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Internal Medicine > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

when do you develop IgA nephropathy after infection

A

can be within days, doesnt have to be long time

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2
Q

HIV associated neurocognifitve dysfunction vs. PML imaging

A

neurocognitive dysfunction has diffuse white matter changes and PML is multifocal white matter changes

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3
Q

what is acute chest syndrome

A

this is vasoocclusion of pulmonary vasculature due to fat embolus (adults) or infection (kids) for people with sickle cell anemia

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4
Q

treatment of acute chest syndrome

A

ceftriaxone and azithromycin (because you cannot exclude pneumonia) , pain control, IV fluids

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5
Q

is tetanus a clinical dx or do you need toxin assay

A

clinical dx, toxin assay not widely available

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6
Q

when should you do phlebotomy for a person with hereditary hemachromatosis

A

> 1000 ferritin

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7
Q

clinical findings in behcets disease

A

recurrent painful oral ulcers, erythema nodosum, uveitis, genital ulcers, thrombosis

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8
Q

what are the common drugs that cause neutropenia

A

methimazole, PTU, clozapine, sulfasalazine, TMP-SMX

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9
Q

when do you do valve replacement for AS

A

Severe AS and <50% EF OR symptomatic

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10
Q

what should you do to avoid hypercapnea in a COPD exacerbation

A

titrate O2 to 88-92%

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11
Q

histo chest xray

A

reticulonodular opacities or interstitial infiltrates

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12
Q

what can cause serum sickness

A

snake antivenom, antitoxin or mAbs

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13
Q

clinical signs of serum sickness

A

urticaria, fever, painful arthralgia

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14
Q

what type of hypersensitivity is serum sickness

A

this is type III so it is immune complex deposition

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15
Q

what drug do you use for chemo vomiting

A

odansetron (serotonin antagonist)

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16
Q

which lung cancer gives the side effect of hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell paraneoplastic syndrome of Parathyroid hormone related hormone

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17
Q

why do patients with alcohol use disorder have refractory hypokalemia

A

due to hypomagnesia because magnesium

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18
Q

what helminth causes hydatid cysts

A

echinococcus

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19
Q

where do you get echinococcus

A

dogs

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20
Q

what is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A

this is when you have a mutation in the calcium sensing receptor in theparathyroid so the parathyroid doesnt sense elevated calcium and the kidney continues to reabsorb more

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21
Q

which is methylmalonic acid also low in folate or B12 deficiency

A

B12 has both low methylmalonic acid and homocysteine

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22
Q

does AML make you hypercoaguable or cause DIC

A

causes DIC

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23
Q

what does addisons do to eosinophil count

A

it causes eosinophilia

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24
Q

what is waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

this is when you have a b cell malignancy that causes excess IgM production

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25
Q

clinical signs of waldenstrom

A

hyperviscosity, neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, bleeding, lymphadenopathy

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26
Q

what is the rash like in secondary syph

A

macupapular

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27
Q

what CT do you do for trauma

A

CT w/out contrast to see bleeds

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28
Q

signs of bubo

A

painful lymphadenopathy with overlying erythema

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29
Q

when do you get the bubo for chancroid and lymphogranuloma venirium

A

weeks after the painful ulcer

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30
Q

is actinomyces acid fast

A

no it is not

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31
Q

which organisms are acid fast

A

nocardia and mycobacterium

32
Q

what are the side effects of antithyroid drugs

A

neutropenia, PTU- fulminant hepatic necrosis, Methimazole- teratogenic

33
Q

what staphs are in the viridans group

A

sanguinis, mitis, mutans, milleri

34
Q

what antibodies are present in systemic sclerosis

A

anti topoisomerase, anti centormere

35
Q

in the hospital what do you want sugars to be

A

140-180

36
Q

what type of lesions are sclerotic (blastic) vs. osteolytic in the spine

A

sclerotic: prostate CA and SCLC // osteolytic: multiple myeloma, thyroid, melanoma, NSCLC // mixed: breast and GI CA

37
Q

when do you treat for uremic pericarditis

A

> 60BUN

38
Q

signs of neutorpenia

A

oral ulcerations, fever, sore throat

39
Q

what cell lines are elevated in polycythemia vera

A

all of them but especially the RBCs

40
Q

what is infectious keratitis

A

this is inflammation and infection of the cornea

41
Q

signs of HSV keratitis

A

branched dendritic ulcerations

42
Q

which multiple endocrine neoplasias have medullary thyroid

A

2a and 2b

43
Q

what causes elevated eosinophils

A

parasitic infection, neoplasms, allergy, aspergillus, low cortisol

44
Q

treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning

A

fomepizole or ethanol if fomepizole is not available

45
Q

treatment of organophosphate poisoning

A

atropine and pralodoxime

46
Q

what causes the HTN in hyperthyroidism

A

elevated myocyte contractility

47
Q

what should a patient be put on for aspiration pneumonia

A

amox // doxy // macrolide

48
Q

what does the icepack test dx

A

myasthenia gravis

49
Q

sign of massive PE

A

syncope, hemodynamic collapse, elevated JVP, hypotension due to decreased cardiac output, diaphoresis

50
Q

what type of cardiomyopathy does alcohol cause

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

51
Q

what is primary biliary cholangitis

A

autoimmune destruction of the intrahepatic ducts

52
Q

what Ab is associated with primary biliary cholangitis

A

antimitocondrial

53
Q

what are the complications of primary biliary cholangitis

A

fat soluble vitamin malabsorption, ostoemalacia, hepatocellular carcinoma

54
Q

what does it mean if haptoglobin is low

A

this means that there is hemolysis because hemoglobin binds to the haptoglobin and causes it to precipitate

55
Q

what is intravascular vs. extravascular hemolysis

A

intravascular is when there is damage to the RBC in vessels and extravascular is in the spleen or lymph nodes

56
Q

what should the FiO2 be in an intubated patient

A

it should be <60%

57
Q

what is FiO2

A

this is the percent of inhaled air that is oxygen, normal room air is 21%

58
Q

what is sporothrix

A

dimorphic fungi,

59
Q

signs of sporothrix infection

A

painless pruritic nodules that ulcerate and drain a nonpurulent exudate

60
Q

what is rhizopus

A

this is what causes mucor mycosis

61
Q

how should you treat patients with WPW and afib

A

they need rhythm control not rate bc blocking their AV node can worsen their WPW so you do procainamide or ibutilide

62
Q

when do you start getting LVH due to aortic stenosis

A

when valve is less than 1cm2

63
Q

what can happen with longterm uncontrolled afib

A

tachycardia induced cardiomyopathy which is due to LV dilation and cardiomyocyte damage

64
Q

what type of diarrhea do you get with SIBO

A

greasy

65
Q

treatment of frostbite

A

rapid rewarming in water, pain relief, wound care

66
Q

what does the eye look like for anterior uveitis

A

conjectival injection, hazy flare in aqueous humor

67
Q

what is anterior uveitis associated with

A

IBD, akylosing spondyloarthritis, etc

68
Q

associated symptoms with glaucoma

A

nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia

69
Q

how soon do you need to start HIV PEP

A

as soon as possible like within 4 hours

70
Q

does a release of information have to be written

A

no it can be verbal or written

71
Q

risk factors for crypto

A

contaminated water, immunocompromised

72
Q

signs of crypto

A

Prolonged, severe diarrhea with weight loss/malabsorption

73
Q

popliteal cyst and OA

A

they can develop together, if a patient has a fluctuant swelling behind the knee this is what that is

74
Q

signs of chronic arsenic poisoning

A

Chronic: hypo-/hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis, stocking-glove neuropathy

75
Q

common sources of arsenic

A

Pesticides/insecticides, Contaminated water (often from wells), Pressure-treated wood

76
Q

signs of microscopic colitis on biopsy

A

mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate within the lamina propria, thickened collagen band

Internal Medicine (6 decks)

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