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STEP 1 MIXED > Deck 5 > Flashcards

Deck 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Most effective Tx for a specific phobia?

A

Behavioral therapy (1st line) benzos second line

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2
Q

What class of drug is rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Factor Xa inhibitors

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3
Q

What are direct throjmbin inhibitors?

A

Argatroban, bivalirudin, dabigatran

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4
Q

What path is inhibited when PT is prolonged?

A

Extrinsic path

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5
Q

What path is inhibited with aPTT is prolonged?

A

Intrinsic path

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6
Q

Which medications prolong PT and aPTT but not TT?

A

Direct Factor Xa inhibitors - Rivaroxaban and apixaban

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7
Q

What does unfractioned heparin do to aPTT, TT, and PT?

A

Prolonges aPTT and TT because it inactivates Xa and thrombin. PT will remain unchanged

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8
Q

What do beta blockers to do heart on ECG?

A

prolong PR interval, slow AV node conduction

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9
Q

WHat does it mean if there is a large Arteriovenous concentration gradient of an anesthetic drug?

A

High tissue solubility and slow onset of action

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10
Q

Complications of prolactinoma?

A

Lack of estrogen –> osteoporosis and symptoms of menopause

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11
Q

What do nitrates do to heart?

A

Decrease preload (left ventricular end diastolic volume) via venodilation

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12
Q

Baby with pulm hypoplasia, flat facies, and limb deformities. What is cause?

A

Potter sequence–> renal agenesis

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13
Q

What medication can treat bipolar + seizures?

A

Valproate. Inhibits sodium gataed GABA channels

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14
Q

Pathogenesis of lung abscess formation?

A

neutrophils release cytotoxic granules–> lysosomes

Cause liquefying necrosis in lung

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15
Q

What is Hereditary Pulmonary HTN caused by? What gene?

A

Smooth muscle proliferation causing arteriolar hyalinization
BMPR2
Loud S2 on auscultation

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16
Q

What nerve is damaged if a person has weakness of shoulder abduction + loss of sensation on upper shoulder?

A

Axillary nerve- deltoid muscle

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17
Q

Patient with impaired plantarflexion, toe flexion, foot inversion, and loss of sensation on sole of foot. What nerve was injured?

A

Tibial nerve

Runs through popliteal fossa, deep injuries or surgery can injure it

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18
Q

What converts 7-dehydrocholicalciferol to cholicalciferol?

A

Sunlight UVB

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19
Q

Why do COPD patients stop breathing when administered high flow O2?

A

Carotid and aortic bodies are most sensitive to pO2 and will turn off if these are too high. Reduction in peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation

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20
Q

What is high in Trisomy 21 for quad test?

A

Inhibin A and B-hCG

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21
Q

If QT interval is prolonged, which ion channel affected?

A

K+ efflux is decreased, leading to longer QT interval and possible ventricular arrhythmias or tosades de pointes

22
Q

What are antibodies against in pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid?

A

PV - desmosomes

BP - hemidesmosomes

23
Q

Where are parietal cells found in stomach? What will be seen in pernicous anemia?

A

Upper glandular layer

Gastric atrophy in fundus and body of stomach

24
Q

What is the most common cause of COPD exacerbation?

A

H. influenzae and rhinovirus

25
Q

What muscle is responsible for humerus extension, adduction, and internal rotation?

A

Lat dorsi

26
Q

What is the latissmus dorsi innervated by?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve C6-C8

27
Q

What’s the hawthorne effect?

A

Subjects change their behavior as a result of knowing they are being studied

28
Q

Patient with normal 46, XX but shows signs of Turner syndrome. What happened?

A

Somatic moaicism –> two genetically different cell lines in body

29
Q

MOA spironolactone causing gynecomastia?

A

Anti-androgenic effects- blocks androgen receptor and causes decreased testosterone production

30
Q

What activates medullary cells (chromaffin cells) in adrenal gland to produce Epinephrine and Norepinephrine?

A

Ach

31
Q

Where is fistula during gallstone ileus?

A

Between gallbladder and ileum

32
Q

WHat is gallbladder ileus?

A

A stone from gallbladder starts to obstruct the biliary tree and gets lodged in ileum, creating symptoms of SBO

33
Q

What will you see on CT scan if there is gallstone ileus?

A

Air in biliary tree***

34
Q

What is the “new normal” BMI?

A

18.5

LOL

35
Q

MOA sumpatriptan in aborting migranes?

A

Stimulate serotonin 5-HT1B/1D agonists pre and post synaptically to inhibit release of CGRP and inhibit vasodilation
CGRP = calcitonin gene related peptide and substance P

36
Q

What are PTH, phosphorus, and calcium levels like in osteoporosis?

A

Normal

37
Q

When does acute rejection of graft occur?

A

<6 months

May be humoral or cell-mediated

38
Q

What happens to clavicle fragments when fractured?

A

Medial portion is pulled superiorly and posteriorly by SCM. Lateral portion is pulled inferior and anterior by pectoralis major

39
Q

What is structural heart change when AS occurs?

A

Increased LV end diastolic pressure

40
Q

How does Wolf-parkinson-white usually present?

A

AV reentrant tachycardia

41
Q

WHat does WPW do to ECG?

A

Shortens PR interval and widens QRS (delta wave)

42
Q

Tx anorexia nervosa?

A

CBT and nutritional rehab

Olanzapine if no response

43
Q

Tx bullemia nervosa?

A

SSRI, CBT, nutritional rehab

44
Q

What is MOA of repaglinide and nateglinide?

A

(Meglitinides) Increases insulin secretion by inhibiting Beta-cell K+-ATP channels

SHort acting, used for post-parandial glucose spikes

45
Q

What nerve supplies sensory innervation to perineum and external genitalia?

A

Pudendal nerve

46
Q

What nerve supplies the rectum?

A

Inferior rectal, branch of pudendal. Below dentate line

47
Q

What is precursor skin lesions to SCC?

A

Actinic keratosis (looks like whispy white patches on people’s skin)

48
Q

When does glucose start being excreted in urine?

A

Above 200mg/dL. This happens because transport maximum of glucose is reached

49
Q

What type of cells are in ovary?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelial cells

50
Q

What type of cells are fallopian tube, uterus, cervix, and vagina?

A

Fallopian and uterus are simple columnar

Cervix – ectocervix is stratified squamous non-keratinized
Vagina is stratfied squamous non-keratinized

As you go down: Cuboidal —> columnar–> stratified squamous

STEP 1 MIXED (13 decks)

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