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AU 317 Patho/Pharm > Deeper to Nan Tan > Flashcards

Deeper to Nan Tan Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells in the differential are immature cells and are elevated when there has been a “shift to the left”?
- A.K.A “stabs” and “bands”

A

Immature white blood cells- specifically neutrophils
- A “shift to the left” refers to an increase in the number of immature white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, known as “bands” or “stabs”.
- Historically, the immature cells were listed on the left side

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2
Q

What is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)?

A

A serious lung infection caused by the fungus Pneumocystis jirovecii

Also known as Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

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3
Q

Which fungus causes Pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

This fungus is a significant pathogen in immunocompromised individuals.

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4
Q

Who is primarily affected by Pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Individuals with weakened immune systems

This includes those with HIV/AIDS, cancer, or on immunosuppressive medications.

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5
Q

True or False: Pneumocystis pneumonia can affect healthy individuals.

A

False

It primarily affects individuals with compromised immune systems.

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6
Q

Fill in the blank: Pneumocystis pneumonia is also known as _______.

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

This alternative name reflects the causative agent.

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7
Q

What type of infection is Pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Lung infection

It specifically targets the respiratory system.

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8
Q

Decerebrate (Extensor) Posturing

A

Increased muscle excitability leading to specific rigid body positioning.
- Arms: Rigid with palms turned away from the body.
- Legs: Stiffly extended.
- Feet: Plantar flexion (toes pointed down).
Cause:
- Rostral-to-caudal deterioration: Lesions in the diencephalon affecting the midbrain and upper brain stem.

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9
Q

: Abnormal body posture indicating severe brain injury.
Characteristics:
Arms: Flexion of arms, wrists, and fingers with adduction of the upper extremities.
Legs: Internal rotation and plantar flexion of the lower extremities.
Cause:
Lesions: In the cerebral hemisphere or internal capsule

A

Decorticate (flexor) posturing

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10
Q

: A serious fungal infection of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

Risk Factors: Primarily affects immunocompromised individuals (e.g., HIV/AIDS, organ transplant recipients, patients on immunosuppressive therapy)

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

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11
Q

Tests for Cryptococcal meningitis

A

Spinal tap
- to examine cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) - blood tests
-for fungal markers

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12
Q

Symptoms:
Headache
Fever
Neck stiffness
Sensitivity to light
Altered mental status
Severe cases: Seizures and coma

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

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13
Q

A group of bacteria causing lung disease, primarily affecting immunocompromised individuals
-found in soil, water, and dust
Symptoms:
Chronic cough
Fatigue
Weight loss
Fever
Night sweats
Tests: Sputum culture, chest X-ray, or CT scan

A

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

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14
Q

bicarbonate loss in urine leads to increased potassium excretion and shifts potassium into cells, both of which contribute to _________.

A

hypokalemia

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15
Q

how does bicarbonate loss in urine relate to hypokalemia?

A

Through several mechanisms:

Electroneutrality:
When bicarbonate is excreted in the urine, it carries a negative charge. To maintain electrical balance, positively charged ions like potassium (K+)are also excreted along with it
Volume Depletion:
Loss of bicarbonate often occurs in conditions that cause volume depletion (e.g., vomiting, diuretic use). The kidneys respond by increasing sodium reabsorption to conserve water, which can lead to increased potassium excretion
Metabolic Alkalosis:
Conditions causing bicarbonate loss can also lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated blood pH). In this state, potassium shifts from the blood into cells, further lowering blood potassium levels

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16
Q

Dopamine’s ability to increase blood pressure through vasoconstriction at higher doses makes it an effective vasopressor in _______ and _______ care settings.

A

emergency, critical

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17
Q

___________ effects vary with the dose:
Low doses (1-3 mcg/kg/min):
- Primarily stimulate dopamine receptors, leading to vasodilation in the kidneys and increased urine output.

Moderate doses (5-10 mcg/kg/min): -Stimulate beta-1 adrenergic receptors, _________ heart rate and cardiac output.

High doses (10-20 mcg/kg/min): - Stimulate alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure

A

Dopamine’s, increasing

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18
Q

Lymphocytes are elevated in blood differential of those infected with a virus because

A

Lymphocytes are essential for identifying, attacking, and remembering viral pathogens

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19
Q

__________ is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat
edema caused by congestive heart failure, liver disease, hypertension, hyperkalemia, and
hyperaldosterone.

A

Spironolactone

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20
Q

Leukocytes vs. Lymphocytes

A

Scope: Leukocytes encompass all white blood cells, while lymphocytes are a subset of leukocytes.
Role: Leukocytes provide broad immune defense, whereas lymphocytes are specialized for adaptive immunity

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21
Q

A CBC blood test that includes a ________ measures the different types of white blood cells (WBCs) in your blood.
-To check the levels and proportions of different WBCs, which can indicate infections, immune disorders, and other health issue

A

differential

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22
Q

WBC differential: slightly elevated WBC, high amounts of more mature neutrophils (segs) indicates what immune response?

A

Inflammatory response

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23
Q

a differential with higher WBC overall, would indicate a _________ infection

A

bacterial

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24
Q

What is the primary cause of UTIs that are treated with antimicrobial therapy?

A

E. coli

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25
Q

Which medications are commonly used for UTI treatment?

A
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Macrobid
  • Bactrim
  • Fosfomycin
  • Nitrofurantoin
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26
Q

What is the action of urinary tract anti-infectives?

A

Acidification of urine, causing bacterial cell death

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27
Q

What specific patient population should not be given Fosfomycin?

A

Children <12 years

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28
Q

Which medication is recommended for use in pregnancy for UTI treatment?

A

Fosfomycin

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29
Q

What adverse effects are associated with urinary tract anti-infectives?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Bladder irritation
  • Confusion
  • Photosensitivity
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30
Q

What is lorazepam used to treat?

A

Anxiety, insomnia, aggression, ETOH withdrawal

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31
Q

What is the mechanism of action for lorazepam?

A

Acts on limbic system to enhance GABA, interferes with neuron firing

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32
Q

What are common adverse effects of lorazepam?

A
  • Sedation
  • Hypotension
  • Drowsiness
  • Lightheadedness
  • Confusion
  • Dry mouth
  • Decreased libido
  • Palpitations
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33
Q

What is the main difference between buspirone and benzodiazepines?

A

Buspirone does not have sedative or anticonvulsant properties

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34
Q

What is amitriptyline classified as?

A

Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)

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35
Q

What is the action of amitriptyline?

A

Blocks reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

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36
Q

What are the adverse effects of amitriptyline?

A
  • Sedation
  • Anticholinergic effects
  • Hypotension
  • Hallucinations
  • Weakness
  • Tremors
  • Fatigue
  • BP changes
  • Arrhythmias
  • MI
  • Angina
  • Palpitations
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37
Q

What is fluoxetine commonly known as?

A

Prozac

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fluoxetine?

A

Blocks reuptake of serotonin, increasing its concentration in the synapse

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39
Q

What are the indications for fluoxetine?

A
  • Depression
  • OCD
  • Panic attacks
  • Bulimia
  • Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
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40
Q

What are the adverse effects of fluoxetine?

A
  • Headache
  • Nervousness
  • Insomnia
  • Drowsiness
  • Anxiety
  • Tremor
  • Dizziness
  • Sweating
  • Rash
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Dry mouth
  • Anorexia
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Upper respiratory infections
  • Weight loss
  • Fever
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41
Q

True or False: Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic.

A

True

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42
Q

What is the action of chlorpromazine?

A

Blocks postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the brain

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43
Q

What are common adverse effects of chlorpromazine?

A
  • Drowsiness
  • Insomnia
  • Vertigo
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Photophobia
  • Blurred vision
  • Dry mouth
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Anorexia
  • Urinary retention
  • Photosensitivity
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44
Q

What is a major risk when using lithium?

A

Toxicity leading to severe CNS, renal, and pulmonary problems

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45
Q

What are therapeutic levels of lithium?

A

0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L

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46
Q

What is the action of phenytoin?

A

Stabilizes nerve membranes throughout the CNS by influencing ionic channels

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47
Q

What is a contraindication for the use of phenytoin?

A

Hepatic impairment

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48
Q

What are the adverse effects of phenytoin?

A
  • Depression
  • Confusion
  • Drowsiness
  • Lethargy
  • Ataxia
  • Dysarthria
  • Slurred speech
  • Mental confusion
  • Dizziness
  • Fatigue
  • Tremor
  • Headache
  • Dermatitis
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  • Nausea
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Liver damage
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49
Q

What is the action of carbamazepine?

A

Inhibits polysynaptic responses and blocks sodium channels

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50
Q

What is the indication for levodopa?

A

Treatment of Parkinson’s disease

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51
Q

What is the combination commonly given with levodopa?

A

Carbidopa

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52
Q

What adverse effects are associated with levodopa?

A
  • Adventitious movements
  • Ataxia
  • Increased hand tremor
  • Dizziness
  • Numbness
  • Weakness
  • Agitation
  • Anxiety
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Dry mouth
  • Dysphagia
  • Urinary retention
  • Flushing
  • Cardiac irregularities
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53
Q

What is cyclobenzaprine used for?

A

Relief of acute skeletal muscle injury in adults

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54
Q

What is the action of dantrolene?

A

Interferes with the release of calcium, preventing muscle contraction

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55
Q

What is the indication for morphine?

A

Relief of moderate to severe chronic and acute pain

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56
Q

What are the common adverse effects of opioids?

A
  • Light-headedness
  • Dizziness
  • Sedation
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Dry mouth
  • Constipation
  • Respiratory depression
  • Apnea
  • Circulatory depression
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57
Q

What is the action of dopamine as an adrenergic agonist?

A

Stimulates both beta and alpha receptors

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58
Q

What is clonidine used to treat?

A

Essential hypertension, chronic pain, opiate withdrawal

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59
Q

What are the risks of abruptly stopping adrenergic blocking agents?

A

Myocardial infarction, stroke, and arrhythmias

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60
Q

What is the indication for non-selective beta-adrenergic blocking agents?

A

Treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris

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61
Q

What are the risks associated with abruptly stopping beta blockers after long-term use?

A

Angina, myocardial infarction (MI), hypertension, and stroke due to receptor hypersensitivity.

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62
Q

What is the primary indication for Propranolol?

A

Treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, and prevention of reinfarction after MI.

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63
Q

What action does Propranolol perform in the body?

A

Competitively blocks beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart and reduces vascular tone in the CNS.

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64
Q

List some adverse effects of Propranolol.

A
  • Allergic reaction
  • Bradycardia
  • Heart failure
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Cerebrovascular accident
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Gastric pain
  • Flatulence
  • Impotence
  • Decreased exercise tolerance
  • Bronchospasm
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65
Q

True or False: Metoprolol is a beta1-selective adrenergic blocking agent.

A

True

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66
Q

What is the indication for Bethanechol?

A

Treatment of urinary retention.

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67
Q

What is the action of Bethanechol?

A

Acts directly on cholinergic receptors to increase tone of detrusor muscles and cause bladder emptying.

68
Q

What is Atropine used for?

A

To decrease secretions, treat bradycardia, and as a cholinergic antidote.

69
Q

What are some adverse effects of Atropine?

A
  • Blurred vision
  • Pupil dilation
  • Photophobia
  • Cycloplegia
  • Increased intraocular pressure
70
Q

What do anticholinergic agents do?

A

Block the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system.

71
Q

Fill in the blank: NSAIDs inhibit _______ synthesis.

A

prostaglandin

72
Q

What is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs?

A

Stomach ulcers.

73
Q

What is the purpose of Misoprostol?

A

Prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers.

74
Q

What syndrome is associated with the use of salicylates in children?

A

Reye’s syndrome.

75
Q

What is the antidote for Tylenol overdose?

A

Acetylcysteine.

76
Q

What are Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers used for?

A

To slow inflammatory response in arthritis.

77
Q

List some potential adverse effects of TNF blockers.

A
  • Serious infections
  • Lymphomas
  • Myocardial infarction (MI)
  • Heart failure
  • Hypotension
78
Q

What is the action of Anakinra?

A

Blocks interleukin-1, reducing degradation of cartilage in rheumatoid arthritis.

79
Q

What are the objectives for the treatment of gout?

A
  • Termination of acute attacks
  • Prevention of future attacks
  • Correction of hyperuricemia
80
Q

What is the first-line treatment for hyperthyroidism in Graves’ disease?

A

Surgical removal of the thyroid gland or medication like propylthiouracil.

81
Q

What is the primary use of Esomeprazole?

A

To suppress the secretion of hydrochloric acid and treat gastric ulcers.

82
Q

Name a common side effect of antiemetics.

A

Drowsiness.

83
Q

What is Dronabinol indicated for?

A

Relief of nausea and vomiting in cancer patients.

84
Q

What is the indication for Gentamicin?

A

Treatment of serious infections caused by gram-negative bacteria.

85
Q

What are the therapeutic levels for Theophylline?

A

10 to 20 mcg/mL.

86
Q

What is the action of Ivermectin?

A

Blocks calcium channels, leading to nerve and muscle paralysis.

87
Q

Fill in the blank: Proton pump inhibitors like Esomeprazole are indicated for _______.

A

gastric ulcers

88
Q

What is a potential risk of using antibiotics?

A

Superinfection.

89
Q

What is the drug of choice for children with nausea?

A

Prochlorperazine

Prochlorperazine is effective with rapid onset and minimal adverse effects.

90
Q

What are the adverse effects of Prochlorperazine?

A

Photosensitivity, red brown pink urine

Patients should wear sunscreen and stay hydrated.

91
Q

What is the therapeutic range for theophylline levels?

A

10 to 20 mcg/mL

92
Q

List some adverse effects of increasing theophylline levels.

A
  • GI upset
  • Nausea
  • Irritability
  • Tachycardia
  • Seizures
  • Brain damage
  • Death
93
Q

What should be avoided when taking theophylline?

A

Caffeine & smoking

94
Q

What are the main actions of sympathomimetic drugs like epinephrine?

A
  • Dilate bronchi
  • Increased BP
  • Increased HR
  • Decreased urination
  • Decreased GI flow
95
Q

What should be assessed when using sympathomimetic drugs?

A
  • Pulse
  • Blood pressure
  • Baseline electrocardiogram
  • Respirations
  • Liver function
96
Q

What are common side effects of anabolic steroids in men?

A
  • Gynecomastia
  • Testicular atrophy
  • Priapism
  • Baldness
  • Change in libido
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Personality changes
  • Sexual dysfunction
97
Q

What are the side effects of anabolic steroids in women?

A
  • Hirsutism
  • Hoarseness
  • Deepening of voice
  • Clitoral enlargement
  • Baldness
  • Menstrual irregularities
  • Insomnia
  • Weight gain
98
Q

What is the action of dutasteride?

A

Shrink prostate and help men to urinate

99
Q

What hormone does estradiol replace?

A

Estrogen

100
Q

What are some indications for estradiol?

A
  • Menopause
  • Postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • Female hypogonadism
  • Female castration
  • Female ovarian failure
  • Breast cancer
  • Prostatic cancer
101
Q

List contraindications for oral contraceptives.

A
  • Breast cancer
  • History of thrombolytic disorders
  • Smokers
  • Pregnancy
  • Hepatic dysfunction
  • PID
  • STIs
  • Endometriosis
  • Epilepsy
  • Migraine headaches
  • Asthma
  • Cardiac or renal dysfunction
102
Q

What are the pros and cons of hormone replacement therapy?

A
  • Pros: Decrease discomforts associated with menopause
  • Cons: Breast and cervical cancer, heart disease, stroke
103
Q

What is the indication for Tamoxifen?

A

Treatment of breast cancer & precocious puberty in females aged 2 to 10 years

104
Q

What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids?

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Impaired wound healing
  • Mask of infection
  • Heart failure
  • Hypotension
  • Infection
105
Q

What is the main action of glucocorticoids?

A

Suppress immune system and treat allergies

106
Q

What is the primary use of spironolactone?

A

Diuretic and blood pressure control

107
Q

What is hydrochlorothiazide used for?

A

Essential hypertension, edema, renal failure

108
Q

What is edrophonium used to treat?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

109
Q

What is a myasthenic crisis?

A

Marked by extreme muscle weakness and respiratory difficulty

110
Q

What should be monitored in older patients taking benzodiazepines?

A

CNS depression and excitability

111
Q

What does erythropoietin stimulate?

A

RBC production in the bone marrow

112
Q

What is the primary indication for levothyroxine?

A

Hypothyroidism

113
Q

What are the considerations for creatine supplements?

A
  • Avoid NSAIDs
  • Drink plenty of fluids
  • Monitor for swelling, muscle cramps, dizziness
114
Q

What are beta2-specific adrenergic agonists prescribed for?

A

Respiratory diseases, such as asthma or COPD

115
Q

List risk factors for nephrotoxicity with contrast dye.

A
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Dehydration
  • Hypotension
  • Heart failure
116
Q

What medication class is indicated by the suffix ‘-alol’?

A

Beta blocker or alpha blocker

This suffix is used for medications that have both beta and alpha-blocking properties.

117
Q

What does the suffix ‘-ase’ typically indicate in medication classes?

A

Enzymes

Medications with this suffix often refer to enzymes involved in biochemical reactions.

118
Q

What type of medication is indicated by the suffix ‘-azepam’?

A

Antianxiety

This suffix is common in benzodiazepines, which are used to treat anxiety disorders.

119
Q

What class of medications is represented by the suffix ‘-bactam’?

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitors

These medications help combat bacterial resistance by inhibiting beta-lactamase enzymes.

120
Q

What type of medication does the suffix ‘-caine’ refer to?

A

Local anesthetics

This suffix is associated with drugs that block sensation in a specific area.

121
Q

What medication class is indicated by the suffix ‘-cilin’?

A

Penicillins

This suffix denotes a group of antibiotics derived from penicillin.

122
Q

What type of medications are indicated by the suffix ‘-conazole’?

A

Antifungals

These medications are used to treat fungal infections.

123
Q

What does the suffix ‘-cycline’ signify in medication classes?

A

Antibiotics

This suffix is typically used for tetracycline antibiotics.

124
Q

What type of medication is indicated by the suffix ‘-dralazine’?

A

Antihypertensives

These medications are used to lower blood pressure.

125
Q

What class of medications does the suffix ‘-flurane’ represent?

A

Inhalation Anesthetic

These are volatile anesthetics used during surgical procedures.

126
Q

The suffix ‘-lukast’ is associated with which type of medication?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists

These medications are used primarily in asthma management.

127
Q

What medication class is indicated by the suffix ‘-mantadine’?

A

Antivirals

This class is used to treat viral infections, particularly influenza.

128
Q

What type of medication does the suffix ‘-mycin’ refer to?

A

Antibiotics

This suffix is commonly seen in macrolide antibiotics.

129
Q

What class of medications is indicated by the suffix ‘-olone’?

A

Steroids

This suffix is often associated with corticosteroids.

130
Q

What medication class is indicated by the suffix ‘-oxacin’?

A

Antibiotics

This suffix is typically used for fluoroquinolone antibiotics.

131
Q

What type of medication is indicated by the suffix ‘-parin’?

A

Heparins

These are anticoagulants used to prevent blood clots.

132
Q

What class of medications is indicated by the suffix ‘-peridol’?

A

Antipsychotics

This suffix is associated with medications used to treat psychotic disorders.

133
Q

What does the suffix ‘-poietin’ signify in medication classes?

A

Erythropoietin

This class of medications stimulates red blood cell production.

134
Q

What medication class is indicated by the suffix ‘-pril’?

A

ACE Inhibitors

These medications are used to treat hypertension and heart failure.

135
Q

What type of medication does the suffix ‘-sartan’ refer to?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

These are used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure.

136
Q

What class of medications is indicated by the suffix ‘-sulfa’?

A

Antibiotics

This suffix is associated with sulfonamide antibiotics.

137
Q

What medication class is indicated by the suffix ‘-thiazide’?

A

Thiazide Diuretics

These medications are used to treat hypertension and edema.

138
Q

What type of medication does the suffix ‘-vastatin’ refer to?

A

HMG-COA inhibitors

These are used to lower cholesterol levels.

139
Q

What class of medications is indicated by the suffix ‘-vir’?

A

Antivirals

This suffix is commonly seen in medications that treat viral infections.

140
Q

Definition: An autosomal recessive trait is a genetic condition that appears only when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent

A

Autosomal Recessive Trait

141
Q

Definition: An autosomal recessive trait is a genetic condition that appears only when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent
-Both parents must be carriers of the mutated gene.

A

Autosomal Recessive Trait

142
Q

What is the primary effect of benzodiazepines on the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, leading to CNS depression, which results in sedation, reduced anxiety, and muscle relaxation.

143
Q

What are the anxiolytic effects of benzodiazepines?

A

Benzodiazepines reduce excessive nervous activity, making them effective in treating anxiety disorders.

144
Q

How do benzodiazepines help with sleep?

A

Benzodiazepines have hypnotic effects, which can induce sleep and are useful for treating insomnia.

145
Q

What is the role of benzodiazepines in muscle relaxation?

A

Benzodiazepines help in relaxing muscles, which can be beneficial in conditions involving muscle spasms.

146
Q

How do benzodiazepines function as anticonvulsants?

A

Benzodiazepines have anticonvulsant properties, making them effective in controlling seizures.

147
Q

What are the amnesic effects of benzodiazepines?

A

Benzodiazepines can cause short-term memory impairment, which is sometimes used therapeutically during medical procedures to prevent the formation of distressing memories.

148
Q

What are common side effects of benzodiazepines?

A

Common side effects include drowsiness, dizziness, and decreased cognitive function. Long-term use can lead to dependence and withdrawal symptoms.

149
Q

What are the risks of combining benzodiazepines with other CNS depressants?

A

Combining benzodiazepines with other CNS depressants, such as opioids or alcohol, can increase the risk of severe side effects like respiratory depression, coma, and death.

150
Q

What is the primary function of the liver in metabolism?

A

The liver plays a key role in metabolism by converting nutrients from food into essential blood components, storing vitamins and minerals, and producing proteins and enzymes that maintain hormonal balance.

151
Q

How does the liver contribute to detoxification?

A

The liver detoxifies the blood by breaking down harmful substances, such as alcohol and drugs, and converting ammonia into urea, which is then excreted in urine.

152
Q

What role does the liver play in digestion?

A

The liver produces bile, which helps digest fats in the small intestine. Bile also carries waste products away from the liver.

153
Q

How does the liver regulate blood sugar levels?

A

The liver converts excess glucose into glycogen for storage and can convert glycogen back into glucose when the body needs energy.

154
Q

What is the role of the liver in protein synthesis?

A

The liver produces various proteins, including albumin, which maintains blood volume and pressure, and clotting factors that are essential for blood coagulation.

155
Q

How does the liver support the immune system?

A

The liver produces immune factors and removes bacteria from the bloodstream, helping to resist infections.

156
Q

What is the significance of the liver in fat metabolism?

A

The liver breaks down fats and produces cholesterol and special proteins to help carry fats through the body.

157
Q

How does the liver handle old red blood cells?

A

The liver processes hemoglobin from old red blood cells to use its iron content and clears bilirubin, a byproduct of red blood cell breakdown.

158
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

A type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood vessels and lymph vessels, causing purple, red, or brown lesions on the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes internal organs.

159
Q

What virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8).

160
Q

Which populations are most commonly affected by Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS, organ transplant recipients, or people undergoing immunosuppressive therapy.

161
Q

Name the four main types of Kaposi’s sarcoma.

A

Epidemic (AIDS-related), Classic, Endemic, Iatrogenic (transplant-related).

162
Q

What are the common treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and antiretroviral therapy for those with HIV/AIDS.

163
Q

Describe the appearance of Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions.

A

Lesions are often purple, red, or brown and can be flat or raised.

164
Q

What is the primary cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma in individuals with HIV/AIDS?

A

A weakened immune system due to HIV infection, allowing HHV-8 to cause cancer.

165
Q

How does immunosuppressive therapy contribute to the development of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

It weakens the immune system, increasing the risk of HHV-8 infection and subsequent cancer development.

166
Q

Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex (MAC)

A

One of the opportunistic Bacterial infections that those with AIDS are at risk for

167
Q

Overt AIDS
- The third phase of HIV infection
- occurs when a person has a CD4+ cell count of ________cells/μL or an AIDS-defining illness

A

< 200

AU 317 Patho/Pharm (5 decks)

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