Definitions

Question 1

Accelerate stop distance

Answer 1

Length of take off run available plus any available stopway

Question 2

Adequate aerodrome

Answer 2

Aerodrome that is suitable for the aircraft to divert to, it has category 4 or higher firefighting abilities with 30 minutes prior notice and meets the requirements prescribed in part 121

Question 3

Approach control

Answer 3

ATS for the arriving and departing aircraft

Question 4

Area navigation

Answer 4

Method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or spaced based navigation methods, or within the limits of self contained navigation systems, or a combination

Question 5

Augmented crew

Answer 5

Crew on an aeroplane that is compromised of more than the minimum crew required by the certification

Question 6

CAT II precision approach

Answer 6

Precision instrument approach with decision height between 100-200 feet and a runway visual range of not less than 300 meters

Question 7

CAT III A vs. CAT III B vs. CAT IIIC precision approaches

Answer 7

A: Minimum decision height = 0ft - 100ft, Minimum RVR= 175m

B: minimum decision height = 0ft - 50ft, minimum RVR= 50m- 175m

C: no minimum decision height or RVR

Question 8

Contaminated runway

Answer 8

25% of runway surface area in the required landing distance is covered by surface water, slush or loses snow more than 3mm in depth, or there is any ice on the runway

Question 9

Decision altitude

Answer 9

Height AMSL on an instrument approach that a missed approach must be conducted if visual reference has not been established

Question 10

Decision height

Answer 10

The height AGL that a missed approach must be commenced on an instrument approach if visual reference has not been established

Question 11

Escorted passenger

Answer 11

Passengers requiring the personal attendance of an escort during an ATO

Question 12

Instrument approach procedure

Answer 12

A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to the flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, start of the arrival route to a point where landing can be completed; or if landing cannot be completed continue to a holding position.

Question 13

Instrument flight

Answer 13

Aircraft is piloted with sole reference to the instruments, without external reference points

Question 14

Instrument time

Answer 14

Instrument flight time plus any time that a pilot is practicing simulated instrument flight on an approved mechanical device

Question 15

Mach number

Answer 15

Ratio of airspeed to the speed of sound

Question 16

MDA

Answer 16

Minimum descent altitude: the minimum height AMSL that you can descend to on a non precision approach or circling approach without visual reference

Question 17

MDH

Answer 17

Minimum descent height: the minimum height AGL that you can descend to on a non precision approach or circling approach without visual reference

Question 18

Minimum safe altitude

Answer 18

The minimum safe altitude you can descent to that gives terrain clearance within the total area of navigation tolerance

Question 19

Precision approach procedure

Answer 19

Instrument approach procedure that uses guidance in the azimuth and the glide path

Question 20

Pressure altitude

Answer 20

Atmospheric pressure, expressed in terms of altitude, which corresponds to the pressure in the standard atmosphere

Question 21

Reporting point

Answer 21

Specific geographic location in relation to which aircraft position can be reported.

Solid triangle means it is required, hollow triangle means it is is not required

Question 22

Required navigation performance

Answer 22

Statement of the navigation performance accuracy necessary for the operation within a defined area of airspace

A containment value in nm from the intended position that the aircraft can remain within 95% of the time

Question 23

RVR

Answer 23

Runway visual range: range that a pilot can see the runway surface markings, or lights determining the runway and centreline

Question 24

ZFT simulator

Answer 24

Zero flight time simulator: simulator that has full motion and has its own registration. You do not need to fly the actual aircraft before gaining approval to operate it.

Question 25

ACAS

Answer 25

Airborne collision avoidance system: independent of atc and SSR radar to detect collision threats

Question 26

IFSD

Answer 26

In flight shutdown

Question 27

RVSM

Answer 27

Reduced vertical separation minima: allows 1000ft vertical foot separation of 2 RVSM approved aircraft in the same RVSM

Question 28

TAWS. What does it require to work?

Answer 28

Terrain awareness and warning system.

Requires interaction with SSR to determine if aircraft are in a position to be at threat. Also requires ADS-B

Question 29

What is satisfactory visual reference?

Answer 29

Approach lighting
Threshold markings
Threshold lights
Runway end identification lights
PAPI
Touchdown zone markings
Runway or runway markings
Runway lights

Question 30

Adequate Rest Facilities

Answer 30

rest facilities considered by the director to be sufficiently segregated and comfortable so as to provide suitable rest for resting flight crew members, having regard to the service concerned

Question 31

Air Operations

Answer 31

Any air operation in accordance with Part 121 or 125 or an air transport operation in accordance with Part 135

Question 32

Disrupted schedule

Answer 32

A schedule that be reason of circumstance outside the control of the operator is prevented from being completed within its scheduled time

Question 33

Duty Period

Answer 33

Any continuous period throughout which a flight crew member is required by an operator to be on duty or available for duty, whether on the ground or in the air.

Question 34

External Operation

Answer 34

An operation, excluding an operation to the Chatham Islands, the greater part of which is carried outside the territorial water of NZ

Question 35

Internal Operation

Answer 35

An operation that is carried out between places in New Zealand, and includes an operation between the islands of NZ

Question 36

Rest Period

Answer 36

Any period of time on the ground during which a flight crew member is relieved of all duties by the operator

Question 37

Standby Period

Answer 37

The period of time during which a flight crew member is required to hold themselves available for active duty

Question 38

Stay in area

Answer 38

A stopover in an area for a period that includes facility for 2 normal nights rest. eg. 2 consecutive periods between midnight and 6am local time

Question 39

Tour of duty

Answer 39

The period of time commencing at the start of duties at the home base, prior to a series of flights, ending at the home base on completion of the duties associated with series of flights.

Question 40

Total hours of duty

Answer 40

The sum of the duty periods within any particular period that a flight crew member is at the disposal of an operator

Question 41

Movement area

Answer 41

Manoeuvring area plus any aprons and maintenance areas

Question 42

Manouvering area

Answer 42

part of an AD to be used for T/O and LDG of aircraft and for the surface movement of aircraft associated with T/O and LDG

Question 43

Air Transport Operation

Answer 43

an operation for the carriage of passengers or goods by air for hire or reward except;

• A CTO
• An adventure operation
• A trial flight
• Heli external load
• Ag aircraft operation

Question 44

Ceiling

Answer 44

Height AGL of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky

Question 45

Command Practice

Answer 45

Performance of a co-pilot of the duties and functions of a PIC during flight under the supervision of PIC as designated by the operator

Question 46

CTO

Answer 46

Comercial Transport Operation
-An operation of the carriage of goods or cargo by air for hire or reward where:
=Every person is performing a task or duty on the operation
=Pax or goods are carried to of from a remote aerodrome