Def1 Flashcards

1
Q

A complication of Infectious mononucleosis?

A

acute airway obstruction(C/S inpatient with risk of o)
Hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia
Splenic rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hyperkalemia managment indication?

A

if >=6.5

If symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

management?

A

Insulin + glucose

calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

vestibular neuritis?

A

Acute persistent vertigo
may have an ass. nausea, vomiting, and ataxia
following URT viral infection
may have hearing loss and fullness sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

erythropoietin indication?

A

ESRD + Hg < 10 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

S/E?

A

mild or severe HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

age-related Sicca syndrome?

A

Dry eye and oral area
d/t from shorgen(in young and posetive ANA)
associated with DM and throid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arsenic poisoning symptoms?

A
ACUTE
Garlic breath
vomiting 
Diharoa
QT prolongation
Hepatitis
pancytopenia
Chronic
skin hypo/hyperpigmentation
mees line(horizontal straination of finger line
stock glove pnurophaty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Precontemplation?

A

patient dosnt ready to change

not acknowledge it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

action?

A

encourage the patient to evaluate the consequences of his behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Contemplation?

A

patient ambivalent

acknowledge it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

action?

A

evaluate the pros and cons of his action

promote new behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

preparation?

A

ready to change

encourage small initial action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

action?

A

start to change

help to identify an appropriate strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

maintenance?

A

change integrated
give follow up and social support
prevent relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Identification?

A

action is automatic

praise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

marijuana(cannabis) intoxication sign?

A
tachycardia
tachypnea
dry mouth
injected conjunctiva
increase appetite
slow reaction time
impaired concentration
short term memory, cognition, and coordination may be affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Transient tachypnea of newborn pathophysiology?

A

Defect in reabsorption of fluid produced by alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Risk factor?

A

Prematurity
C/S
Maternal DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CM?

A

Tachypnea
Clear chest on auscultation
Hypoxia
CXR:Hyperinfleted lung and fluid in intraaleveolar space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

management?

A

Supportive
Nutrition and o2
self resolve within 1-3 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

other than ABCDE for melanoma suspicion?

A

Ugley duck sign: Melanoma different appearance to other surrounding nevi
Elevation from the surrounding area
Firm to palpation
continuous growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

electrolyte abnormality in tumor lysis syndrome?

A
High PKU(Pos.Pot.UA)
LOW Ca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Macrocephaly in children’s definition?

A

HC>97%

can be pathologic or benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
benign cause?
``` MCC Familial macrocephaly due to megalocephaly treatment not needed only U/S needed to exclude other pathology No need of MRI/CT ```
26
Clinical feature for benign?
normal development no syndromic feature No sign of ICP No sign of infection
27
Fibrocystic change of breast?
due to estrogen and progesterone dysregulation Bilateral ,fibrocystic ( cord-like) mass. perimenestruan difuse breast and chest tenderness
28
management?
1stL: NSAID 2nd: OCP
29
peripheral single blu inclusion in RBC?
Immature RBC Nuclear remaining(HJB) Normally cleared by splenic macrophage Occur inpatients with functional absence or complete absence of the spleen.
30
Differentials?
``` Lead poisoning (ribosomal remaining, Multiple blue staining(striping)) G6PD(oxidized Hgb Onley seen by CV staining and will have bite cells) ```
31
what to do inpatient with first DVT w/o underlying risk?
age-appropriate cancer screening
32
when to r/o genetic cause?
age <45 recurrent unesual site/multiple site VT family history
33
lung cancer screening protocol?
low dose CT is recommended yearly 55-80 more than 30 pack smoking hx/quite in last 15 year terminate if age 80, stoped >15 years or unable to perform lung surgery or other medical condition lower life expectancy
34
varicocele management?
resection inpatient who desire fertility and have testicular atrophy/infertility Support and NSAID in older who do not need fertility
35
things to do in hyperkalemia?
first, do ECG Treatment(Caglu/Insulin + Glucose) if symptomatic/ECG changes, or if K>7 or rapid raising K in executive tissue releasing pathology(TLS),
36
the first step in the management of BZD toxicity?
maintain respiration | then flumazenil can be given
37
MRI sign of MS?
A multifocal ovoid lesion in the periventricular area, Corpus callosum, cerebellum, optic nerve, and spine.
38
acute exacerbation management?
IV Corticosteroid | Plasma exchange if not respond
39
idiopatic ICH in prepubertal?
``` visual sx(diplopia, visual loss, optic disk swelling and blind spot enlargement be noticed) headache is not common ```
40
common underlying valvular pathology in IE?
MVP with MR
41
atypical lymphocyte?
large vacoulated cell EBC(+ MST) CMV(-ve MST and + IgM 0
42
age-induced sleep disorder?
``` inc sleep latency frequent nighttime awakening morning awakeness slow-wave from sleep daytime napping non-pharmacologic treatment is recomended ```
43
when to suspect medication-induced mania/depression?
pt with no previous psychotic sx | dopamine agonist usage
44
medication-induced headache?
not daily sx | hx of analgesic abuse
45
warning sign inpatient in headache that requires early imaging?
``` seizure, AMS, and FND change frq, intensity and character of headache onset age >40 trauma hx awakening headache sudden onset ```
46
Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder?
Due to degeneration of spinal nuclei which inhibit motor activity during REM Common in elderly Maybe sign of neurodegenerative disorder Common in late night when REM pase increase
47
CM?
Motor activity while on sleep The patient remember the dream but not the activity Increase frequency as it persists may have motor symptoms of neurodegenerative disease
48
what about a nightmare?
occur in REM as RBD | but have no motor symptom
49
what about sleepwalking?
``` Occur in younger Occur in Non-REM (N3) difficult to awake they may have motor activity doesn't remember the episode confusion after awakening ```
50
night terror?
scream and are very frightened and confused. They thrash around violently and are often not aware of their surroundings. may not be able to respond to being talked to, comforted, or awakened. maybe sweating, breathing very fast (hyperventilating), having a fast heart rate, and widened (dilated) pupils. The spell may last 10 to 20 minutes, then occur in N3 doesn't remember
51
schizoaffective disorder?
MDD/MANIA incongruent with psychosis >2 weeks of psychotic SX in absence of MDD/MAnia Mood SX are prominent and recurent
52
Pediatric migraine?
MCC of pediatric headache | unlike adult bifrontal and have a short duration
53
what management is atypical in granulosal cell tumors?
ENdometrial biopsy
54
fecal incontinence in postpartum?
if anal sphincter function is intact consider benign(EAS relaxation)---reassurance and obs.(Pelvic exersise) If anal sphincter fun is lost or irregularity--Do U/S and then surgery
55
cause of primary ovarian insuf.?
``` TS FXS Chemo Radiotherapy Autoimmune ophoritis galactosemia ```
56
triads of conjenital toxo?
chorioretinitis(late infancy) diffuze intracranial calcification hydrocephalus
57
specific sign for eating disorder?
AN: BMI<18.5 BN: Compensatory behavior for excessive feeding BED: Binge eating w/o compensatory behavior
58
drug for each of NR and CBT fails?
AN:Olanzepine BN:SSRI BED:SSRI/lixdexamphitamin/topiramet
59
common cardiac anomaly in Edward?
VSD
60
cyanosis in the neonate in the first few days?
acrocyanosis: benign usually central: Hypoxia
61
club foot?
thallus bone deformity due to congenital/compression | gentle manipulation/stretching and intermittent casting
62
risk for vesicovaginal fistula?
pelvic surgery radiation obstetric related pelvic ca
63
Dx?
continuous clear vaginal leakage and granulating tissue | cystoscopy/dye if PE did not diagnose it
64
postoperative pulmonary complication prevention?
``` smoking cessation 4-8 weeks prior deep breathing exercise pain control incentive spirometry treating underlying pulmonary disease ```
65
gout topi?
``` hard mass can involve bursa tendon ligament nearby joint can erode nearby bone ```
66
gout and bursa?
acute bursitis chronic bursitis gout topi
67
what to do if a cataract causes visual impairment?
surgical removal and replace with artificial lenses
68
Peyronie disease managment?
normally resolve within 1-2 year if active progressive(NSAID,Phentoxiphylin and intralesional colagenase) surgery in refractory disease
69
moderately increased urine albumine/Cr ratio?
30-300 need ace/arb if >300 need SGCTI
70
factorial design?
2 or more interventional groups with 2 or more variable study
71
classification of metabolic alkalosis?
1--low urine chloride(<20 meq)/saline responsive | 2--High urine chloride(>20 meq)/saline not responsive
72
LUC cause?
vomiting NG tube aspiration diuretics
73
HUC cause?
1-Hypovolumic--Gitlman/bartner syndrome | 2-Hypervolumic--PHA/PHA/Cushing and ectopic ACTH
74
a common cause of cellulitis after a puncture wound?
S.A | Pseudomonas
75
treatment of ankylosing spondylitis?
1st: exercise 2nd: NSAID 3rd: TNF alpha inhibitor/anti-IL-17 (secukinumab)