defenses to torts Flashcards

1
Q

self defense

A

A D is excused from liability resulting from D’s [1] use of reasonable force [2]
necessary to prevent harmful or offensive contact, confinement, or imprisonment [3] when D
reasonably believes [4] necessary to prevent an imminent threat of injury to D. As an affirmative
defense, D has the burden to prove these elements by a preponderance of the evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

reasonable force

A

An individual may respond to
threatened harm they reasonably—even if mistakenly—believe necessary to prevent harm
to themselves. It is applied as an objective standard and therefore ignores any particular
sensitivities or paranoia unique to D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

degree of force

A

The degree of force used by D must be reasonably necessary,
under the circumstances, to prevent the threatened harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

deadly force

A

Deadly force used in self-defense, in most
jurisdictions, is justified only where D is threatened with serious bodily injury
or death, D issues a verbal demand to cease, and D retreats before using
deadly force. Even if D is in their own home, D can only use deadly force to
repel an invader when they reasonably believe the invader threatens harm to
D or other persons in D’s home. However, where D reasonably believes
demand and retreat would expose them to greater threat of injury or death
due to the delay in the face of imminence, no such demand and/or retreat is
necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TO PREVENT IMMINENT / HARMFUL OR OFFENSIVE CONTACT RULE:

A

see rules from assault and battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

private necessity

A

A D may assert the privilege of private necessity to shield them from nominal
and punitive—but not compensatory—damages where D’s [1] interference with the land or
property of another [2] was necessary to prevent greater harm to D’s person, D’s property, or
third persons’ person or property [3] with no less-damaging way of preventing the harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

preventing greater harm to self/ other rule

A

A D is privileged under
private necessity if the damage to P’s interests were reasonably necessary to avoid
greater harm to D (or others’) person or property. There must be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

damages private necessity

A

Even if D’s intrusion on P’s land is privileged by reason of private necessity,
D must pay compensatory damages for any actual damages to P.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

public necssity

A

necessity is a complete defense (exists when the defendant’s interference is done to protect the community at large).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

consent

A

Consent is a defense to intentional tort liability so long as the consent is valid.

Generally, consent is valid when it is objectively manifested (express or implied) or imposed by law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

implied intent

A

based on the nature of plaintiffs activities

found through local use or customs
scope may not be succeeded\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

apparent consent

A

behavior indicticating and communicating consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

express consent

A

a clear expression of specific consent to contact confinement or another act

scope may not be succeeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

medical reasons consent not needed

A

medical reasons consent not needed
\patient unable to give consent
risk of bodily harm
reasonable person would consent under the circumstances
physician has no reason to believe this person would refuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

reasons consent is invalid

A

The defendant has actual knowledge that the plaintiff does not consent.
The plaintiff lacks capacity to consent.
The defendant acts beyond the scope of consent granted by the plaintiff.
The purported consent is induced by fraud.
The purported consent is induced by physical threat.
The act the plaintiff purportedly consents to is criminal in that jurisdiction (traditional majority rule).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly