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AU '18 - Peds III exam II > Dental Anomalies > Flashcards

Dental Anomalies Flashcards

1
Q

number

A
  1. hypodontia

2. hyperdontia

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2
Q

size

A
  1. microdontia

2. macrodontia

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3
Q

structure

A
  1. amelogenesis imperfecta
  2. dentinogenesis imperfecta
  3. dentin dysplasia
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4
Q

shape

A
  1. gemination
  2. fusion
  3. accessory cusps
  4. dens invaginatus
  5. dens evaginatus
  6. ectopic enamel
  7. taurdontism
  8. hypercementosis
  9. accesory roots
  10. dilaceration
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5
Q

hyperdontia (supernumerary teeth) is an anomaly of what?

A

of initiation and proliferation

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6
Q

prevalence of hyperdontia is higher in which race?

A

Asians and African Americans

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7
Q

hyperdontia occurs more in the maxilla or mand?

A

maxilla

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8
Q

T/F: location of hyperdontia can vary

A

true…

mesiodens
paramolar

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9
Q

T/F: shape of supernumerary tooth is often abnormal

A

true

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10
Q

mesiodens

A

extra tooth right between max central incisors

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11
Q

when do neonatal teeth erupt?

A

within 30 days of birth

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12
Q

most natal/neonatal teeth are what?

A

primary tooth (not supernumerary)

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13
Q

majority of natal/neonatal teeth are which tooth?

A

mand incisor

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14
Q

features of natal/neonatal teeth

A
  1. thin
  2. mobile
  3. rootless
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15
Q

problems with natal/neonatal teeth

A
  1. can be aspiration risk

2. cause feeding problems

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16
Q

tx of natal/neonatal teeth

A

extraction

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17
Q

hypodontia

A

lack of tooth development

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18
Q

cause of hypodontia

A

familial tendency and genetic component

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19
Q

hypodontia is missing how many teeth?

A

≤ 1-5 teeth

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20
Q

oligodontia

A

missing 6 or more teeth

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21
Q

T/F: hypodontia is more prevalent in perm dentition

A

true

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22
Q

congenitally missing teeth in perm denition

A

3rd molars > mand 2nd PM > max lateral incisor > max 2nd PM

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23
Q

congenitally missing teeth in primary dentition

A

max lateral incisor

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24
Q

microdontia and macrodontia are anomalies of what?

A

proliferation and morphodifferentiation

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25
Q

true generalized microdontia and macrodontia

A

small/large teeth in normal sized jaw

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26
Q

relative generalized microdontia and macrodontia

A

normal or small teeth in large jaw or normal or large teeth in small jaw

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27
Q

T/F: single tooth macrodontia is common

A

false, rare

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28
Q

T/F: single tooth microdontia is rare

A

false, common

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29
Q

what is the most common microdontia tooth?

A

lateral incisor (peg lateral)

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30
Q

what is the second most common microdontia tooth?

A

3rd molar

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31
Q

T/F: isolated macrodontia is often bilateral

A

true

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32
Q

what should be ruled out if dx is isolated macrodontia?

A

gemination/fusion

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33
Q

primary tooth most affected by macrodontia?

A

2nd molar, which could interfere with eruption

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34
Q

conjoined teeth is an anomaly of what?

A

proliferation and morphodifferentiation

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35
Q

germination

A
  1. single enlarged tooth with normal tooth count

2. division of single tooth

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36
Q

fusion

A
  1. single enlarged tooth with fewer than normal tooth count

2. conjoining or two separate primary teeth

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37
Q

T/F: conjoined teeth occur more often in permanent dentition

A

false, primary

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38
Q

concrescence teeth are joined where?

A

cementum

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39
Q

where does germination usually occur?

A

anterior (incisors and canines)

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40
Q

complications with germinated tooth

A
  1. can have difficulty erupting
  2. can block out other teeth
  3. caries can develop in area of cleft
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41
Q

where does fusion usually occur?

A

anterior

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42
Q

what causes fusion?

A

can be familial

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43
Q

complications with fusion tooth

A
  1. congenital absence of successor tooth

2. caries may develop in area of fusion

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44
Q

dens invaginatus (dens in dente)

A

tooth in a tooth

45
Q

dens invaginatus is what type of anomaly?

A

developmental

46
Q

what causes dens invaginatus (dens in dente)?

A

lingual invagination of inner enamel epithelium

47
Q

which tooth does dens invaginatus (dens in dente) usually affect?

A

max lateral incisor

48
Q

T/F: dens invaginatus (dens in dente) is common in primary dentition

A

false, uncommon

49
Q

features of dens invaginatus (dens in dente)

A
  1. tooth has deep lingual pit

2. prominent cingulum

50
Q

radiographs of a dens invaginatus (dens in dente) tooth shows what?

A

oval invagination to crown or root

51
Q

complications with dens invaginatus (dens in dente)

A
  1. often becomes carious

2. pulp may become necrotic easily

52
Q

tx for dens invaginatus (dens in dente)

A

tx’d w/ sealant, composite, or possible endo

53
Q

dens evaginatus

A

cusp-like enamel in central groove/lingual ridge of PM or molar

54
Q

which tooth is most often involved with dens evaginatus?

A

bilateral mand PMs

55
Q

T/F: dens evaginatus is common in primary teeth

A

false, rare

56
Q

what can dens evaginatus be associated with?

A

shovel-shaped incisors

57
Q

tx for dens evaginatus

A

(progressive) enameloplasty

58
Q

complications with dens evaginatus

A
  1. may contain pulp
  2. can cause traumatic occlusion
  3. can fracture off
  4. can cause deviation of tooth eruption
  5. may require endo
59
Q

talon cusp

A

cusp on lingual of anterior teeth

60
Q

complication with talon cusp

A

may contain pulpal tissue

61
Q

tx of talon cusp

A
  1. progressuve enameloplasty
  2. sealant
  3. composite
  4. potential endo
62
Q

root dilaceration

A

abnormal angulation or curvature of root

63
Q

cause of root dilaceration

A
  1. idiopathic

2. may be due to intrusion or trauma of primary tooth affecting developing tooth

64
Q

complications of root dilaceration

A
  1. can delay/inhibit eruption –> may require ortho

2. can create difficult ext

65
Q

developmental alterations to tooth structure

A
  1. molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH)
  2. amelogenesis imperfecta
  3. dentinogenesis imperfecta
  4. dentin dysplasia
  5. enamel hypoplasia
  6. fluorosis
  7. regional odontodysplasia
66
Q

molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH) affects which tooth?

A

perm 1st molars and incisors

67
Q

cause of molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH)

A

due to ameloblast fxn problem

68
Q

origin of molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH)

A

unknown but likely multifactorial

  1. abx
  2. nutritional deficiency
  3. pre-term birth
  4. toxins
69
Q

appearance of molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH) teeth

A

teeth are “chalky” and mottled

70
Q

complications of molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH)

A
  1. teeth are more susceptible to caries

2. teeth are often sensitive

71
Q

tx for molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH) depends on what?

A

severity/presentation

72
Q

tx for molar-incisor hypomineralization (MIH)

A
  1. remineralization
  2. restoration
  3. crown
  4. extraction
73
Q

amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)

A

group of conditions caused by gene mutation

74
Q

what is disrupted/disturbed in amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)?

A

enamel fxn

75
Q

4 major types of amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)

A
  1. hypoplastic
  2. hypomaturation
  3. hypocalcified
  4. hypoplastic-hypomaturation
76
Q

inherited gene mutation for amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)

A

can be…

  1. autosomal dominant
  2. autosomal recessive
  3. x-linked
77
Q

T/F: amelogenesis imperfecta (AI) affects only the permanent dentition

A

false, affects primary and perm

78
Q

hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)

A

inadequate enamel matrix deposition (thin enamel)

79
Q

inheritance of hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta (AI)

A

autosomal dominant

80
Q

T/F: some pts with hypoplastic AI have anterior open bite

A

true

81
Q

appearance of hypoplastic AI

A

enamel appearance varies…

  1. pitted
  2. rough
  3. smooth
  4. yellow
  5. brown
82
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI)

A

defect of predentin matrix

83
Q

dentin of pts with dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI)

A

hereditary opalescent dentin

84
Q

cause of dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI)

A

mutation of DSPP (dentin sialophosphoprotein) gene

85
Q

T/F: dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI) affects only the perm dentition

A

false, both primary and perm

86
Q

type 1 dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI)

A

osteogenesis imperfecta + DI

87
Q

type 2 dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI)

A

isolated DI

88
Q

type 3 dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI)

A

Brandywine DI

89
Q

inheritance for dentin dysplasia type I

A

autosomal dominant inheritance

90
Q

what does the primary teeth look like in pts with dentin dysplasia type I?

A

look like DI

91
Q

what does the perm teeth look like in pts with dentin dysplasia type I?

A

appear normal…

  1. normal shape and color
  2. roots/pulp are thistle-tubed
92
Q

T/F: pulp stones are common for pts with dentin dysplasia type I

A

true

93
Q

dentin dysplasia type 2

A

defect in root sheath

94
Q

inheritance of dentin dysplasia type 2

A

autosomal dominant

95
Q

features of pts with dentin dysplasia type 2

A
  1. teeth appear normal clinically
  2. teeth have short or obliterated roots
  3. pulp is obliterated or crescent-shaped
96
Q

fluorosis

A

due to excess intake of fluoride during tooth development

97
Q

T/F: municipal water have higher fluoride levels than wells/pumps

A

false, less

98
Q

features of fluorosis

A
  1. chalky/streaky white enamel
  2. brown stains
  3. pits
99
Q

mild fluorosis may cause teeth to what?

A

be less prone to caries

100
Q

moderate/severe fluorosis causes what?

A

pitting and makes teeth more prone to caries

101
Q

tx for mild/moderate fluorosis

A
  1. bleaching

2. microabrasion

102
Q

tx for moderate/severe fluorosis

A
  1. crowns
  2. veneers
  3. composite restorations
103
Q

what might fluorosis appear like?

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

104
Q

regional odontodysplasia is also called what?

A

odontogenesis imperfecta “ghost teeth”

105
Q

T/F: regional odontodysplasia is common

A

false, rare, non-hereditary

106
Q

which part of the tooth is affected by regional odontodysplasia?

A
  1. enamel
  2. dentin
  3. pulp
107
Q

radiographic appearance of regional odontodysplasia

A

dark, undefined

108
Q

complications with regional odontodysplasia

A
  1. teeth may not erupt properly

2. easily infected

109
Q

T/F: regional odontodysplasia is only isolated to a region (quad)

A

false, can be global too

AU '18 - Peds III exam II (9 decks)

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