Deck 4 Flashcards

1
Q

painless lymphadenopathy

A

this is likely due to malignancy, autoimmune causes, or sarcoid

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2
Q

signs of salicylate poisoning

A

tachypnea, elevated lactate, anion gap metabolic acidosis, confusion, hyperthermia

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3
Q

difference in presentation of salicylate poisoning vs. carbon monoxide poisoning

A

salicylate has hyperthermia and carbon monoxide is no hyperthermia

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4
Q

treatment of legionella

A

fluoroquinolone or macrolide

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5
Q

cause of kidney injury in a patient with acute liver failure due to cirrhosis

A

hepatorenal syndrome –> renal hypoperfusion

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6
Q

treatment of pagets disease

A

bisphosphonates

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7
Q

what is the normal stool osmotic gap

A

50-120

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8
Q

what does it mean if the stool osmotic gap is low

A

this means the diarrhea is secretory

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9
Q

what types of things cause secretory diarrhea

A

toxins, CF, unabsorbed bile acids

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10
Q

are breath sounds increased or decreased in pneumonia

A

breath sounds are increased in pneumonia because sound travels faster in fluid than in air

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11
Q

compare breath sounds in pleural effusion vs. pneumonia

A

in pleural effusion breath sounds are decreased because the fluid outside the lung acts as a barrier for the sound but in pneumonia the fluid consolidation increases the sound

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12
Q

signs of cyanide poisoning

A

hyptertension, tachycardia, tachypnea, headache, cherry-red skin, elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis

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13
Q

treatment of cyanide poisoning

A

100% O2, hydroxybobalamin

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14
Q

what is an early test/abnormality that signals macular degeneration

A

distortion of straight lines that appear wavy, grid test

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15
Q

effect of antiphospholipid antibodies on PT/PTT

A

antiphospholipid Abs increase PTT because they bind to the phospholipids in PTT tests which prevents coagulation

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16
Q

does PTT change or improve iwth the addision of normal plasma in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

no it does not because its not a coagulation factor issue its an assay issue in which the autoAbs are binding to the reagents in the PTT assay

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17
Q

presentation of acute ischemic colitis

A

sudden onset abdominal pain, sudden urge to defecate, cramping

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18
Q

recurrent painless GI bleeding

A

angiodysplasia

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19
Q

von willebrand levels in patients with aortic stenosis

A

decreased because the multimers get broken up when they go through the turbulent valve

20
Q

who gets angiodysplasia

A

CKD, von willebrand disease, aortic stenosis

21
Q

what does low cortisol do to eosiophil levels

A

eosinophilia

22
Q

evaluation of a patient with primary adrenal insufficiency

A

am cortisol, ACTH level, cosyntropin (ACTH stim test)

23
Q

Cl and bicarb relation in the kidney excretion

A

adequate chloride is needed to be delivered to the DCT to allow for bicarb excretion

24
Q

what is an infection of the medial canthus called

A

this is dacryocystitis

25
Q

urinalysis of acute interstitial nephritis

A

wbc casts, microscopic hematuria, sterile pyuria

26
Q

If a patient had normal PaCO2 but is hyperventilating what does this indicate

A

impending respiratory collapse, because there should be low Co2 when a patient is hyperventilating

27
Q

how do you get bacillary angiomatosis

A

from bartonella infection

28
Q

Who gets bacillary angiomatosis

A

ppl with cats, homeless people, HIV, immunocompromise

29
Q

maifestations of bacillary angiomatosis

A

vascular cutaneous lesions, systemic sx

30
Q

what endocrine abnormalities can cause recurrent pregnancy loss

A

thyroid disease, PCOS, DM, hyperprolactinemia

31
Q

what Abs are positive in Hashimotos

A

anti thyroperoxidase

32
Q

what is the most common bug that causes septic arthritis in prosthetic joints several months post op

A

staph epidermidis

33
Q

joint aspiration leukocyte count of infected prostetic joint

A

not as high as a native joint, 10k

34
Q

what is K like in DKA

A

typically elevated or normal becaues of osmotic diuresis

35
Q

what are total body K actually like in DKA

A

there is actually low K because of the osmotic diuresis

36
Q

non-anion gap metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia

A

renal tubular acidosis

37
Q

what is osler-webber-rendu syndrome

A

this is when you have widespread AVMs, recurrent epistaxis, and telangectasias

38
Q

methods to avoid ARDS in intubated patients

A

limiting alveolar distension, lowest feaseable FiO2 to avoid O2 toxicity, permissive hypercapnia (O2)

39
Q

signs of R sided heart failure

A

cirrhosis, JVD, pedal edema

40
Q

pulmonary complications of sickle cell disease

A

pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary hypertension, asthma

41
Q

causes of R sided heart failure

A

pulm artery htn, pulmonic stenosis

42
Q

systemic symptoms with skin lesions, kidney dysfunction, joint pain and low complement

A

small vessel vasculitis

43
Q

what infection is associated with mixed cyroglobulinemia syndrome

A

hep C

44
Q

between multiple myeloma vs. waldenstrom which has hyperviscocity

A

waldenstrom

45
Q

what autoAbs are present in atrophic gastritis

A

Abs towards intrinisc factor and towards parietal cells

46
Q

what counts as acute liver failure

A

encephalopathy, coagulopathy INR >1.5, elevated LFTs

47
Q

management of acute liver failure

A

transplant