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STEP 1 MIXED > Deck 3 > Flashcards

Deck 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What medications cause facial flushing, n/v, and headaches after ethanol consumption?

A

Metronidazole “disulfiram like reaction”
Disulfiram
Inhibit acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and causes accumulation of acetaldehyde

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2
Q

What is the most sensitive method for determining pregnancy?

A

Serum B-hcG

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3
Q

What day after fertilization can you detect serum B-hcG? Urine B-hcG?

A 
Day 8 (day 6 = implantation)
Urine B-hcG at 14 days
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4
Q

Symptoms for stroke in anterior cerebral artery?

A

contralateral sensory and motor deficits in lower limbs, urinary incontinence, behavioral changes

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5
Q

Symptoms of stroke in MCA?

A

Contralateral sensory and motor deficits in face, hands, arms, Broca’s aphasia, spacial neglect (parietal lobe), conjugate gaze toward the side of the stroke

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6
Q

What is cutaneous small vessel vasculitis? How do you get it?

A

Vasculitis only affecting skin causing nonblanching palpable purpura

Use of medications like penicillin, cephalosporin, allopurinol

Perivascular inflammation of small vessels with fibrinoid necrosis and neutrophil predominance

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7
Q

Where is resistance greatest in airways?

A

Medium sized bronchi and segmental bronchi (generations 2-5) due to turbulent airflow

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8
Q

MOA terbinafine?

A

Inhibits squalene epoxidase and inhibits synthesis of ergosterol for cell membrane

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9
Q

What antifungals bind ergosterol?

A

Ampho B and nystatin

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10
Q

Which antifungals blocks B-D-glucan?

A

Echinocandins (caspofungin) inhibit cell wall synthesis

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11
Q

Which antifungals disrupt microtubule mitotic spindle?

A

Griseofulvin

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12
Q

How does flucytosine work?

A

Antimetabolite antifungal transormed into 5-FU. Replaces uracil with 5-FU. Used for systemic infections

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13
Q

What are CAAT and TATA sequences?

A

Promotors for DNA transcription and RNA polymerase II binding site

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14
Q

Why does PAH excretion levels plateau?

A

Due to carrier protein saturation

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15
Q

MOA ezetimibe?

A

Decreases intestinal cholesterol absorption, decreasing level of cholesterol in liver, liver then compensates by increasing LDL and drawing cholesterol out of circulation

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16
Q

What do hemosiderin-laden macrophages in lung interstitium indicate?

A

Chronic pulmonary hypertension and congestion. Often secondary to CHF, transudative material and RBC leak into air spaces and cause pulmonary edema

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17
Q

MOA pyridostigmine?

A

Long acting AchE inhibitor

18
Q

What is Tensilon test?

A

Edrophonium (short acting AchE inhibitor) improves symptoms of MG. Indicates Myasthenic Crisis.

19
Q

How does Chonlinergic Crisis present in MG?

A

Muscle weakness, however edrophonium won’t work because AchE already inhibited.

Tx discontinue AchE

20
Q

What medications reduce alcohol cravings? MOA?

A

Naltrexone
Blocks mu-opiod receptor and decreases pleasure when drinking

First line for alcohol misuse disorder

21
Q

How does UV damaged DNA get repaired?

A

Nucleotide excision repair via endonuclease

UV specific endonuclease nicks damaged DNA
Then DNA polymerase synthesizes the excised portion and DNA ligase glues them back together

22
Q

What structures are proximal to the 1st, 2nd and 3rd part of duodenum?

A

1st- pylorus of stomach (only part that is not retroperitoneal)
2nd- head of pancreas
3rd- uncinate of pancreas, IVC, and superior mesenteric artery***

23
Q

What type of cells are involved in contact dermatitis?

A

cytotoxic CD8+ cells

CD4+ help by activating macrophages

24
Q

What type of antibodies present in Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Antibodies against Alpha 3 chain of type IV collagen (anti-GBM)

25
Q

What type of renal disease does Goodpasture syndrome cause?

A

RPGN

26
Q

What if a patient presents with thyrotoxicosis but has low thyroglobulin levels?

A

Exogenous intake of thyroid hormone

27
Q

What will thyroid show on histology with exogenous thyroid intake?

A

Diffuse atrophy of follicles with decreased colloid suppression of thyroid activity (suppression of TSH)

28
Q

What disorder occurs as a result of defective excretion of bilirubin glucuronides?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

29
Q

Random episodes of jaundice, esp with times of stress or illness. No other symptoms. What is it? What do labs show?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Increased direct bilirubin levels
Black liver from accumulation of norepinephrine in lysosomes

30
Q

MOA cromolyn for asthma?

A

Inhibits mast cell degranulation

31
Q

Effects of cholingergics on body?

A 
Pupillary constriction
Vasodilation
Decreased heart rate
Flushing, diaphoresis
N/v, increased smooth muscle tone
Bronchoconstriction

Bethanecol is an example

32
Q

What is the MOA for carbachol and pilocarpine?

A

Cholinergic agonists that lower IOP. Induce miosis by causing iris to move further from cornea (pupil constriction)

33
Q

SE of cholinergic agonists?

A 
non-obstructive urinary retention
N/v
diarrhea
dyspnea
increased lacrimation, sweating, and salivation
34
Q

What structure does ductus arteriosus come from embryologically

A

6th arch along with pulmonary arteries

35
Q

What are aortic vascular derivatives of 1st - 6 arches?

A

1st maxillary artery

2nd hyoid and stapes artery

3rd common carotid and internal carotid

4th aortic arch and R subclavian

6th pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus

36
Q

Which blot is used for testing whether mRNA is being transcribed?

A

Northern blot

37
Q

What does Western blot test for?

A

protein expression

38
Q

What does southern blot test for?

A

DNA bound protein

39
Q

WHat do nucleated erythrocytes and extramedullary erythropoesis mean in newborn?

A

Release of immature RBC, from profound anemia possibly caused by Rh sensitization

40
Q

Which areas of the brain are most susceptible when there is Vfib causing global ischemia?

A

Hippocampus and watershed zones between 2 cerebral arteries, pyamidal cells, purkinje fibers

41
Q

What is the most common cause for lobar hemorrhages?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy. Usually affects occipital and parietal lobes

STEP 1 MIXED (13 decks)

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