Deck 3 Module 7 Health Wellness and Illness Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse identifies the seven components of wellness as a useful tool in assessing health. Which are some of the components of wellness?
Select all that apply.

A) Physical
B) Environmental
C) Emotional
D) Financial
E) Spiritual
A

A) Physical
B) Environmental
C) Emotional
E) Spiritual

Rationale: The physical component is the ability to carry out daily tasks, achieve fitness, and generally practice positive lifestyle habits. The environmental component includes influences such as food, water, and air. The emotional component is the ability to manage stress and to express emotions appropriately. Finances are not one of the seven components of health. The spiritual component is the belief in some force (nature, science, religion, or a higher power) that serves to unite human beings and provide meaning and purpose to life.

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2
Q

In preparing a workshop on Healthy People 2020, which are some of the disease processes the nurse should address as part of the 42 topic areas covered in the report?
Select all that apply.

A) Cancer
B) HIV
C) Diabetes
D) Multiple Sclerosis
E) Heart Disease and Stroke
A

A) Cancer
B) HIV
C) Diabetes
E) Heart Disease and Stroke

Rationale: Healthy People 2020 is organized into 42 topic areas with nearly 600 objectives to improve health. These topic areas include: Cancer, Diabetes, Heart Disease and Stroke, and HIV. Multiple Sclerosis is not one of the topic areas.

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3
Q

A nurse is assessing a client to determine level of wellness. The client practices yoga for relaxation several times a week, follows a nutritionally sound diet, and has a supportive, sound relationship with a spouse and several children. Based on this data, which does this client exemplify?

A) An emergent high level of wellness in an unfavorable environment.
B) A high level of wellness in a favorable environment.
C) Protected poor health in a favorable environment.
D) An emergent high level of wellness in a favorable environment.

A

B) A high level of wellness in a favorable environment.

Rationale: A high level of wellness in a favorable environment involves biopsychosocial, spiritual, and economic resources that support healthy lifestyles. This client meets those criteria. The client is not emerging into high-level wellness; she has already achieved it. An emergent high-level of wellness in an unfavorable environment would be exemplified by a client who has the knowledge to implement healthy lifestyles but does not implement them because of family responsibilities, job demands, or other factors. The client does not have any health problems and therefore does not fit the description of protected poor health.

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4
Q
While teaching a class on health status, the nurse educator reviews internal variables that affect health status. Which internal variables are appropriate for the nurse to include in the class?  
Select all that apply.
A) Gender
B) Spiritual and religious beliefs
C) Environment
D) Developmental level
E) Age
A

A) Gender
B) Spiritual and religious beliefs
D) Developmental level
E) Age

Rationale: Internal variables that affect people’s health include biologic, psychologic, and cognitive dimensions. Biologic dimensions include genetic makeup, gender, age, and developmental level. Psychologic dimensions include the mind-body interactions. Cognitive dimensions include lifestyle choices and spiritual and religious beliefs. Environment is an example of an external variable that affects a person’s health.

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5
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of couples a class on building positive relationships at a local community center. The nurse is focusing this session on learning skills to be open-minded and respectful to those with opposing opinions. Based on this data, on which component of wellness is the nurse focusing this session?

A) Physical
B) Social
C) Environment
D) Emotional

A

B) Social

Rationale: The social component of wellness focuses on the ability to interact successfully with people and within the environment of which each person is a part, to develop and maintain intimacy with significant others, and to develop respect and tolerance for those with differing opinions and beliefs. The physical component of wellness is the ability to carry out daily tasks, achieve fitness of all body systems, and practice positive lifestyle habits. The emotional component deals with the ability to manage stress and express emotions appropriately. The environmental component focuses on the health measures that improve the standard of living and quality of life in the community.

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6
Q

A group of nurses have volunteered to go on a health mission to rural Haiti. The majority of the people the nurses will be working with do not have access to health care and live in poverty. Based on this data, which level of wellness do the nurses’ anticipate when providing care during this mission trip?

A) An emergent high level of wellness in an unfavorable environment
B) Protected poor health in an unfavorable environment
C) Poor health in an unfavorable environment
D) Protected poor health in a favorable environment

A

C) Poor health in an unfavorable environment

Rationale: The health axis extends from peak wellness to death, and the environmental axis extends from very favorable to very unfavorable. A health mission to an environment such as rural Haiti would involve clients who are not being treated for problems because of poor access and who also live in poor environmental conditions such as poverty and substandard sanitation. An emergent high level of wellness in an unfavorable environment would include clients who have the knowledge to implement healthy lifestyle practices but cannot implement them because of other factors or demands. Protected poor health in a favorable environment is where clients have an illness but their needs are met by the healthcare system. These clients have adequate access to appropriate medications, diet, and health care instruction. Protected poor health in an unfavorable environment is not one of Dunn’s quadrants.

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7
Q

The nurse conducts teaching for a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. At the conclusion of the session, which client statement shows that teaching has been effective?

A) “I will take medication for a week for this acute illness.”
B) “I will have to take insulin for this disease for my entire life.”
C) “This chronic disease will become worse and lead to death.”
D) “I will have to make dietary changes to manage this chronic disease.”

A

D) “I will have to make dietary changes to manage this chronic disease.”

Rationale: The client is aware that dietary changes will be needed to manage this chronic disease, indicating that the client understands the teaching the nurse has instituted. Not all clients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus require medication, such as insulin, to manage the disease process. Diabetes is chronic, not acute. Depending on the client’s response to the disease, the outcome may not become worse or lead to death.

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8
Q

An occupational health nurse for a large corporation is planning programs to address health problems identified in the Healthy People 2020 report. Which programs should the nurse include for the company employees at the worksite?
Select all that apply.

A) Depression screening for all employees
B) An abuse screening program
C) A substance abuse education program
D) An immunization program
E) Injury and violence prevention
A

A) Depression screening for all employees
B) An abuse screening program
C) A substance abuse education program
E) Injury and violence prevention

Rationale: Healthy People 2020 identifies a variety of programs that can be used to promote health at the worksite, including information dissemination, health risk appraisal and wellness assessment, and lifestyle and behavior change. Specific programs can address depression, substance abuse, and injury and violence prevention. Immunization programs are not relevant to the worksite.

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9
Q

After conducting a physical assessment for an adult client, the nurse discusses the assessment with a co-worker and states that the client’s beliefs and actions regarding common health practices seem “weird.” Based on this data, which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

A) Repeat the assessment later in the day.
B) Determine the culture with which the client identifies.
C) Write a nursing diagnosis to address the “weird” beliefs and actions.
D) Communicate the findings to the health-care team.

A

B) Determine the culture with which the client identifies.

Rationale: A thorough assessment is needed before proceeding with other steps of the nursing process. Behavior that is considered weird in one cultural context may be considered desirable in another. While findings will be communicated and used for nursing diagnosis formulation, these steps are built upon a thorough assessment. Repeating the assessment will most likely result in the same incomplete data. Writing a nursing diagnosis before investigating the client’s culture would be premature.

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10
Q

A nurse is promoting participation in The Great American Smokeout for clients who are participating in a smoking cessation class. The nurse knows this event may motivate many individuals to stop smoking by promoting self-efficacy. At the conclusion of the class, which statement leads the nurse to expect a positive outcome for this particular client?

A) “I am afraid of getting lung cancer like my father.”
B) “I think this time will be different.”
C) “I am going to do the best that I can, so that I won’t get lung cancer.”
D) “I know that this time I will quit smoking permanently.”

A

D) “I know that this time I will quit smoking permanently.”

Rationale: Self-efficacy refers to the level of confidence an individual has about the ability to perform the activity. The client’s intention to make a permanent change shows the highest level of determination and motivation. Stating that one will do the best one can or thinking that this attempt at quitting smoking will be different are not highly positive indicators of motivation. Stating fear of getting lung cancer does not address a positive activity.

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11
Q

Which nursing intervention exemplifies the nurse working in a health promotion role?
Select all that apply.

A) Administering an ordered antibiotic
B) Reinforcing desirable changes to the client’s lifestyle
C) Administering vaccines to a well child
D) Administering an inhaler to an asthmatic client
E) Obtaining a blood glucose sample on a hypoglycemic client

A

B) Reinforcing desirable changes to the client’s lifestyle
C) Administering vaccines to a well child

Rationale: The nurse acting in a health promotion role is performing interventions to prevent disease. Reinforcing desirable changes to the client’s lifestyle and administering vaccines to a well child exemplify health promotion. Administering an ordered antibiotic or inhaler to a client and obtaining a blood glucose sample from a symptomatic client exemplify nursing interventions that are in response to disease or illness.

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12
Q

A community health nurse is educating a group of clients on the difference between illness and disease. Which statements are appropriate for the nurse to include in the educational session?
Select all that apply.

A) “An individual can have a disease and not feel ill.”
B) “Illness is synonymous with disease.”
C) “Illness is an alteration in body function, where disease is highly subjective.”
D) “An individual can feel ill without disease.”
E) “Illness and disease are never related to one another.”

A

A) “An individual can have a disease and not feel ill.”
D) “An individual can feel ill without disease.”

Rationale: Illness is a highly personal state in which the individual’s physical, emotional, intellectual, social, developmental, or spiritual functioning is diminished. It is not synonymous with disease and may or may not be related to disease. One individual can have a disease, such as a growth in the stomach, and not feel ill. Another individual can feel ill–that is, feel uncomfortable–and yet have no discernible disease. Disease can be described as an alteration in body functions that reduces the capacities or shortens the normal life span.

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13
Q

While planning care for a client who has been hospitalized for 2 weeks, the nurse selects the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Disuse Syndrome due to the extended hospitalization. The nurse is assisting the client with a bath and wants to encourage full range of motion in all the client’s joints. Which activity will best support range of motion for the client’s hand and arm?

A) Having the client brush the hair and teeth
B) Moving the wash basin farther toward the foot of the bed to encourage the client to reach for the items
C) Moving each of the client’s hand and arm joints through passive range of motion
D) Giving the client a washcloth to wash the face

A

A) Having the client brush the hair and teeth

Rationale: The best range of motion is the natural movement of the client’s joints in normal activity. Brushing the hair and teeth includes more of the joints of the hands and the arms than does washing the face. The wash basin should be close to the client to prevent overreaching and possible falls. Passive range of motion is a second-best choice after normal use of the joints.

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14
Q

A nurse is providing wellness teaching to a client who is interested in beginning an exercise program to reduce certain health risks. The nurse determines that the client understands the teaching when the client selects which health risks that can be reduced by regular exercise?
Select all that apply.

A) Skin cancer
B) Hypertension
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Colon cancer
E) Renal disease
A

A) Skin cancer
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Colon cancer

Rationale: Regular physical activity results in a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease, colon cancer, and hypertension. It does not decrease the risk of skin cancer or renal disease.

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15
Q

The nurse is providing care to an older adult client who was recently diagnosed with early osteoporosis. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement with this client?

A) Providing the client with assisted range of motion exercising twice daily
B) Instituting an exercise plan that includes weight-bearing activities
C) Protecting the client’s bones with strict bed rest
D) Increasing the amount of calcium in the client’s diet

A

B) Instituting an exercise plan that includes weight-bearing activities

Rationale: Osteoporosis is a demineralization of the bone in which calcium leaves the bone matrix. One causative factor is lack of weight-bearing activity. Weight bearing helps to move calcium back into the bone, thereby strengthening it. A standard intervention for those attempting to prevent or reverse osteoporosis is beginning an exercise plan that includes weight-bearing activities. Additional calcium in the diet after osteoporosis has begun is not thought to be effective. Strict bed rest may well make the osteoporosis worse because there is no weight-bearing activity. Assisted range of motion exercises are not weight bearing and do not help delay or reverse osteoporosis.

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16
Q

A school nurse is reviewing the physical activity for adolescent high school students. Which student has met the outcome for physical activity set by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?

A) An 18-year-old who speed-walks 60 minutes once per week
B) A 16-year-old who lifts moderately heavy weights for 15 minutes 3 times per week
C) A 15-year-old who runs at a fast pace for 20 minutes 2 times per week
D) A 17-year-old who jogs for 30 minutes 5 times per week

A

D) A 17-year-old who jogs for 30 minutes 5 times per week

Rationale: The recommendations for physical activity for adolescents are moderate activity for 30 minutes on 5 or more days per week or vigorous exercise for 20 or more minutes on 3 or more days per week. Only the adolescent who jogs for 30 minutes 5 days per week fits the referenced criteria.

17
Q

The pulmonary rehabilitation nurse is teaching a group of clients about both isotonic and isometric exercises. At the conclusion of the session, which client statements indicate effective teaching has occurred?
Select all that apply.

A) “Isotonic exercises are also called dynamic exercises.”
B) “Isotonic exercises are static movements.”
C) “Isometric exercises involve exerting pressure against a solid object.”
D) “Isotonic exercises produce a mild increase in heart rate and cardiac output, but no appreciable increase in blood flow to other parts of the body.”
E) “Isometric exercises are useful for endurance training.”

A

A) “Isotonic exercises are also called dynamic exercises.”
C) “Isometric exercises involve exerting pressure against a solid object.”
E) “Isometric exercises are useful for endurance training.”

Rationale: In isotonic exercises, which are dynamic exercises, the muscle shortens to produce muscle contraction and active movement. Isometric exercises, which are static exercises, involve exerting pressure against a solid object. Isometric exercises produce a mild increase in heart rate and cardiac output, but no appreciable increase in blood flow to other parts of the body. Isometric exercises are useful for endurance training.

18
Q

A nurse is caring for a 50-year-old client performing aerobic exercise in the cardiac rehabilitation office. The nurse calculates the client’s target heart rate as _______-_________.

A

102 beats per minute (BPM); 145 beats per minute (BPM)

Rationale: Target heart rate can be obtained by an equation: (220 - client’s age) × 60% and 85%.
So 220 - 50 = 170. 170 × .60 = 102 BPM. 170 × .85 = 145 BPM.

19
Q

A young school-age child is seen in a pediatric clinic for a well-child checkup. The parent tells the nurse that they live in the country and use well water. Based on this data, which statement by the nurse is the priority when conducting client teaching?

A) “Your child will need to use a teeth whitener in the future because well water is your primary water source.”
B) “Your child will need to be placed on a fluoride supplement because your primary water source is from a well.”
C) “I will recommend some mouthwashes that are appropriate for clients that drink well water.”
D) “It will be very important that your child does not eat sugary foods because you drink well water.”

A

B) “Your child will need to be placed on a fluoride supplement because your primary water source is from a well.”

Rationale: Teeth whitener or special mouthwashes are not required for a child who drinks well water. Inquire about use of fluoride if the water supply is not fluoridated. Well water does not contain fluoride. Refraining from sugary foods is not necessary just because the child’s primary drinking source is from a well. While the nurse may teach about the effect of sugary foods on teeth, the priority would be to teach about fluoride, since this family’s water supply does not provide it.

20
Q

A nurse is working with a group of older adult clients at a community health center. Several clients report growing concerns about their dental health. They state they need to have dental work done despite continuing the same hygiene habits they have employed for years. They inquire about the underlying cause for these changes. Based on this data, which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?

A) “It is common for dental health to decline with aging.”
B) “Aging increases saliva production, which increase exposure of the tooth’s enamel to corrosive agents.”
C) “A decrease in bone density is associated with aging, which can result in tooth decay and breakage.”
D) “Metabolic changes in aging contribute to dental destruction.”

A

C) “A decrease in bone density is associated with aging, which can result in tooth decay and breakage.”

Rationale: The changes in bone health from aging will impact dental health. Simply stating that aging causes problems does not meet the clients’ request for information on an underlying cause. Saliva production decreases with aging. Metabolic changes have not led to the dental changes.

21
Q

A nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit who is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client has cheilosis. Based on this data, which is the priority intervention for this client?

A) Checking for ill-fitting dentures
B) Suggesting an increase in fluid intake
C) Providing oral care
D) Lubricating the lips using an antimicrobial ointment

A

D) Lubricating the lips using an antimicrobial ointment

Rationale: Cheilosis is when the lips are cracked. The priority nursing intervention for this client is to lubricate the lips with antimicrobial ointment to prevent infection. The nurse will also provide oral care; however, the lip ointment takes priority. Checking for ill-fitting dentures is appropriate for a client with reddened or excoriated mucosa. Suggesting an increase to the client’s fluid intake would be appropriate for a client with dry mucous membranes.

22
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with glossitis secondary to nutritional deficiencies. Based on this data, which is the priority focus of this client’s care?

A) Upper lip
B) Upper teeth
C) Uvula
D) Tongue

A

D) Tongue

Rationale: Glossitis is the inflammation of the tongue and does not involve the lips, teeth, or uvula.

23
Q

A pediatric nurse is caring for a toddler-age client at a well-child clinic. When providing education regarding the client’s oral health, which topics are appropriate for the nurse to include?
Select all that apply.

A) Parental smoking cessation resources.
B) Instructions on brushing the client’s teeth once daily.
C) Hazards of fluoride use in tooth development.
D) Instructions on eliminating the client’s milk consumption.
E) Instructing the parents that the client needs dental care prior to when the client begins to lose the primary teeth.

A

A) Parental smoking cessation resources.
E) Instructing the parents that the client needs dental care prior to when the client begins to lose the primary teeth.

Rationale: Many parents are unaware of the importance of dental health in very young children. They may see their child’s teeth as “baby teeth” and think they can put off dental visits until the child begins to lose the primary teeth. Nurses working with parents of very young children may need to help parents learn that care of primary teeth is essential to healthy permanent teeth. Providing the client’s parents with smoking cessation resources is essential, as secondhand smoke leads to dental caries. The client’s teeth should be brushed twice daily and after meals. The client does not need to eliminate milk consumption. Fluoride should be utilized for those with non-fluoridated water and does not pose a risk in tooth development.

24
Q

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with xerostomia. When educating the client about this condition, the nurse includes which as causative factors for developing this condition?
Select all that apply.

A) Intravenous electrolyte replacement therapy
B) Oxygen therapy
C) Antihistamine medications
D) NPO status
E) Tachypnea
A

B) Oxygen therapy
C) Antihistamine medications
D) NPO status
E) Tachypnea

Rationale: Xerostomia, also known as dry mouth, occurs when the supply of saliva is reduced. This condition can be caused by certain medications (e.g., antihistamines, antidepressants, and antihypertensives), oxygen therapy, tachypnea, and NPO status, during which the client cannot take fluids by mouth. Intravenous electrolyte therapy does not cause xerostomia.

25
Q

The nurse is working with a family that is new to the pediatric practice. In reviewing the family’s records, the nurse notes that the older children have a large number of dental caries. Which topics will the nurse include when teaching the mother how to decrease the development of dental caries in infants?
Select all that apply.

A) Refraining from nursing or giving the infant a bottle at bedtime
B) Giving the infant sugar water only at breakfast time
C) Wiping the infant’s gums with soft moist gauze once or twice daily
D) Using a toothbrush as soon as the first tooth erupts
E) Using a topical anesthetic daily, beginning as soon as the first tooth begins to erupt

A

A) Refraining from nursing or giving the infant a bottle at bedtime
C) Wiping the infant’s gums with soft moist gauze once or twice daily

Rationale: Interventions appropriate for prevention of dental caries are wiping the gums with a soft moist gauze and avoiding putting the infant to bed with a bottle. Foods high in sugar should be avoided in the infant at all times. A toothbrush should not be used during infancy. Topical anesthetic should not be applied daily.

26
Q

The nurse is caring for a client in a long-term care facility. The client has some cognitive impairment that interferes with the ability to independently complete activities of daily living. The nurse has identified Self-Care Deficit as an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client. Based on this data, which expected outcome is the most appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

A) The client will be able to name the staff that works on the day shift.
B) The client, with supervision, will brush teeth twice per day.
C) The client will eliminate safety hazards in the environment.
D) The nurse will stress the importance of adequate fluid intake.

A

B) The client, with supervision, will brush teeth twice per day.

Rationale: A client with cognitive impairment would be able to brush the teeth, but only with supervision. The client would not voluntarily brush the teeth without prompting from the staff. Cognitive impairment limits the client’s ability to understand and comprehend; therefore, stressing adequate fluid intake, naming the staff, and eliminating safety hazards are not within the client’s realm of understanding.

27
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is on a monitor, and vital signs are recorded from the monitor in order to leave the client undisturbed during the night. The nurse observes that blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations are below baseline for this client. Based on this data, which conclusion by the nurse regarding the changes in vital signs is the most appropriate?

A) The client is about to have a cardiac arrest.
B) The client is in stage IV of NREM sleep.
C) The client’s metabolic rate has increased.
D) The client is in stage II of NREM sleep.

A

B) The client is in stage IV of NREM sleep.

Rationale: During stage IV sleep, the client is relaxed, and vital signs decrease from baseline by 20% to 30%. Stage II sleep is characterized by light sleeping with vital signs decreasing slightly. The client’s metabolic rate is decreased in stage IV. A decrease in vital signs is normal during stage IV sleep, and the client is not necessarily at risk for cardiac arrest.

28
Q

A pediatric nurse is assigned telephone triage for the day at a pediatric clinic. The nurse receives a phone call from the mother of a newborn. The mother states, “I am concerned about my baby. When she first goes to sleep, her eyes dart around under her eyelids, she doesn’t breathe regularly, and she sometimes twitches.” Based on this data, which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?

A) “Please bring your baby in immediately for a checkup.”
B) “You should ask the doctor about these symptoms at your next checkup.”
C) “These are common behaviors in newborns and are normal.”
D) “If your baby does this again, take her to the emergency department.”

A

C) “These are common behaviors in newborns and are normal.”

Rationale: These are indications of normal REM sleep in the newborn. The mother should be reassured that this is normal. Having the mother wait until the next checkup unnecessarily delays this reassurance. There is no need for an immediate trip to the clinic or to the emergency department.

29
Q

The nurse is caring for an adult client who was admitted to the hospital 3 days ago. The client is having a hard time sleeping. The nurse notes that there is documentation of some confusion during waking hours. Based on this data, which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate?

A) Ineffective Coping
B) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
C) Disturbed Sensory Perception
D) Ineffective Health Maintenance

A

B) Disturbed Sleep Pattern

Rationale: The client is in a new environment. Changes in environment bring about uncertainty, and the client may be unable to sleep or may sleep less well than at home. Although the client is confused, there is no other data presented on a possible cause, making Disturbed Sleep Pattern a more appropriate selection than Disturbed Sensory Perception. In addition, Disturbed Sensory Perception relates to one of the five senses. Ineffective Health Maintenance and Ineffective Coping are more global and not applicable to this client’s situation.

30
Q

A parent of an adolescent client expressed concern to the nurse regarding the adolescent’s sleeping habits. The parent states that the client wants to sleep all the time. The nurse believes that the adolescent is experiencing sleep deprivation. During the assessment, which clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

A) Consumption of caffeinated soda
B) Difficulty waking in the morning for school
C) Irritability and anxiety, especially on days with less sleep
D) Trouble initiating or persisting in projects, such as school assignments
E) Refusal to participate in sport activities

A

A) Consumption of caffeinated soda
B) Difficulty waking in the morning for school
C) Irritability and anxiety, especially on days with less sleep
D) Trouble initiating or persisting in projects, such as school assignments

Rationale: High caffeine consumption is associated with a variety of teen health issues like insomnia, which can lead to sleep deprivation. Sleep deprivation may cause the adolescent to have trouble waking in the morning for school. Other symptoms include irritability, anxiety, and problems associated with attention, memory, and decision making. Sports participation is not correlated to sleep deprivation.

31
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is about to be discharged from the hospital. The client asks the nurse for suggestions on how to improve the quality of sleep in order to wake feeling refreshed in the morning. After reviewing the client’s medical history, which suggestions by the nurse are appropriate?
Select all that apply.

A) Limiting the use of alcohol to early in the evening
B) Having a cup of tea before bed in order to enhance relaxation
C) Adjusting the room temperature to a comfortable level for sleep
D) Changing the time of aerobic exercise to 1 hour prior to sleep
E) Limiting cigarette smoking before bedtime

A

A) Limiting the use of alcohol to early in the evening
C) Adjusting the room temperature to a comfortable level for sleep
E) Limiting cigarette smoking before bedtime

Rationale: Alcohol interferes with REM sleep, and its consumption should be limited to well before bedtime. A comfortable room temperature will promote sleep. Nicotine is a stimulant and may prevent the client from falling asleep. Exercise close to bedtime acts as a stimulant and can cause the client to be unable to sleep. Tea contains caffeine, which is a stimulant. The nurse could suggest non-caffeinated tea before bedtime unless this causes the client to wake during the night to urinate.

32
Q

The nurse working in the newborn nursery understands that a newborn has differences in sleeping patterns than an older child or an adult. Which sleep pattern is not expected during the newborn period?

A) An irregular sleep schedule, sleeping 16-18 hours a day.
B) NREM sleep is characterized by regular respirations, closed eyes, and the absence of body and eye movements.
C) REM sleep occurs gradually.
D) NREM sleep is also called quiet sleep during the newborn period.

A

C) REM sleep occurs gradually

Rationale: Unlike older children and adults, newborns enter REM sleep immediately. Newborns sleep 16-18 hours a day, on an irregular schedule, with periods of 1-3 hours spent awake. Rapid eye movements are observable through closed lids, and the body movements and irregular respirations may be observed. NREM sleep (also called quiet sleep during the newborn period) is characterized by regular respirations, closed eyes, and the absence of body and eye movements.