Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE Pt. I > Dental Articles - Exceptions > Flashcards

Dental Articles - Exceptions Flashcards

1
Q

Not a risk factor for atherosclerosis

A

Alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Doesn’t characterize chlamydial infection

A

Ability of the Chlamydiae to survive in the host extracellularly… CANNOT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

clots (thrombi) formed within veins, esp. deep leg veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Esophageal varices

A

causes severe bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Endarteritis

A

inflammation of the lining of arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lymphangitis

A

inflammation of the lining of lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Buergers disease

A

involves immune complexes causing damage to arteries and other vessels – often causes thrombosis in legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

abnormal dilatation of the bronchi following chronic infection; not precancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bronchial asthma

A

narrowing of the bronchi and excess mucus production causing difficulty in breathing; not precancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bronchial carcinoids

A

benign lesions of neuroendocrine argentaffin cells of bronchial mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pulmonary emphysema

A

involves distention of air spaces with destruction of alveoli; not precancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

1 cause of meningitis in elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cause meningitis

A 
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae (elderly)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Streptococcus faecalis

A

causes urinary tract infections in hospitalized patients; rare cause of subacute endocarditis; part of the normal fecal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A, B-­Hemolytic)

A

obligate human parasite spread person-­to-­person by respiratory secretion via droplets, direct contact with the skin, or fomites; clinical manifestations (suppurative or nonsuppurative = pus produced) — predominantly involving pharyngitis and various skin infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mycoplasma hominis

A

sexually transmitted agent; major source of infection in postpartum women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Leptospira pomona

A

caused by ingestion or contact through broken skin or mucous membranes with water contaminated by urine from infected reservoirs (dogs, sheep, goats cattle, horses, & rats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Actinomyces israelii

A

part of the normal oral flora and are usually pathogenic only after oral trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Typically presents with watery [“rice water”] diarrhea (20 liters/day) with the loss of Na+, Cl-, K+, and bicarbonate (HCO3). Clinical manifestations: Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, metabolic acidosis and hypovolemic shock.

A

Vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Protozoa, thus cannot specifically cause bacillary dysentery. Clinically, the disease may be mild with diarrhea, abdominal cramps nausea, vomiting, and flatulence.

A

Entamoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inflammatory diarrhea with fever and variable septicemia. In contrast to Shigella, a large
inoculum (> 1 million cells) is needed to survive gastric acid and cause disease. LESS likely a cause than Shigella.

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“Traveler’s diarrhea”; >100 serotypes; causes non-­inflammatory, secretory diarrhea SIMILAR to Vibrio, but less severe.

A

Escherichieae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Presents clinically as aseptic meningitis, fever, rash, enteritis, common colds and/or acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis. Less common symptoms include paralysis, pleurodynia, encephalitis, myocarditis, and respiratory illness.

A

Echovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most commonly associated with the common cold. Clinical manifestations: upper respiratory tract irritation, headache, nasal discharge, cough, malaise, chills, and myalgia.

A

Rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

May cause herpangina, with headache, sore throat, dysphasia, stiff neck, fever, anorexia, and abdominal pain. Discrete vesicles are seen in the oropharynx; cause meningitis; etiologic agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease

A

Coxsackievirus Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

May cause myocarditis, pericarditis, and pleurodynia; cause meningitis ­

A

Coxsackievirus Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Elicits a mononucleosis illness including fatigue, malaise, tender lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, fever, headache, and splenomegaly. The majority of these infections are subclinical (with no overt symptoms) but may lead to life-­long latent infection; In immunosuppressed patients infection is more severe and marked by fever, adenopathy, leukopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, and myalgias.

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Juvenile periodontitis

A

Primary pathogen: Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (AA)

Site predilection: incisors and first molars
Absence of plaque and calculus
Very fast in progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Associated with calculus, plaque, inflammation

Pathogens (anaerobic organisms within the periodontal pocket):

  • Bacteroides
  • Fusobacteria
  • Porphyromonas
  • Prevotella
A

Adult chronic periodontitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  • Hypoperfusion of the kidney and brain

- Chronic passive congestion of the lungs

A

Signs of LEFT-sided ventricular cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  • Edema of ankles
  • General systemic VENOUS congestion (fluid back- up, rather than pulmonary)
  • Ascites = edematous swelling of the abdomen
A

Signs of RIGHT-sided ventricular cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Single, benign, most common tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Generally a solitary lesion within a duct or cyst; benign when single

A

Intraductal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tumor in adrenal medulla which produces catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) – may result in severe hypertension

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Involves limited motion of the mitral valve and causes chronic heart dysfunction.

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Heart pain caused by poor blood flow in the coronary arteries; does not usually lead to sudden cardiac arrest.

A

Angina pectoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Involves the growth of fibrous tissue in the pericardium, causing decreased ventricular filling, but the condition is not acute.

A

Constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Involves infection of heart valves by bacteria (usually streptococci) Results may include valve damage, myocardial abscess, and septic emboli. However, it does not involve sudden cardiac arrest.

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A malignant tumor of chondroblasts, found mostly in adults 30-­60, male more often than female.

A

Chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common type is found in glandular elements of the respiratory tract, especially in male adult smokers between 40-­70 years old

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Neoplasm of plasma cells resulting in excessive abnormal immunoglobulins, including Bence-­Jones proteins; most common in adults 50-­60 years old

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Malignant skin neoplasms most common in middle aged and older adults

A

Basal cell carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Active infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis with accompanying fever, anorexia, necrosis of lung tissue and destruction of blood vessels in lung parenchyma; blood in sputum

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Infection is present which can erode surrounding blood vessels; blood in sputum

A

Lobar pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Thrombus, most likely from a leg vein, becomes lodged in the lung. If the embolus becomes infected (septic embolus), then can erode surrounding blood vessels; blood in sputum

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Can cause bleeding as it expands into nearby vascular tissue; blood in sputum

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common cause of bacterial pneumonia; also causes otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, and bacteremia; most common cause of meningitis in the elderly

A

Alpha-­hemolytic streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Causes skin infections (cellulitis) deep infections (bone), systemic infections secondary to deep infections, and toxin mediated disease (toxic shock syndrome).

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Causes oral and genital lesions by infecting epithelial cells. Upon resolution of acute illness, latent infections are commonly found in neurons

A

Herpes simplex virus

50
Q

Causes meningitis, otitis media, and epiglottis. Primarily children under the age of five are affected

A

Hemophilus influenzae

51
Q

Collapse of alveolar walls with loss of diffusional surface area, cough, dyspnea and barreled chest.

A

Emphysema

52
Q

Components involved in walling off chronic infections

A

Langhans and epitheliod cells (macrophages)

53
Q

Tetanus Toxoid

A

Antibody production

54
Q

Tetanus Antitoxin

A

Passive immunity from disease (transferred antibodies)

55
Q
  • (non)encapsulation
  • rapid growth rate [both]
  • ability to metastasize
  • lack of differentiation
  • excessive mitotic activity [both]
A

Factors of related to tumor growth

56
Q
  • Defined shape, capsulated
  • Slower mitotic growth rate
  • Does not metastasize
A

Benign tumors

57
Q
  • Formless, nondistinctive boundaries, nonencapsulated
  • Faster mitotic growth rate
  • Lack differentiation (cells in neoplasm do not form well-specialized tissues);
  • requires cell mitosis
  • Metastasizes
A

Malignant tumors

58
Q

Condition of soft bones subsequent to vitamin D deficiency; impaired mineralization of the osteoid.

A

Osteomalacia

59
Q

Weakening of bones due to loss of bone mass (common in older women) [due to estrogen deficiency, malnutrition or immobilization]

A

Osteoporosis

60
Q

Benign tumor of bone at diaphysis of long bones; when malignant, doesn’t develop into osteosarcoma.

A

Osteoblastoma/Osteoid osteoma

61
Q

Inherited defect of collagen synthesis - thin, fragile bones, small discolored teeth and blue sclera.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

62
Q

Lack of cell growth or proliferation

A

Aplasia

63
Q

Loss of cell differentiation and tissue organization

A

Anaplasia

64
Q

Wide variety of size and shape of nuclei and cells

A

Pleomorphism

65
Q

Intense color and staining of nuclear material

A

Hyperchromatism

66
Q

Enzyme projecting form the outer membrane of the bacteria

A

Glucosyltransferase

67
Q

Insoluble adherent that promotes accumulation of bacteria on tooth enamel + prevents diffusion of organic acids produced by the bacteria

A

Dextran

68
Q

Enzyme present in the outer membrane of RNA viruses (para-­myxoviruses, orthomyxoviruses) and the bacteria Vibrio cholerae; it cleaves N-­acetylneuraminic acid (NANA, essential for hemoagglutination, without it process is inhibited) from glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells

A

Neuraminidase

69
Q

Enzymes play a vital role in determining cell shape; present in all cells; not in viruses; these proteins attach to the ends of cytoskeletal proteins + determine the rate at which these ends elongate/depolymerize.

A

Capping enzymes

70
Q

Found in all animal cells; responsible for transcription, the process whereby RNA is formed from a DNA template

A

DNA-­dependent RNA-­polymerase

71
Q

Large cells (100 micrometers); localized DNA (in discreet bundles/condensation during mitosis) in nucleus; contains specialized organelles; possess complex cytoskeleton (capable of endo/exocytosis) utilizes Krebs’ cycle (thus, can generate more ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized); organized in multicellular systems wherein each cell is specialized for a different function

A

Characteristics of EUKARYOTIC cells – (fungi, plants, animals)

72
Q

Simple cells, small (1-10 micrometers), rarely aggregate to form multi-cellular units; modified prokaryotic cells (bacteria, blue algae); lack specialized organelles (nucleus, mitochondria, ER, Golgi, peroxisomes, lysosomes); lack cytoskeleton (unable to perform endo/exocytosis); lack Krebs’ cycle enzymes (dependent on glycolysis for ATP production)

A

Characteristics of PROKARYOTIC cells

73
Q

Process where organism becomes virulent through the acquisition of a set of genes which encode virulence factors

A

Transformation

74
Q

Self-­replicating, autonomous segments of DNA; they code for proteins which have a variety of functions.

A

Plasmids

75
Q

Kills microorganisms by an unknown mechanism; effective against live bacteria and spores+ most widely used antiseptic in hospitals

A

Iodine

76
Q

Works as an antiseptic by precipitating protein; not effective against spores

A

Alcohol

77
Q

Includes silver (effective agent for precipitating proteins + interfering w/ bacterial metabolism) and mercury (precipitates proteins & has an added effect of self-­hydro-­enzyme inhibition)

A

Cationic detergents

78
Q

Kills microorganisms by precipitating proteins; effective against spores only when applied for several hours

A

Acid glutaraldehyde

79
Q

Interferes with cross-­linking step of peptidoglycan polymers –> prevents the formation of a durable cell coat –> highly susceptible to rupture and fragmentation

A

Penicillin

80
Q
  • Penicillin
  • Bacitracin
  • Cephalosporins
  • Vancomycin
A

Antibiotics that interfere w/ cell wall synthesis

81
Q
  • Antifungal agents
  • Amphotericin-B
  • Nystatin
A

Antibiotics that disrupt integrity of cell membrane (via forming channels in fungal wall & disrupting ion gradients required for normal metabolism)

82
Q
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Erythromycin
  • Tetracycline
A

Antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis

83
Q
  • Rifampin
  • Sulfonamides
  • Trimethoprim
A

Antimicrobials inhibit the bacterial DNA synthesis

84
Q
  • Autoimmune phenomena
  • Tuberculosis infiltration
  • Metastatic tumor
  • Amyloidosis
A

Manifestations of Primary Addison’s

85
Q
  • Abnormalities of the hypothalamus or pituitary

- Exogenous administration of steroids

A

Manifestations of Secondary Addision’s

86
Q

Dry mouth; most common in Sjogren’s disease + other rheumatologic illnesses.

A

Xerostomia

87
Q

Painful tongue; results from a local burn or trauma or from metastatic tumor infiltration of the lingual nerve.

A

Glossodynia

88
Q

Radiographic appearance of bone in Paget’s disease (metabolic disorder of bone characterized by an increased rate of bone resorption coupled with new bone synthesis)

A

“Cotton wool bone”

89
Q

Thick layer of tissue lining the dental alveolar bone, which is lost in periodontal disease (uninvolved in Addison’s disease)

A

Lamina dura

90
Q
  • EBV = Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • Human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] = Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Hep B virus = Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Herpes simplex II = Cervical carcinoma
A

Viruses linked to human cancers

91
Q
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • Hodgkin’s disease
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Acute lymphocytic leukemia
  • Chronic myelogenous leukemia
A

Human tumors of the lymphoid system

92
Q

Commonly in children/adolescents; infection of bone which may/may not involve the bone marrow; begins when a blood-­borne organism (commonly Staph aureus, but various strains of Streptococci, Pneumococci and Neisseria too) deposited in bone; can occur following penetrating trauma – organism directly introduced into bone; requires a protracted course of IV antibiotics + surgical debridement occasionally.

A

Osteomyelitis

93
Q

Rarely enters bone; causes abscesses in connective tissue – forms sinus tracts in the skin

A

Actinomyces

94
Q

Spirochetes like T. pallidum; causes syphilis – linked to relapsing fever, skin and mucous membrane ulcers and lung lesions (not associated with osteomyelitis)

A

Borrelia

95
Q

Pathogen in the lung that causes suppurative fibrotic/necrotic lesions (cavitary + diffuse)

A

Nocardia

96
Q

Elevated in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma or yolk sac tumors

A

Alpha-­fetoprotein

97
Q

Enzyme found primarily in liver and bone; elevated in both benign and malignant diseases involving these tissues

A

Alkaline phosphatase

98
Q

Elevated in patients with adenocarcinomas of the colon or lung and in various benign conditions

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen

99
Q

Oral candidiasis + risk factors for AIDS; if patient has dysphagia, obtain esophagram; treatable disease

A

Esophageal candidiasis

100
Q

Causes infections of soft tissue – leads to abscess formation; follows oral trauma or aspiration of saliva; not a marker of immunosuppression

A

Actinomyces israelii

101
Q

Only in immunocompromised patients; infection shows sufficient for a diagnosis of AIDS; lung pathogen that causes severe pneumonia with a large alveolar to arteriole oxygen gradient; unlike candida, does not cause infection in the mouth.

A

Pneumocystis carinii

102
Q

Responsible for the development of dental caries; present in normal and immunocompromised hosts

A

Strep. mutans

103
Q

Alpha-­hemolytic; can cause endocarditis (common in IV drug abusers + valvular heart disease); typically not infection of immunocompromised patients – who may have a particularly poor prognosis if they do develop endocarditis.

A

Strep. salivarius

104
Q

Resulting in tetany (characterized by muscle spasms, cramps and seizures; associated with hypocalcemia)

A

Hypofunction of the parathyroid

105
Q

Associated with generalized lethargy + slowing of mental/motor functions; coarse skin, dry brittle hair, hoarse voice, and peripheral and periorbital edema

A

Hypothyroidism

106
Q

Manifested as hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, growth retardation, ovarian failure, loss of libido, and diabetes insipidus OR deficiency syndromes of any or all of these hormones:

  • thyroid-­stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • adrenal corticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  • growth hormone (GH)
  • follicle-­stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • prolactin, antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  • oxytocin
A

Hypofunction of the hypophysis/pituitary

107
Q

Most commonly due to adrenal suppression secondary to the administration of steroids or from infiltration of the adrenals by tumor; manifests as clinically as weakness, weight loss, hypotension, hyperpigmentation and salt craving

A

Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex

Hypofunction of the adrenal medulla, no distinct clinical syndrome

108
Q

Clinical syndrome resulting from hypothyroidism; characterized by generalized lethargy, slowing of mental/motor functions, coarse skin, hoarse voice, peripheral and periorbital edema, and coma (extreme case)

A

Myxedema

109
Q

Hypersecretion of growth hormone; characterized by enlargement of the jaw, hands + feet, and coarsening of the facial features

A

Acromegaly

110
Q

When glucose filtration exceeds glucose resorption; commonly in diabetes mellitus or renal tubular disease.

A

Glycosuria

111
Q

Tumor of chromaffin cells, neoplasm that secretes catecholamines (esp. norepinephrine, which causes paroxysmal hypertension); commonly located in the abdomen, 80% are found in the adrenal medulla; others in aortic bifurcation. If tumor is resected, hypertension relieved.

A

Pheochromocytoma

112
Q

Use with extreme caution; utilization leads to the eradication of the normal flora (holds growth of organisms resistant to antibiotics in check) colonizing many sites throughout the body – if normal flora cleared, resistant organisms can replicate freely as competition for nutrients decreases.

Resistant organisms (Pseudomonas, E. coli, Klebsiella species) cause SEPSIS – can only be treated with newer, more powerful antimicrobial agents that select for resistant strains for which no antibiotic treatment is available

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics

113
Q

Extremely nephrotoxic; signs of nephrotoxicity should be monitored when utilizing these drugs, but fear of inducing nephrotoxicity should not inhibit the physician from using them when indicated

A

Aminoglycosides

114
Q

Can occur with any drug, but is most common with the penicillins and cephalosporins;

A

Anaphylaxis

115
Q

Acute rxn from ragweed or drugs; sensitized mast cells coated with IgE molecules; then, mast cells cross-­linked by the introduction of antigen –> degranulation of mast cells –> histamine released –> bronchospasm and bronchial edema + various chemotactic agents –> summon eosinophils and neutrophils to the site.

A

Atopy

116
Q

The body produces immunoglobulins against host tissue; phenomenon responsible for diseases such as – systemic lupus erythematosus (Abs against nuclear/ribosomal proteins) or myasthenia gravis (Abs against acetylcholine receptors)

A

Autoimmunity

117
Q

Process whereby immunoglobulins from one host are transferred to another host in whom they confer protection; primary immunization strategy utilized by the medical community prior to the advent of vaccines; plays fundamental role in the protection of newborns (IgG mother –> fetus [via placenta] or newborn [via breastfeeding] – infant depends on IgG to fend off infection during the first 6 months of life (developing immune system)

A

Passive immunity

118
Q

Bronchogenic carcinoma/mesothelioma causes…

A 
#1 Pneumoconiosis 
#2 Asbestos exposure
119
Q

Common lung finding among smokers and city dwellers; refers to the accumulation of carbon in macrophages in the lung; by itself is of no clinical significance; may be present in severe diseases including coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

A

Anthracosis

120
Q

Granulomatous disease of the lung resulting from heavy beryllium exposure – associated with the development of bronchogenic carcinoma, not mesothelioma

A

Berylliosis

121
Q

Causes a megaloblastic anemia; common finding in chronic alcoholism + other diseases associated with malnutrition

A

Folate deficiency

122
Q

Causes of iron deficiency

A 
#1 Acute/chronic hemorrhage OR physiologic bleeding i.e. menses; occurs when iron demand increases (pregnant), little iron intake (impoverished countries)
#2 Chronic blood loss [microcytic hypochronic anemia]
#3 Increase in iron demand (pregnancy)
#4 Decreased iron intake (impoverished countries)
#5 Malabsorption [only common in Crohn's disease]
#5 Unable to utilize iron body stores due to chronic inflammatory diseases/cancer

NBDE Pt. I (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions