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IPAP 21-2 Soph Semester > Dental Block 1 > Flashcards

Dental Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the health care worker risk when dealing with recurrent herpes

A

it is possible to develop lesions on the fingers
(Herpangina or Herpetic Whitlow)
if the health care provider isn’t careful with gloving and hand washing

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2
Q

Why would you refer someone for restoration

A

Caries on bitewing x-rays?
Any clinically visible decay?
Any old or fractured restorations that need to be replaced

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3
Q

What is a lefort I fx

A

Transverse maxillary fx

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4
Q

What do the minerals contained in the pellicle do

A

buffer the pH and provide components for

remineralization of enamel

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5
Q

What are the components of the oral cavity proper

A

hard and soft palates, teeth, cheeks, anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and floor of the mouth.

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6
Q

When adding fluoride, what becomes the critical pH in Stephan curve

A

4.5

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7
Q

What are the S/s of condyloma acuminatum

A

Painless; multiple, slightly papillary nodules attached with a broad
base; often in clusters

• occurs most often on lips, tongue, and soft palate; anogenital lesions
may also be present

• Etiology: an STI caused by infection with human papillomavirus
(HPV-6, HPV-11, HPV-16, and HPV-18)

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8
Q

What causes inflammation of the PDL

A

• Includes: excessive wear; mobility; widened PDL

• Etiology:
Non-bacterial: poor restoration; ill-fitting appliance, occlusal trauma

Bacterial: near apex of root due to inflammation in pulp tissue

• Reversible

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9
Q

Describe lining mucosa

A

60% of total mucosa.

Covers the floor of the mouth, ventral (underside) tongue, alveolar mucosa, cheeks, lips and tissues covering soft palate.

Does not function in mastication and therefore has minimal attrition.

Non-keratinized; soft and pliable.

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10
Q

What are appropriate storage methods for teeth

A
  • Saliva (vestibule; under the tongue) • Lowfat milk
  • Coconut water
  • Pedialyte
  • NO to water or Gatorade
  • NEVER wrap in tissue
  • NEVER leave in open air
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11
Q

What is the Tx for primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A
  • Supportive care
  • Soft diet & adequate liquids
  • Resolves in 5-7 days; acute cases 2 weeks
  • Acetaminophen for discomfort, for severe orofacial infections

Acyclovir may be used

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12
Q

What is a class 3 dental status

A

The treatment needs indicate that a dental emergency will likely occur within 12 months

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13
Q

What is the sensory supply to the base of the tongue

A

CNX

General and taste

(Internal laryngeal nerve

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14
Q

What are the S/s of periodontal disease

A
  • Mobile teeth
  • Mouth sores & purulence
  • Radiographic evidence of bone loss
  • Halitosis
  • Blunted interproximal papillae
  • Destruction of attachment apparatus
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15
Q

Low ph in the mouth leads to

A

Demineralization

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16
Q

What is the dosing for augmentin

A

RX: Clavulanic Acid, 125mg, by mouth, every 8 hours for 5-7 days

Plus

RX: Amoxicillin, Loading dose: 1000mg
Maintenance dose: 500mg, by mouth, every 8 hours for 7 days

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17
Q

Are there papillae on the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

no papillae but shows nodular surface because of underlying lymphatic nodules (lingual tonsils)

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18
Q

What is candidiasis

A

curdy, whitish layer that leaves a red inflamed base when wiped off

• Etiology: Candida albicans; opportunistic fungal infection

• Symptoms: burning, dysgeusia, sensitivity, generalized discomfort;
co-infection with staph may be present

Can be acute or chronic (denture/appliance)

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19
Q

How long can intermediate restorative material remain in place

A

For up to one year

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20
Q

What is the ratio of powder to liquid for Intermediate restorative material

A

1:1

Correct mix can be rolled in your gloved fingers without leaving a
residue

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21
Q

Is the damage in Periodontal disease permanent

A

Can be managed – but damage is permanent

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22
Q

What is post extraction inflammation of an exposed, sensitive alveolar process

A

Alveolar osteitis

Dry socket

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23
Q

What three bacteria make up the red bacterial complex for periodontal disease

A
  • Tannerella forsythia
  • Treponema denticola
  • Porphyromonas gingivalis
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24
Q

What is the critical pH in the mouth for tooth decay

Stephan curve

A

Below 5.5

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25
Q

What is the purpose of I&D

A
  • Removes pus, necrotic debris, and bacteria
  • Useful for abscess or cellulitis
  • Reduces tissue tension
  • Improves local blood supply
  • Improves delivery of host defenses and antibiotics
  • Decreases pain
  • Changes oxygen tension and microenvironment
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26
Q

What is the tx for candidiasis

A

Nystatin suspension; ointment or Clotrimazole troches. Also Ketoconazole or Fluconazole tablets

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27
Q

What are the three major salivary glands in the mouth

A

Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual

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28
Q

What are the 4 types of teeth

A

Incisor
Canine
Premolar
Molar

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29
Q

What are maxiallary vestibular and palatal abcesses primarily the result of

A

potential result of any infected maxillary tooth

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30
Q

Periodontal disease is always preceded by

A

Gingivitis

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31
Q

What are the features of masticatory mucosa

A

Keratinized and Parakeratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium (KSS/PKSS)
Variable Lamina Propria

Reteridges(pegs)

Located on the gums

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32
Q

What is the undesurface of the hard palate covered in

A

Mucoperiosteum

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33
Q

What is the keystone pathogen in periodontal disease

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis:
• Non-motile, gram-negative, anaerobic rod

• Releases enzymes, collagenases and other substances which initiate the
inflammatory process

• Subverts host immune system

Chiefly responsible for bone loss

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34
Q

What is a class 1 dental classification

A

No dental needs

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35
Q

What is the oral vestibule

A

The vestibule is the space between the teeth and the inner mucosal lining of the lips and cheeks.

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36
Q

What is Fordyce granules

A

benign developmental variation of ectopic sebaceous glands found in normal buccal mucosa or commissures of lip

painless; rice-like, white or yellow-white, asymptomatic papules of 1-2 m

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37
Q

What is the most common type of gingivitis

A

Plaque associated gingivitis

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38
Q

What is the first layer that forms on the tooth

A

Dentin

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39
Q

How does a sinus tract present

A
  • Typically non-painful
  • Pimple-like bump on the oral mucosa
  • Sinus tract may have drainage associated with it

• Tooth has no response to cold tests

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40
Q

Where do most various lesions occur

A

On the Inter proximal surface of primary teeth

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41
Q

What are the 4 tooth surfaces

A

Facial
Buccal
Lingual
Palatal

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42
Q

What is the lymph drainage for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Submandibular unilaterally & then deep cervical nodes

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43
Q

When does the AAPD (American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry) recommend establishing a dental home routine

A

Within 6 months of eruption of the first tooth and nlt 12 months of age

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44
Q

Why would you refer someone to a periodontist

A 
Pocket depths 1-3mm?
 Knife-edged papillae? 
Scalloped, uniform color? 
Stippled? 
Firmly attached to bone?
 Healthy bone around all teeth on x-rays?
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45
Q

What are the 3 requirements for the formation of dental caries

A
  1. Cariogenic bacteria
    (Streptococci mutans and Lactobacillus)
  2. Sugar
  3. Available tooth surfaces
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46
Q

What is the RX for clindamycin

A
  • Loading dose: 600mg

* Maintenance dose: 300mg, by mouth, every 6 hours for 7 days

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47
Q

What is benign migratory glossitis

Geographic tongue

A

Diffuse multifocal red lesions with white rims or edges that migrate

  • Eroded areas due to loss of filiform papillae
  • Typically asymptomatic; sometimes mild burning sensation
  • Dorsal or lateral surfaces of tongue
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48
Q

What nerve supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal nerve,

The tongue is attached near CN 9

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49
Q

What is the only non shedding surface in the human body

A

Enamel

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50
Q

What is pericoronitis

A

– acute inflammation in the tissues surrounding the crown of a partially erupted tooth
• •
Etiology – trapped food/bacteria beneath gingival flap

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51
Q

What is clindamycin

A 
• Use when patient is allergic to Penicillin
• Bacteriostatic 
(suppresses protein synthesis)
• Anaerobic bacteria
• Penetrates bone

• Side effect: must instruct patient to stop use with first sign of diarrhea
(eight-fold increased risk of developing Clostridium difficile infection, compared to Penicillin, that can evolve into pseudomembranous colitis)

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52
Q

What is black hairy tongue

A

Diffuse white, yellow, brown or black pigmentation of tongue

• Elongation of filiform papillae; retention of papillae which grown longer
and don’t shed like normal

• Asymptomatic

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53
Q

Where does recurrent herpes manifest

A

attached gingiva and hard palate (keritinized tissue); external portions of the lip

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54
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the parotid gland

A

CN 9

Glossopharyngeal

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55
Q

What does saliva buffer the pH in the mouth to

A

PH 6-8

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56
Q

What are the three basic food processing functions of the teeth

A

Cutting
Holding/ Grasping
Grinding

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57
Q

What extrinsic muslce of the tongue does tongue elevation

A

Styloglossus and Palatoglossus

Publix gives really smart deals, HEB gives (EVEN SMARTER PRICES)

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58
Q

Dentin has odontoblasitc processes that do what

A

responsible for growth and repair of dentin.

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59
Q

What is the last tissue of the tooth to form

A

Cementum

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60
Q

What does the term occlusion mean

A

is the relationship of the mandibular and maxillary teeth when closed or during excursive movements of the mandible; when the teeth of the mandibular arch come into contact with the teeth of the maxillary arch in any functional relationship

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61
Q

Where does the cementum receive nutrients from

A

The periodontal ligament (PDL)

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62
Q

What extrinsic tongue muscle does tongue depression

A

Hyolgossus and genioglossus

Publix gives really smart (Deals HEB GIVES) even smarter prices

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63
Q

What are the two prominent structures of the external mouth

A 
Vermillion border (Edge of lip) 
And Commissures (Corners)
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64
Q

What are the 4 phases of plaque formation

A
  1. Pellicle formation
  2. Bacterial Attachment
  3. Young supragingival plaque forms
    (Mainly gram positive cocci and rods)
  4. Aged supragingivial plaque develops
    (increase in the percentage of gram-negative anaerobic bacteria.)
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65
Q

What are the S/s of mucosal allergy

A

localized discomfort; circumscribed erythematous patches at the site of contact with the allergen

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66
Q

What is leukoplakia

A

white patch or plaque that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease

  • The white patch does not rub off
  • It is due to a thickened surface keratin layer

Is considered a precancerous sign

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67
Q

What are the S/s of a traumatic ulcer

A

rolled white border of hyperkeratosis at area of trauma

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68
Q

What are the S/s of gingivitis

A
  • Edema
  • Erythema
  • Heat
  • Pain
  • Bleeding on probing
  • Purulence
  • Receding gingival margin
  • Loss of stippling appearance
  • Shiny
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69
Q

What are the three parts of the tongue

A

Oral (anterior 2/3)

Pharyngeal (posterior 1/3)

Base (throat and epiglottis)

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70
Q

What is support care for infection management

A
  • Monitor/manage airway
  • Analgesics
  • Hydration
  • Nutrition
  • Rest
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71
Q

Describe the submandibular salivary glands

A
  • Two lobes: superficial and deep
  • Mixed secretions: 10% mucous and 90% serous through the Submandibular duct
  • 60% of saliva produced
  • Salivary amylase
  • Gland that gleeks
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72
Q

What is pathological about subgingival plaque

A
  • Tissue inflammatory factors

* Highly pathogenic factors

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73
Q

What is a Class II malocclusion

A

Mesiobuccal cusp of Maxillary 1st Molar is anterior to the buccal groove of the Mandibular 1st Molar

Over bite
Retrognathic

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74
Q

What are the Principles of severe infection management

A

removing the cause,

establishing drainage, and aggressive antibiotic therapy

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75
Q

What is intermediate restorative material made of..

A
  • Zinc oxide (powder) and eugenol (liquid)
  • Base or temporary cement
  • Mechanical retention is needed to keep temporary restoration in place
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76
Q

What is the progression of Cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

Canine space infection- infra orbital space- to angular vein- CAVERNOUS SINUS THROMBOSIS

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77
Q

Why would you refer someone to a endodontist

A

Any sensitive or throbbing teeth? Any irreversible caries?
Any non-vital teeth with sinus tract present?
Any teeth need root canals

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78
Q

All 4 muscles of mastication are innervated by which CN

A

CN V3

Mandibular branch of CNV

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79
Q

IN the mouth what does the term distal refer to

A

Away from the midline of the dental arch

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80
Q

What do the sublingual glands produce

A
  • Mostly mucous
  • 8-20 ducts of Rivinus

• 5% of saliva produced

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81
Q

What does dental public health encompass/ do

A

preventing and controlling dental diseases and promoting dental health through organized community efforts.

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82
Q

What is the plaque development timeline

A

• Few minutes: acquired pellicle formation and bacterial adhesion

• 2 hours: initial plaque formation takes place with irreversible colonization of
aerobic gram positive bacteria

  • 6 hours: supragingival plaque is well established
  • 2 days: plaque doubles in mass

• 5-7 days: plaque maturation is dominated by and gram negative and
filamentous bacteria

• 21 days: bacterial re plication slows so that plaque accumulation becomes
relatively stable

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83
Q

What is the most common mid facial fx

A

Zygomatic complex fx

Depressed cheek bone (dimple)

  • Bleeding into cornea of fractured side eye – eye will be bright red
  • Restricted movement
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84
Q

What is augmentin

A

•Amoxicillin and Clavulanic Acid combination (Augmentin)
• Use when symptoms don’t improve with Amoxicillin alone
• This combo increases spectrum of amoxicillin in persistent infections
• Expensive
• Cautions: Potential for GI and hepatic toxicity due to severe anaphylactic
allergic reactions

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85
Q

What are the s/s of a periapical abscess

A 
• Intense pain to palpation 
(as pus accumulates within the alveolus) 
• Extreme sensitivity to percussion
• Localized edema
• Tooth has no response to cold tests
• Fever & chills 
(if systemic infection present
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86
Q

Name that disease

Inflamed soft and hard tissues

  • Etiology: anaerobic bacteria
  • Includes: alveolar bone, gingiva, and periodontal ligament (PDL)
A

Periodontitis

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87
Q

What are the S/s of alveolar osteitis

A 
3-4 days post-extraction
• Exposed, unprotected bone
• Usually a mandibular third molar 
• Severe pain
• Foul odor
• Swelling & lymphadenopathy
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88
Q

What is a Periapical abscess

A

acute inflammation at the apex of a non-vital tooth

Etiology – bacteria (due to gross decay, dental trauma, large filling)

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89
Q

How can you reduce your risk of caries

A

• Teeth are brushed after eating to remove plaque and sticky foods

• Fresh fruit, vegetables, and whole grain snacks are chosen instead of
candy or juice

  • Flossing is part of the daily oral hygiene regiment
  • Parents maintain good personal oral health
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90
Q

What are the phases of tooth eruption

A 
Pre-eruptive
Eruptive
-root formation 
-penetration 
-movement
-occlusal contact

Post- eruptive

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91
Q

What are the characteristics of the intrinsic tongue muscles

A

Confined to tongue

No bony attachment

Consists of:
• Longitudinal fibers
• Transverse fibers
• Vertical fibers

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92
Q

Which teeth have a facial surface

A

Incisors and Canines

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93
Q

What is oral and Mario facial pathology

A

management of diseases affecting the oral and maxillofacial regions

oral pathology includes research and diagnosis of diseases using clinical, radiographic, microscopic, biochemical, or other examinations.

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94
Q

What is the difference between petechiae
Purpura
Eccymosis

A
  • Petechiae: 1-2 mm
  • Purpura: 2 mm -2 cm
  • Ecchymosis: > 2 cm
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95
Q

What are the early warning signs of gingivitis

A
  • Clinical signs of gingivitis
  • Probing apical to the CEJ
  • Radiographic evidence of bone loss
  • Tooth mobility
  • Pathologic migration of teeth
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96
Q

What is the artery that supplies blood to the tongue

A

dorsal lingual artery

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97
Q

When does the enamel being to form

A

6-8 weeks in utero

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98
Q

What is the treatment for a periapical abscess

A

I&d

Refer to dentist for possible root canal

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99
Q

What is a sinus tract

A

a pathway from an enclosed area of infection to an epithelial surface

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100
Q

What dental appliance increases the risk of gingivitis

A

Braces

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101
Q

Describe a orbital rim fx

A

significant force required due to thickness of bone;
palpable step defect along inferior orbital rim;
potential damage to Optic Nerve

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102
Q

Describe the pulp of the tooth

A

Pulp: composed of fibroblasts, odontoblasts; vascular, nervous, lymphatic components.

Contains Type I and II collagen

  • Unmineralized
  • Exits at the apex, but may have accessory canal
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103
Q

What are the S/s of primary hermetic gingivostomatitis

A

Usually seen in younger children

  • Vesicles initially and progresses to ulcers with red halos
  • Spreads during asymptomatic viral shedding in the saliva
  • May have fever, malaise, and lymphadeopathy
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104
Q

What are the top three medication that cause Medication induced gingivitis

A
  • Cyclosporine: immunosuppressant • Phenytoin: anticonvulsant
  • Nifedipine: calcium-channel blocker
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105
Q

The parotid gland sits “on top” of what muscle

A

The Masseter

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106
Q

What is amoxicillin

A
  • Antibiotic of choice for odontogenic infection
  • Broad spectrum
  • Bactericidal against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • More readily absorbed from gastrointestinal tract than Pen VK

• Only 20% of absorbed amoxicillin is protein-bound in plasma, making it
more readily available

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107
Q

Why would you refer someone to oral surgery

A

Any extractions indicated? Impacted teeth present?

Bone fractures?

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108
Q

What is the largest muscle of mastication

A

The Temporalis

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109
Q

What does the parotid gland produce

A
  • Serous saliva
  • Produces ptyalin through the Parotid duct

• 30% of saliva production

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110
Q

What does supragingival plaque metabolize

A

Sacchorolytic: metabolize carbohydrates

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111
Q

What are the 4 muscles of mastication

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid

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112
Q

When suturing facial lacerations that involve the mouth, where should you begin your suture

A

Begin closure at the mucocutaneous junction (vermillion border)

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113
Q

How many teeth are in primary dentition

A

20

Called baby teeth, or milk teeth

Sometimes deciduous teeth

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114
Q

Why would you refer someone to a prosthodontist

A

Need teeth replaced?

Crowns, veneers, bridges, dentures, implants?

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115
Q

What causes NUG (Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis)

A

Physiologic stress & smoking

(WWI battlefield trenches)

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116
Q

After the initial infection, where does primary herpetic gingiviostomatisis reside

A

dormant in the CN5 sensory nerve ganglia of the oral and perioral regions

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117
Q

What is supragingival plaque made up of

A
  • Mostly facultative anaerobes, gram-positive bacteria

* Streptococci and Actinomyces

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118
Q

Why would you refer someon to oral pathology

A 
Any pigmented soft tissue lesions? Lips? 
Buccal mucosa or palate?
 Boney defects on x-ray?
 Salivary glands blocked? 
Changing moles?
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119
Q

What are the S/s of primary syphillis

A
  • Painless
  • Lesion with central depression (chancre) at site of inoculation

• Typically located on the face, tongue, lip, scalp, genitalia and rectal areas

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120
Q

Describe masciatory mucosa

A

25% of total mucosa.

Gingiva (free, attached and interdental) and tissues covering hard palate.

This is the primary mucosa to be in contact with food during mastication.

Masticatory mucosa is usually keratinized.

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121
Q

What causes glossitis

A

congenital malformations, vascular abnormalities, muscular

hypertrophy

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122
Q

What is a class 4 dental status

A

Dental status unknown (examination required annually)

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123
Q

Describe the pellicle

A

the acellular layer of salivary proteins, mucins and other macromolecules on oral surfaces;
-approximately 10 micrometers thick

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124
Q

What bacteria causes syphillis

A

Treponema pallidum

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125
Q

What is the most common place for the mandible to be fx

A

The condyles

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126
Q

What is gingivitis

A

Inflammation limited to the soft tissues which surround the teeth

  • Also called “early gum disease”
  • A precursor of advanced gum disease (periodontal disease)
  • Inflammation extended into the alveolar process, PDL, and/or cementum
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127
Q

Name that disease:

Inflamed soft tissues in the mouth

  • Etiology: bacteria; poor oral hygiene; injury; immunocompromised
  • Reversible
A

Gingivitis

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128
Q

Who would you refer a pt with periodontal disease to

A

Periodontist

Registered dental hygienist

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129
Q

What is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle

A

Protrusion, retrustion, depression, of the mandible

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130
Q

The caries process is reversible all the way up until…

A

Dentin becomes involved

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131
Q

What does the term eruption refer to

A

is the movement of the tooth from its developmental position to the occlusal plane

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132
Q

When should a oral health evaluation for an infant occur

A

Before the 1st bday

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133
Q

What is mixed dentition

A

occurs when both primary and permanent teeth are present, usually between the ages of 6 to 12 years.

134
Q

What are the S/s of secondary syphillis

A

Painless

• Grayish-white plaques covering ulcerated mucosa (mucous patches)
which appear about 4-10 weeks after the primary chancre appeared

• Mucous patches have many forms and may erupt on the skin and/or
mucous membranes

• Rash on palms of hands, feet, body

• Painless lymphadenopathy, sore throat, malaise, headache, weight
loss, fever, and muscloskeletal pain

• Highly infectious

135
Q

When would antibiotics not be indicated

A
  • Chronic, well-localized abscess or dental sinus tract (fistula)
  • Alveolar osteitis (dry socket) without systemic problems
  • Pericoronitis without systemic problems
  • Vestibular (buccal) abscess without systemic problems
  • Routine root canal treatment

NOTE ‘WITHOUT” SYSTEMIC PROBLEMS

136
Q

What are the key features of lining mucosa

A

Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium (NKSS)

LaminaPropria-loose connective tissue (CT) with collagen bundles

Mucous and serous glands

Found in the lips and cheeks

137
Q

What is subgingivcal plaque made up of

A

• Mixed, facultative and strict anaerobic bacteria

• Gram-negative predominates with some gram-positive species and
spirochetes present

138
Q

In spacial infections the location of where the abcess forms is dependent on what?

A

where the muscle attachment is in relationship to the location of the root apex.

139
Q

Describe healthy gingiva

A 
Uniform color,
knife-edge; 
scalloped,
firm, 
stippled
140
Q

Which teeth have a lingual surface

A

The posterior incisors and canines
And the bottom interior premolars and molars

The top premolars/ molars do not have a lingual surface

141
Q

What does the serous component of the pellicle provide

A

enzymes and proteins for digestion and antibacterial activity

142
Q

What are the 5 ranges of taste on the tongue

A

bitter, sour, salty, sweet, and umami.

Generally found around the anterior 2/3 and along the edges.

143
Q

How is smokeless tobacco keratosis reversible

A

reversible within 2 weeks after cessation

144
Q

What ABX should you use when amoxicillin does not improve the pts condition

A

Amoxicillin and Clavulanic Acid combination (Augmentin)

145
Q

What is smokeless tobacco keratosis

A

mucosal tissues affected by smokeless tobacco and snuff

• Signs & symptoms: whitish, wrinkled, mucosa in mandibular vestibule; exact site of tobacco placement

146
Q

What is the nerve supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

General sensations (lingual nerve) CNV

Taste (Chorda Tympani)
CNVII

147
Q

What is the second layer of the tooth to begin forming

A

The enamel

148
Q

What is the leas likely place for the mandible to be fx

A

Coronoid

149
Q

What is a mucocele

A

traumatic rupture of a minor salivary duct and accumulation of saliva in the adjacent tissue

• Signs & symptoms: soft; painless; may fluctuate in size

150
Q

What is the function of the Masseter muscle

A

Elevates the Mandible

For crushing and grinding and chewing

151
Q

What does the caries process involve

A

• Involves demineralization of the enamel, dentin and/or cementum

• Bacteria within dental plaque metabolize fermentable carbohydrates into
organic acids

• Below the critical pH proteolytic enzymes break down the organic component
(dentin/cementum)

152
Q

What part of the tooth recieves nutrients from the pulp

A

The dentin

153
Q

What is hairy leukoplakia

A

Parallel hair-like, vertical white lesions; may be bilateral on the lateral surface of the tongue

  • Surface of lesion is frequently infected with Candida albicans
  • Etiology: Epstein-Barr virus
  • History/diagnosis: Exposure to HIV

Tx: acyclovir

154
Q

What are bucal maxillary infections primarily a result of

A

infected maxillary and mandibular molars and premolars

155
Q

What is the tx for alveolar osteitis

A

local anesthesia;
remove all sutures & irrigate with warm saline;
place Peridex (chlorhexidine) oral antimicrobial rinse in syringe for patient’s home irrigation;
analgesics for 1 week.

If dry socket paste is used, it must be changed every 24 hours

156
Q

What is the most numerous type of papillae on the tongue

A

Filiform and they lack taste buds

157
Q

How is enamel formed

A

Ameloblasts lay down collagenous matrix which is mineralized by alkaline phosphatase.

Enamel proteins are then removed to leave only mineralized tissue.

158
Q

What is a lefort III fx

A

Craneofacial dysfunction

159
Q

Define endodontics

A

branch of dentistry which is concerned with the morphology, physiology and pathology of the human dental PULP and periradicular tissues.

160
Q

Patients with the following symptoms should be referred to OMFS as soon as
possible

A

24 hours of painful and increased swelling, difficulty breathing,
difficulty swallowing, severe trismus, fever

161
Q

Which teeth have a palatal surface

A

The top premolars and morals

162
Q

What extrinsic tongue muscle does tongue protrusion

A

Genioglossus

Publix’s Gives

163
Q

What is the hardest tissue in the body

A

Enamel

164
Q

What is the nerve supply to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

General and taste

CN IX

165
Q

What is a class I occlusion

A

Mesiobuccal cusp of Maxillary 1st Molar aligns with the buccal groove of the Mandibular 1st Molar

Normal

166
Q

Which teeth have a buccal surface

A

Premolars and Molars

167
Q

What does the term dentition describe

A

The term dentition is used to describe the natural teeth in the jawbones.

Can be :
• Primary
• Mixed
• Permanent

168
Q

What is xerostomia

A

Decrease saliva production

Can be from
• Systemic diseases
• Salivary gland damage from surgery or radiation therapy
• Medication side-effects

169
Q

What is the progression of submandibular space infection to airway obstruction

A

Submandibular space- submental space- contralateral submandibular space- sublingual space - ludwigs angina- AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION

170
Q

What does subgingival plaque metabolize?>

A

Asacchorolytic

metabolizes peptides

171
Q

What extrinsic tongue muscle does tongue retraction

A

Styloglossus

Publix’s gives (REALLY SMART) deals

172
Q

What is a Class III malocclusion

A

Mesiobuccal cusp of Maxillary 1st Molar is posterior to the buccal groove of the Mandibular 1st Molar

Under bite
Prognathic

173
Q

What is specific about attached gingiva

A

Keratinizedcells

STIPPLED;

separated from the alveolar mucosa by the mucogingival junction (groove).

Attached to the tooth by the junctional epithelium.

174
Q

What is a fibroma

A

firm, solitary, circumscribed nodule on buccal mucosa, labial mucosa, tongue, and gingiva

• Etiology: reactive hypersplasia of fibrous connective tissue in response to trauma

175
Q

What is the function of the Temporalis muscle

A

Elevates and retracts the mandible

Light chewing forces

176
Q

How do you treat NUG

A

Chlorhexidine and ABX

177
Q

What medication should you use if the pt is allergic to penicillin

A

• Clindamycin

178
Q

What is the lymph drainage for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

Deep cervical nodes

179
Q

What is hemangioma

A

vascular anomaly

• Signs & symptoms:

  • If superficial the tissue may be red, blue, or purple
  • Asymptomatic
  • Blanches when touched
180
Q

What is the trigger that stops tooth erruption

A

Occlusal contact

181
Q

What is the function of supragingival plaque

A
  • Sacchorolytic: metabolize carbohydrates
  • Acidogenic: excrete acid (lactate and formate)
  • Excrete Extracellular Polymeric Substance
  • Results in decreasing oxygen tension as plaque matures
182
Q

HWat is the span of the Temporalis

A

Temporal fossa to the body of the mandible

183
Q

What is línea alba

A

white ridge of raised tissue that appears horizontally and bilaterally

• Etiology: benign hyperkeratosis of the buccal mucosa where the maxillary and mandibular teeth meet

184
Q

What are the potential spacial infections

A 
Buccal 
Vestibular 
Palatal 
Sublingual 
Submandibular
185
Q

Describe the process of pellicle formation

A

Forms within 30 minutes after brushing

Planktonic bacteria initially attach to sticky surface

a firm anchorage between bacterium and surface will be
established by specific interactions: covalent, ionic, or hydrogen bonding

186
Q

What are lingual varicosities

A

• Blue area usually on floor of mouth or ventral side of tongue

  • Surface of the tongue
  • Asymptomatic
  • Blanches upon pressure
  • Usually seen in an older population
187
Q

What is an apthous ulcer

A

Shallow ulcer with an erythematous halo, occurs singly or multiples

• Very painful; lasting from 10-14 days

• Occurs on non-keratinized oral tissues (oral mucosa and soft palate,
inner surface of the cheeks, tongue, and soft palate)

188
Q

What can cause Petechiae, Purpura & Ecchymosis

A

hemorrhages in the tissues; asymptomatic

trauma, systemic disease, platelet/clotting disorders; mononucleosis

189
Q

What are canine infections primarily a result of

A

Infected mxiallary canines

190
Q

What is a ranula

A

defect/blockage in a major salivary duct causing accumulation of saliva in the tissues

• Etiology: typically caused by sialolith (salivary duct stone) or local trauma
to the salivary gland duct

191
Q

What are 3 Common dental infections

A

periapical, periodontal, and pericoronal

192
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae

A

• Filiform – anterior 2/3 of tongue; fine hair-like projections

• Fungiform – anterior 2/3 of tongue; appear as round red, raised
spots

• Circumvallate – appear in a “V-shaped” row near posterior part of the
tongue

• Foliate – located on posterior lateral border of the tongue

193
Q

What is the tx for pericoronitis

A

local anesthesia;
antiseptic (saline) lavage to remove trapped debris;
analgesics;
antibiotics if fever present;

refer to dentist for removal of gingival flap or extraction

194
Q

What are the S/s of glossitis

A

Enlargement of the tongue

  • Tongue protruding from mouth; inability to close lips together
  • Seen in amyloidosis, Down Syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome and hypothyroidism
195
Q

What are the ducts of the sublingual glands called

A

The ducts of rivinus

196
Q

What is specific about the marginal/ free gingiva

A

Keratinized Cells

; NOT STIPPLED;

bound on inner margin by the gingival sulcus, which separates it from the tooth;

bound on its outer margin by the oral cavity; and apically by the free gingival groove.

197
Q

What is the “life threatening séquelea”

A

Septicemia
Airway obstruction
Cavernous Sinus Thrmobosis
Ludwigs Angina

198
Q

What is dentin composed of

A

Composed of:
• 70% Hydroxyapatite
• 20% Organic
• 10% Water

199
Q

Define oral and maxillofacial radiology

A

discipline of radiology concerned with the production and interpretation of images

200
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae on the tongue

A
  • Filiform
  • Fungiform
  • Circumvallate
  • Foliate

Found on the anterior 2/3 of tongue

201
Q

What is a melancytic nevus

A

intraoral mole or freckle

• Signs & symptoms: brown, blue, or black pigmented lesion usually less
than 0.5 cm in diameter; usually raised with a smooth surface

202
Q

What are common irritants that lead to Allergic gingivitis

A

Cinnamon or lauryl sulfate

203
Q

What are the 4 functions of the pellicle

A

Protective barrier

Lubrication

Preventing Tissue Desiccation

Substrate to which bacteria attaches

204
Q

Describe canines

A

located at the corner of the arch.

They are designed for cutting and tearing foods, which require the application of force.

205
Q

What is non surgical therapy for periodontal disease

A
  • Supra and sub-gingival scaling & root planing every 3 months by licensed RDH
  • Antibiotics placed directly into the periodontal pocket (sulcus)
  • Proper rest, diet, and exercise
  • Elimination of smoking or traumatic occlusion
206
Q

What are the structures of the gingival tissues

A

Attached gingiva
Interdental Gingiva
Free or Marginal Gingiva
(Includes gingival sulcus)

207
Q

What are the 4 extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A
  • Palatoglossus
  • Genioglossus
  • Hyoglossus
  • Styloglossus
208
Q

Describe the periodontal ligament

A

Fibrous connective tissue
(Type I collagen) that joins the cementum of a tooth to alveolar bone

  • Supportive function
  • Remodeling function
  • Sensory function
  • Nutritive function
209
Q

What is pyogenic granuloma

A

a reactive lesion

  • Red, elevated, soft, bleeds easily
  • Usually located at interproximal papillae

Can be from normal changes, like pregnancy

210
Q

What is lichen planus

A

benign developmental variation of normal buccal mucosa

• Signs & symptoms: white or yellow thin lines form a lace-like pattern
bilaterally on buccal mucosa; can involve skin and feet; typically
asymptomatic

• Pathognomonic sign: Wickham’s Striae

• Etiology: considered an auto immune response due to damage to the
basal cells of oral epithelium

Can be asymptomatic for erosive

211
Q

What is the Tx for malignant melanoma

A
  • Appropriate surgery and chemotherapy
  • Extremely aggressive form of cancer

• Patients with oral mucosal lesions generally have poor prognosis (5
year survival rate between 10% - 25%)

212
Q

Describe Tannerella forsythia

A

Part of the Red Bacterial Complex in periodontal disease

  • Gram-negative, obligate anaerobe, spindle shaped, pleomorphic
  • Forms biofilm
  • Surface layer protein adhesion to epithelial cells and is tissue invasive
  • Produces cysteine proteases
  • Subverts host immune system
213
Q

What are the 3 classes of sutures

A

Collagen
Synthetic absorbable
Non absorbable

214
Q

What is angular chelitis

A

dry cracks in the labial commissures, may be bilateral

• Etiology: Candida albicans fungal infection; excessive sun exposure;
anemia; loss of vertical dimension (denture wearing patients)

215
Q

Describe molars

A

much larger than premolars.

The molars have more cusps than other teeth that are used to chew or grind up food.

There are two sets of molars in the primary dentition and three sets of molars in the permanent dentition.

(1st, 2nd, and 3rd Molars)
3rd Molars = Wisdom Teeth

216
Q

What is epulis fissuratum

A

painless; excessive nodular tissue that may have a crease where the denture sits

• Etiology: reactive hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue caused by chronic irritation from a denture flange

217
Q

What is a periodontal abcess

A

acute inflammation in the sulcus of a periodontal pocket
• •
Etiology – Pre-existing periodontal lesion, vital tooth

218
Q

Describe a nasoorbital ethmoid complex fx

A

displaces the medial canthal ligament and widens the intercanthal distance

219
Q

Development of what tooth tissue results in the eruption of the tooth

A

Cementum

220
Q

What are the primary maxillary spaces for infection

A

Canine
Buccal
Vestibular Abcesses
Palatal Abscesses

221
Q

What are the S/S of a periodontal abscess

A

• Throbbing pain
• Edema localized to attached gingiva but involves bone and PDL
attachment
• Gingival enlargement is typically lateral to tooth
• Pus extruded upon probing
• Mobile tooth
• Foul taste

222
Q

What causes mediation induced gingivitis

A

Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth)

Excess collagen (decreased degradation)

223
Q

What is the depth for a healthy Periodontal pocket

A

3.5mm or less

224
Q

Premolars are also know as

A

Bicuspids

225
Q

What should you never do in a tooth avulsion

A

Never scrub root surface.

This will injure PDL cells and cementum will
not reattach to the alveolar bone

226
Q

Which salivary gland produces the most percentage of saliva

A

The submandibular glands

227
Q

What is the #1 cause of tooth loss in adults

A

Periodontal disease

228
Q

Why would you refer someone to a orthodontist

A 
Are the teeth aligned properly? 
Is there an overjet, overbite, crossbite? 
Severe crowding or rotations? 
Narrow palate? 
Skeletal malalignment?
229
Q

What is the span of the medial pterygoid

A

Sphenoid bone to the medial surface of the mandibular ramus

230
Q

What is the span of the lateral pterygoid

A

Pterygoid plate, phenolic bone to articular disk

231
Q

What is candidiasis also known as

A

Thrush

232
Q

What are the 4 types of gingivitis

A
  • Plaque-associated gingivitis
  • Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
  • Medication-influenced gingivitis
  • Allergic gingivitis
233
Q

What is the most common site for oral cancer

A

Lateral border of the tongue

234
Q

What is the pathology associated with the Masseter muscle

A

Over grinding (bruxism)- leads to hypertrophy, could reduce/ occlude the parotid gland

235
Q

What is fissured tongue

A

Numerous shorter fissures radiating out, bilaterally

• Seen in Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome, Down Syndrome and
patients with xerostomia

• Etiology: developmental; may be inherited or may occur as a result of underlying condition

236
Q

What is a class 2 dental class

A

There are dental treatment needs, but they are not predicted to
cause a dental emergency within 12 months

237
Q

Describe premolars

A

are a cross between canines and molars.

The pointed cusps hold and grind food.

They have a broader chewing surface for chewing.

There are two sets of premolars in the permanent dentition and NO premolars in the primary dentition.
(1st and 2nd Premolars)

238
Q

What is ankyloglossia

A

Short and thick lingual frenum which is attached too far forward on the tip of the tongue, limiting the movement of the tongue

• This condition can cause speech difficulties

239
Q

How does allergic gingivitis present

A

Bright erythema and loss of stippling

240
Q

What makes up 90 % of all oral cancer

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma
(90% of all oral cancer)

flat squamous cells arranged like scales

241
Q

What is “tori”

A

variation of normal that is composed of normal bone and covered by normal mucosal tissue

• Location: hard palate of maxilla and/or lingual side of teeth in mandible

242
Q

What nerve supplies the palatoglossus muscle specifically

A

The vagus nerve

243
Q

describe treponema denticola

A
  • Gram-negative; anaerobe
  • Motile spirochete, pleomorphic
  • Travels in viscous environment
  • Produces proteolytic enzymes that degrade collagen
  • Subverts host immune system
  • Tissue invasive
  • Slow growth phase (weeks to months)
  • Unable to biosynthesize fatty acids, migrates to fuel rich sites
  • Found in periocoronitis sites and NUG
244
Q

What is the roof of the oral cavity and what are its two parts

A

The palate

Hard/ soft

245
Q

How does NUG present

A

• Blunted, punched-out interproximal papillae

• Gray pseudomembrane;
fetid odor;
severe pain;
spontaneous bleeding

246
Q

What sutures would you want to use on a laceration closure on the mouth/ face

A

Start at vermillion border with lips

  • Muscle layer 3-0 or 4-0 (absorbable)
  • Subcutaneous 4-0 or 5-0 (absorbable)
  • Epithelium 6-0 nylon (non-absorbable)
  • Avoid silk on skin (non-absorbable)
  • Braided fiber causes acute inflammation and scarring
247
Q

What is the radiography for pericoronitis

A

impacted or erupting mandibular third molar

248
Q

Define oral and maxilllofacial surgery

A

diagnosis, surgical and adjunctive treatment of diseases, injuries and defects involving both the functional and esthetic aspects of the hard and soft tissues of the oral and maxillofacial region.

249
Q

What is a prosthodontist

A

specialty pertaining to the diagnosis, treatment planning, rehabilitation and maintenance of the oral function, comfort, appearance and health of patients with clinical conditions associated with missing or deficient teeth and/or oral and maxillofacial tissues using biocompatible substitutes.

250
Q

Describe a blow out fx

A

orbital rim remains intact but a crack forms in the thin bone in the floor of the socket.

Muscles and other structures can become entrapped and prevent the eyeball from normal movements.

251
Q

What are the principles of infection management

A 
• Call the oral surgeon
• Remove the cause 
(ie. Extract tooth or begin root canal) 
• Establish drainage (I & D)
• Antibiotic therapy
• Follow-up
• Supportive care
252
Q

Describe unhealthy gingiva

A

Cardinal signs of inflammation

  • Dolor (pain)
  • Calor (heat)
  • Rubor (redness)
  • Tumor (swelling)
  • Functio laesa (loss of function)
253
Q

What are the risk fx for candidiasis/ thrush

A

Local – topical steroids, patients using broad-spectrum antibiotics,
xerostomia, heavy smoking, denture appliances

• Systemic – poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression,
leukemic patients, infants (underdeveloped immune system)

254
Q

What are the three TMJ dislocation techniques

A

Hippocrates
Wrist pivot
interdental

255
Q

What are the S/s of malignant melanoma

A

Painless; rapidly enlarging pigmented lesion

  • Larger than 6 mm in diameter; irregular margins
  • Etiology: malignant neoplasm of melanin-producing cells (melanocytes)
256
Q

What is the nerve that supplies the extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

All supplied by the Hypoglossal Nerve (except the Palatoglossus Muscle)

257
Q

What is vertical transmission of caries

A

S. mutans is transmitted from the primary caregiver to infant by saliva

Transmission rates increase when parents:
• Share utensils or toothbrushes
• Taste food or drink before serving it
• “Clean” a dropped pacifier with saliva
• Allow a child to place fingers into an adult’s mouth

258
Q

In what direction does dentin grow

A

Inwards towards the pulp

259
Q

What is the span of the Masseter muscle

A

Zygomatic arch to the angle of the mandible

260
Q

What does premature contraction of the lateral pterygoid muslce cause

A

TMJ shifting

261
Q

What is the function of the medial pterygoid muscle

A

Elevates, protrudes, and laterally shifts the mandible

262
Q

What is a lefort II fx

A

Pyramidal fx

263
Q

What S/s prompts immediate referral to Oral Maxillofacial Surgeon?

A
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Difficulty swallowing
  • Severe trismus
  • 24 hour painful swelling
  • Fever
  • Not responding to treatment or antibiotics
264
Q

What are the S/s associated with a Severe infection

A 
• Loss of function 
(ie. Trismus, paresthesia) 
• Regional lymphadenopathy
• Febrile
• Elevated white blood cell count
• Tachycardia
• Tachypnea
• Dehydration
• Malaise
265
Q

Define oral medicine

A

Oral Medicine is the discipline of dentistry concerned with the oral health care of MEDICALLY COMPETENT PTS - including the diagnosis and management of medical conditions that affect the oral and maxillofacial region.

266
Q

Does gingivitis result in tooth loss

A

No

267
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage for the tip of the tongue

A

Submental nodes bilaterally &

then deep cervical nodes

268
Q

Describe incisors

A

single-rooted teeth with a relatively sharp thin edge referred to as the incisal edge.

Located in the front of the mouth, they are designed to cut food without the application of heavy forces.

Central incisors are the front teeth on each side of the midline and lateral incisors are distal to the central incisors.

269
Q

What are the three types of mucosa in the mouth

A

Masicatory
Lining mucosa
Specialized mucosa

270
Q

What are the first two colonizers of plaque

A

non-mutan streptococci and Actinomyces species

271
Q

What is the 1st choice ABX treatment for odontogenic infections

A

Amaxocillin

272
Q

How does saliva protect against caries

A
  • Saliva buffers acid pH 6-8. Enamel begins to demineralize at pH 5.5
  • Saliva is bacteriostatic: IgA, lysozyme, lactoferrin, histatins, peroxidase

• Saliva aids in remineralization of teeth; supersaturated with Ca, PO4,
bicarbonate, and F

273
Q

What are the S/s of a sever oral or peri oral infection

A

• Difficulty breathing
• Difficulty swallowing
• Severe trismus
• 24 hour painful swelling
• Fever
• Not responding to treatment or antibiotics
***Refer to an Oral Maxillofacial Surgeon immediately

274
Q

What is possible if a hematoma doesnt heal within two weeks

A

Possible blood dyscrasia

275
Q

What is the structure of enamel

A

Enamel has a rod or crystaline structure

Composed of:
97% Hydroxyapatite
3% Other

276
Q

What is the vein that drains blood from the tongue

A

The lingual vein that drains into the internal jugular vein

277
Q

How do you mange soft tissue injuries to the lip

A

If using 2 layer closure: use absorbable sutures on inner muscle layer first; close skin second

• Suture at vermillion border first, approximating the tissue for primary closure

278
Q

What are the 4 steps of an I&D

A

• Establish anesthesia by nerve block or wide infiltration

(not directly into swelling)

  • Incise into area of maximum fluctuance
  • Blunt dissection and copious irrigation with saline
  • Insert and stabilize a drain (if needed)
279
Q

What is a squamous papilloma

A

painless; usually a solitary, white, papillary lesion
attached with a pedunculated (narrow stem) base and fingerlike projections

• Etiology: local trauma and human papillomavirus (HPV-6 and HPV-11)

280
Q

What are the S/s of a blow out fx

A 
Localized hemorrhaging
• Double vision
• Lowered globe
• Restricted movement of involved eye
 • Enophthalmos
(Posterior displacement of the eye)
281
Q

What does permanent dentition refer to

A

Permanent dentition refers to the 32 secondary or “adult” teeth.

282
Q

What is exostosis

A

variation of normal that is composed of normal bone and covered by normal mucosal tissue

• Location: buccal side of maxillary and mandibular teeth

283
Q

What are the two chief cardiogenic bacteria responsible for caries

A

Streptococci mutans and Lactobacillus

284
Q

What are canines also known as

A

Cuspids

285
Q

What are the spaces for primary mandibular infections

A

• Submental (mandibular incisors)
• Buccal (primarily as a result of infected maxillary and mandibular molars
and premolars)
• Submandibular (mandibular premolars & molars)
• Sublingual (mandibular premolars & molars)
• Vestibular abscess

286
Q

How do caries first present

A

First seen as a chalky white spot, its appearance is due to loss of translucency of subsurface enamel rods due to demineralization

287
Q

What is the soft palate composed of?

A
  • Muscle fibers
  • Lymphoid tissue
  • Glands
  • Blood vessels
  • Nerves
288
Q

What is the loading and maintenance dosing for Amoxicillin

A
  • Loading dose: 1000mg

* Maintenance dose: 500mg, by mouth, every 8 hours for 7 days

289
Q

What all is covered by lining mucosa

A

Vestibule

Ventral side of tongue

Soft palate

290
Q

What does the term exfoliation mean

A

is the process by which the root(s) of the primary tooth/teeth are resorbed until so little root remains that the primary tooth falls out

291
Q

Describe specialized mucosa of the mouth

A

15% of total mucosa.

Covers dorsal tongue and composed of cornified and non-cornified epithelial papillae.

292
Q

What are the S/s of squamous cell carcinoma

A

• Deep-seated ulcerated mass; often firm (indurated) adjacent tissues
to palpation

• Possibility of local pain, referred pain (often to ear), and parasthesia
(often lower lip)

293
Q

What are the 5 stages in caries development

A
  1. healthy tooth with plaque
  2. Initial demineralization
  3. Advanced demineralization
  4. ,decay in dentin (irreversible)
  5. Decay in pulp
294
Q

What is verruca vulgaris

A

painless; usually a solitary, white, papillary lesion attached with a pedunculated or sessile (flat and broad) base

  • Often occurs on labial mucosa and tongue
  • Contagious
  • Etiology: Infection caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV-2 and HPV-4)
295
Q

What bones form the palate

A

The palatine process of the maxilla

The horizontal plates of the palatine bone

296
Q

How do you treat a apthous ulcer

A

Avoid acidic foods or other known irritants; reduce stress

• Topical steroid (Kenalog or Orabase and/or Decadron elixir rinse qid) applied to affected area

297
Q

Salivary Ca2+, PO4^3-, and F- lead to what in the mouth

A

Remineralization

298
Q

What is nicotinic stomatitis

A

benign developmental variation of normal buccal mucosa

  • Signs & symptoms: rough, white inflamed openings to minor salivary glands on the palate
  • Etiology: heat generated from pipe or prolonged tobacco exposure changes the palate
299
Q

Does a hematoma blanch?

A

NO

300
Q

How does enamel remineralize

A

Caries begins as a subsurface lesion which can be remineralized as long as the surface remains intact

• Supersaturated salivary calcium and phosphates in the presence of fluoride* can slowly remineralize the demineralized enamel

301
Q

What is the first step in the development of a biofilm

A

Attachement to the tooth surface

302
Q

Periodontal disease in the inflammation of what structures

A
  • Gingival tissues
  • PDL attachment
  • loss of Alveolar bone
303
Q

Describe the histology of the vermilion border

A

Junction between the skin and mucous membrane

Stratified squamous epithelium

Epithelium is thin

304
Q

What is the function of the intrinsic tongue muscles

A

To alter the shape of the tongue

305
Q

What are the 4 indications for Antibiotic use in infection

A
  • Diffuse swelling with systemic problems (fever)
  • Fascial space infections
  • Cellulitis
  • Compromised host defenses
306
Q

What is cementum composed of

A

50% Hydroxyapatite

50% Organic and Water

307
Q

What are the smallest salivary glands called

A

The sublingual glands

308
Q

What is a melanotic macule

A

painless; circumscribed tan to brown macule typically less that 0.5 cm in diameter

• Etiology: genetics; solar radiation

309
Q

Where do the “early colonizers” of plaque form from

A

(non-mutan streptococci and Actinomyces species)

-use oxygen and lower the reduction-oxidation potential of the environment

which then favors the growth of anaerobic species as the biofilm matures

310
Q

Define dental anesthesiology

A

discipline of anesthesiology encompassing the art and science of MANAGING PAIN, anxiety, and overall patient health during dental, oral, maxillofacial and adjunctive surgical or diagnostic procedures throughout the entire perioperative period.

311
Q

What is the PRIMARY bacterial species in caries development

A

Streptococcus mutans group

but many other bacteria have also been implicated, including Actinomyces and Lactobacillus

312
Q

Allow how many days for absorbable sutures

A

5-7 days

313
Q

What is the most important muscle for speech articulation

A

The tongue

314
Q

When should an avulsed tooth be reimpanted

A

Within 1 hour or less

315
Q

What is an amalgam tattoo

A

blue/purple discoloration of the alveolar soft tissue

• Etiology: accidental implantation of material such as amalgam

316
Q

What are the S/s of pericoronitis

A
  • Throbbing pain radiating to ear, throat, or floor of the mouth
  • Foul taste
  • Trismus; facial edema
  • NUG-like necrosis may occur
317
Q

What is the largest salivary gland in the mouth

A

The parotid gland

318
Q

What are the S/s of inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

A

painless; multiple, erythematous nodules on palatal vault

• Etiology: from ill-fitting maxillary denture; poor oral hygiene, with potential of an overlying candidiasis infection

319
Q

What are “secondary colonizers” in plaque

A 
are the microorganisms that do not initially colonize clean tooth surfaces, including 
Prevotella intermedia
 Prevotella loescheii
 Capnocytophaga spp.,
Fusobacterium nucleatum,
Porphyromonas gingivalis.
320
Q

What is the second function of the tongue

A

Taste

321
Q

What is the function of saliva

A
  • Keeps the mouth moist
  • Aids in swallowing
  • Aids in speech
  • Keeps the mouth and teeth clean
  • Antimicrobial action
  • Digestive function
  • Bicarbonate acts as a buffer
322
Q

What is a periodontist

A

dentistry which encompasses the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the teeth or their substitutes

323
Q

What are the characteristics/ functions of the extrinsic tongue muscles

A

Function: helps in movements of tongue

Connects the tongue to the surrounding structures:
-soft palate and bones
mandible, hyoid bone, and styloid process

324
Q

What is surgical intervention of periodontal disease

A
  • Pocket defects > 5mm
  • 2-6 months after non-surgical therapy
  • Irreversible (regenerative techniques available
325
Q

How does plaque develop, detach and recolonize?

A

Quorum sensing

326
Q

What are 4 risks of antibiotic therapy

A
  • Allergy
  • Toxicity
  • Clostridium difficile infection
  • Development of resistant strains
327
Q

What is the treatment for a periodontal abcesses

A

local anesthesia;
incision through mucosa or drainage through the sulcus;
analgesics; if fever present prescribe antibiotics;
soft diet;
warm salt water rinses;

refer to dentist for scaling & root planning (every 3 months)

328
Q

How do you place IRM in a tooth

A

• Roll the prepared IRM into a cone-shape

• Place the shaped IRM onto the end of a
dental instrument

• Distribute the IRM by spreading it from
the center to the side

• Remove excess IRM with dental
instrument or wet cotton tip applicator

• Have patient bite down and move
mandible from left to right (while IRM is
still soft)

• Moisture helps the IRM set

329
Q

Define orthodontics

A

diagnosis, prevention, interception, and correction of malocclusion, as well as neuromuscular and skeletal abnormalities of the developing or mature orofacial structures.

330
Q

What is a “caries”

A

Caries is an infectious transmissible disease process resulting from oral bacteria that metabolize sugars to produce acids which intermittently demineralize tooth structure and, if left untreated, can progress to a cavity (carious lesion)

331
Q

What are the 4 types of impactions

A

Angular
Partial eruption
Horizontal
Vertical

332
Q

What does the term medial refer to

A

Towards the midline of the dental arch

IPAP 21-2 Soph Semester (20 decks)

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