest, and all of the following EXCEPT one: a. adaptation b. angulation c. indirect vision d. lateral pressure e. stroke

Answer 83

c. indirect vision

Question 84

Which of the following terms is used to describe the part of the instrument used to carry out the PURPOSE and function of the instrument? a. lateral surface b. back c. working end

Answer 84

c. working end

Question 85

GINGIVAL CURETTAGE (purposeful) is recommended for the following: a. shallow and suprabony pockets 4-5 mm b. necrotic pocket lining c. soft and spongy tissues d. all of the above

Answer 85

d. all of the above

Question 86

All of the following are objectives of nonsurgical periodontal debridement EXCEPT for: a. provide root surface free of endotoxins b. promote shrinkage of probing depths c. resolve bone defects d. reduce or eliminate the amount of bleeding upon probing

Answer 86

c. resolve bone defects

Question 87

(1) When scaling, the instrument is adapted for maximum usefulness of the working end or 2 to 3 mm of the toe third of a curette on a "flat" surface. (2) On a line angle or convex surface of a narrow root, less than 2 mm will be adaptable. a. first statement is true, second statement is false b. first statement is false, second statement is true c. both statements are true

Answer 87

c. both statements are true

Question 88

When performing gingival curettage (purposeful), the face of the curette blade should be at the following angle with the SOFT TISSUE POCKET WALL: a. 40 degrees b. 70 degrees c. 95 degrees

Answer 88

b. 70 degrees

Question 89

POST CARE for therapeutic periodontal scaling and root planing include the following EXCEPT: a. a warm hypertonic salt solution b. prescribed medication may be indicated c. spicy and hot foods

Answer 89

c. spicy and hot foods

Question 90

Of all the topical anesthetic, which type is the LEAST DESIRABLE? a. ointment b. gel c. spray

Answer 90

c. spray

Question 91

(1) Topical anesthetics are available in gels, spray, liquid, and transoral patches. (2) All forms of this type produce profound soft tissue anesthesia and minimal PULPAL ANESTHESIA. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true; the second is false d. the first statement is false; the second is true

Answer 91

c. the first statement is true; the second is false

Question 92

TOPICAL ANESTHETICS are used to: a. alleviate tissue discomfort b. relieve patient anxiety c. prevent gagging d. all of the above

Answer 92

d. all of the above

Question 93

The only AMIDE used alone as a topical: a. lidocaine b. tetracaine c. butacaine

Answer 93

a. lidocaine

Question 94

TWO WEEKS after treatment, the success of your root planing may be determined by: a. connective tissue reattachment b. no bleeding upon probing c. reduction in inflammation d. a change in the micro flora e. all of the above

Answer 94

e. all of the above

Question 95

Predisposing factors in NUG: a. stress b. tobacco use c. poor diet d. all of the above

Answer 95

d. all of the above

Question 96

(1) An increased incidence of NUG/NUP has been diagnosed in HIV patients. (2) In NECROTIZING STOMATITIS the necrosis may extend beyond the tooth-supporting tissues and cause bone destruction and sequestration. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true; the second is false d. the first statement is false; the second is true

Answer 96

a. both statements are true

Question 97

(1) In NUG, ulceration and necrosis begins in the col area with epithelial and connective tissue involved; the disease process progresses to involve the entire papilla and eventually the marginal gingiva on the facial and lingual surfaces. (2) The pseudomembrane covering the lesion is a necrotic slough of the surface epithelium; it contains leukocytes, bacteria, epithelial cells and fibrin. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true; the second is false d. the first statement is false; the second is true

Answer 97

a. both statements are true

Question 98

Dental hygiene interventions include the following EXCEPT: a. calculus removal b. polishing c. dental fees d. plaque index

Answer 98

c. dental fees

Question 99

The MAIN MICROORGANISM found in NUG/NUP lesions is: a. spirochetes b. lactobacillus

Answer 99

a. spirochetes

Question 100

(1) An abscess is called gingival when it is located in the marginal area, and (2) periodontal when it is in the deeper periodontal tissues. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true; the second is false d. the first statement is false; the second is true

Answer 100

a. both statements are true

Question 101

PREDISPOSING FACTORS in periodontal ABSCESS FORMATION include which of the following: a. deep suppuration pockets, advanced periodontal infection b. pocket extending into furcation areas or intrabony areas c. patient susceptible to infection such as uncontrolled diabetes, with an immunodeficiency disease, or being treated with an immune-suppressible drug d. A and C e. all of the above

Answer 101

e. all of the above

Question 102

Removes dental biofilm and the majority of calculus:

Answer 102

scaling

Question 103

Removes diseased sulcular epithelium, inflamed connective tissue:

Answer 103

gingival curettage

Question 104

Removes residual calculus and altered cementum

Answer 104

root planing

Question 105

TRUE OR FALSE | Scaling and root planing precedes gingival curettage.

Answer 105

True

Question 106

TRUE OR FALSE | Following gingival curettage, residual "tags" do not need to be removed.

Answer 106

False

Question 107

TRUE OR FALSE Number and length of appointments will be determined by the patient's tolerance level, scheduling requirements, severity and deficiency of the oral health.

Answer 107

True

Question 108

TRUE OR FALSE | Topical anesthetics are less concentrated than the anesthetics injected.

Answer 108

False

Question 109

TRUE OR FALSE | The Arkansas stone is a synthetic stone.

Answer 109

False

Question 110

TRUE OR FALSE | Sharpening stones cannot be autoclaved.

Answer 110

False

Question 111

TRUE OR FALSE | A sickle and curette have two blades to be sharpened at each end.

Answer 111

True

Question 112

TRUE OR FALSE | A sharp instrument minimizes the number of strokes.

Answer 112

True

Question 113

TRUE OR FALSE | During instrumentation, wrist and arm bear the weight during a stroke, rather than flexing the fingers in the grasp.

Answer 113

True

Question 114

TRUE OR FALSE | An anesthesia patch provides a deep level of anesthesia to the soft tissue.

Answer 114

True

Question 115

TRUE OR FALSE To remove heavy calculus requires a very secure fulcrum, lateral pressure, and short biting strokes to avoid undue damage.

Answer 115

True

Question 116

The steps for providing manual scaling: 1-2

Answer 116

1. Pick up the instrument using a light modified pen grasp. | 2. Select the correct cutting edge of the instrument.

Question 117

The steps for providing manual scaling: 3-4

Answer 117

3. Stabilize your hand in your patient's mouth using a finger rest (fulcrum). 4. Angle the instrument blade for insertion to the base of the periodontal pocket.

Question 118

The steps for providing manual scaling: 5-6

Answer 118

5. Apply light lateral pressure for instrument insertion and confirmation of soft tissue attachment. 6. Adapt the toe of the cutting edge on the instrument against the tooth surface.

Question 119

The steps for providing manual scaling: 7-8

Answer 119

7. Apply sufficient (moderate to heavy) lateral pressure for calculus removal. 8. Activate the instrument, maintaining the angulation and adaptation of the cutting edge evenly during the stroke.

Question 120

The steps for providing manual scaling: 9-10

Answer 120

9. Repeat overlapping, channeled strokes to remove calculus. 10. Use smooth, overlapping, light pressured finishing strokes that provide tactile sensitivity to minute irregularities of the tooth surface.

Question 121

The steps for providing manual scaling: 1-10

Answer 121

1. Pick up the instrument using a light modified pen grasp. 2. Select the correct cutting edge of the instrument. 3. Stabilize your hand in your patient's mouth using a finger rest (fulcrum). 4. Angle the instrument blade for insertion to the base of the periodontal pocket. 5. Apply light lateral pressure for instrument insertion and confirmation of soft tissue attachment. 6. Adapt the toe of the cutting edge on the instrument against the tooth surface. 7. Apply sufficient (moderate to heavy) lateral pressure for calculus removal. 8. Activate the instrument, maintaining the angulation and adaptation of the cutting edge evenly during the stroke. 9. Repeat overlapping, channeled strokes to remove calculus. 10. Use smooth, overlapping, light pressured finishing strokes that provide tactile sensitivity to minute irregularities of the tooth surface.

Question 122

Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of: a. diabetes b. hypertension c. angina pectoris d. allergic reaction

Answer 122

c. angina pectoris

Question 123

If a patient has recently suffered a myocardial infarction, elective dental and dental hygiene appointments should be postponed for at least: a. more than one year b. six months c. one month d. six weeks

Answer 123

b. six months

Question 124

A patient experiencing tachycardia has a pulse rate: a. less than 100 bpm b. greater than 100 bpm c. less than 60 bpm

Answer 124

b. greater than 100 bpm

Question 125

The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart contracts is known as: a. diastolic pressure b. systolic pressure c. pulse pressure

Answer 125

b. systolic pressure

Question 126

Your patient has an increase in pulse and blood pressure, appears cold and clammy, and has chest pains radiating to the left arm and neck. This attack lasts approximately 3 to 4 minutes. Which of the following conditions are related to these symptoms? a. cardiac arrest b. angina pectoris c congestive heart failure

Answer 126

b. angina pectoris

Question 127

If a patient reports pale cool skin, cold sweats, feeling dizzy, and seeing spots before their eyes, he/she may be experiencing the following: a. presyncope b. syncope c. postsyncope

Answer 127

a. presyncope

Question 128

Sudden unilateral weakness, confusion, impaired speech, and unequal pupils are all symptoms of: a. an allergic reaction b. a drug overdose c. a cerebrovascular accident

Answer 128

c. a cerebrovascular accident

Question 129

If a patient came in for dental hygiene care, the dental hygienist would probably treat him that day unless he/she were to present with which of the following vital signs: a. a respiration rate of 15 breaths/ min b. a temperature of 99 degrees F c. a blood pressure of 140/110 d. a pulse rate of 70 bpm

Answer 129

c. a blood pressure of 140/110

Question 130

Once cardiac arrest occurs, the brain cells generally begin to die within a. 4 minutes b. 8 minutes c. 10 minutes

Answer 130

a. 4 minutes

Question 131

Myocardial infarction results from: a. heart valve damage b. occlusion of coronary arteries c. infective endocarditis

Answer 131

b. occlusion of coronary arteries

Question 132

The patient should be placed in a Trendelenburg position in the following situations EXCEPT: a. acute asthma attack b. syncope c. patient suffering from cardiac arrest

Answer 132

a. acute asthma attack

Question 133

Which of the following is indicated for the patient who is experiencing an asthma attack? a. aspirin b. bronchodilator c. glucagon

Answer 133

b. bronchodilator

Question 134

Oxygen must NOT be administered in the following situation: a. anxiety induced states b. acute hyperventilation syndrome c. pulmonary disorders

Answer 134

b. acute hyperventilation syndrome

Question 135

Which of the following is the most common medical emergency situation that occurs in the dental office? a. heart attack b. seizure c. syncope

Answer 135

c. syncope

Question 136

Students can prevent medical emergencies by doing the following EXCEPT: a. patients vital signs are checked b. medical history is reviewed/updated c. dental exam is performed d. drug allergies are noted in RED

Answer 136

c. dental exam is performed

Question 137

Pallor, cold sweat, personality change, trembling, and disorientation are all symptoms of: a. hypertension b. adrenal crisis c. insulin shock

Answer 137

c. insulin shock

Question 138

During an emergency, which artery is used to check the pulse for an adult? a. femoral b. brachial c. carotid d. radial

Answer 138

c. carotid

Question 139

The most important step in treating an anaphylactic reaction consists of administering: a. oxygen b. epinephrine c. corticosteroids

Answer 139

b. epinephrine

Question 140

A possible side effect of Dilantin that affects dental health is: a. gingival hyperplasia b. dry mouth c. an increased chance of syncope d. a decreased prothrombin time

Answer 140

a. gingival hyperplasia

Question 141

Which of the following symptoms may help to differentiate between angina pectoris and myocardial infarction? a. respiratory distress b. excessive perspiration and apprehension c. duration of chest pain after the administration of a vasodilator

Answer 141

c. duration of chest pain after the administration of a vasodilator

Question 142

Which of the following observations is NOT indicative of hypoglycemia? a. dry flushed skin b. confusion c. trembling d. hunger

Answer 142

a. dry flushed skin

Question 143

Dyspnea refers to: a. the inability to breathe, except in an upright position b. increased rate of breathing c. difficulty in breathing d. no respiratory movement

Answer 143

c. difficulty in breathing

Question 144

Destruction of the alveolar wall and loss of elastic recoil of the lungs are a result of which of the following disease processes? a. emphysema b. asthma c. acute pulmonary edema d. airway obstruction

Answer 144

a. emphysema

Question 145

In acute adrenal insufficiency, which of the following hormones is suddenly lacking? a. adrenocortical b. epinephrine c. insulin

Answer 145

a. adrenocortical

Question 146

Blockage; stage of being closed:

Answer 146

occlusion

Question 147

Irregularity of heartbeat caused by a turbulent flow of blood through a valve that has failed to close:

Answer 147

murmur

Question 148

Deficiency of blood to supply oxygen in part resulting from functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel:

Answer 148

ischemia

Question 149

Localized area of ischemic necrosis produced by occlusion of the arterial supply or venous drainage of the part:

Answer 149

infarct

Question 150

A condition in which there is a deficiency of oxygen in the blood and an increase in carbon dioxide:

Answer 150

asphyxia

Question 151

Temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden fall in blood pressure, fainting:

Answer 151

syncope