Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pilot's Cafe > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the minimum IFR altitudes in mountainous areas?

A

2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the minimum IFR altitudes in non-mountainous areas?

A

1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H) in IFR terms?

The altitude or height on a ____________ guided approach where the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

A

The altitude or height on a vertically guided approach where the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA)?

The _____________ altitude permitted on a particular segment of an airway.

A

The highest altitude permitted on a particular segment of an airway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?

A

The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Minimum Descent Altitude/Height (MDA/H)?

The lowest altitude or height to which descent is authorized on a ____________ approach until ____________ _____________ are seen for landing.

A

The lowest altitude or height to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until visual references are seen for landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)?

The lowest published altitude between ___________ ____________ which assures acceptable ____________ signal coverage and meets _____________ clearance requirements.

A

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)?

Provides ___________ clearance and ____________ coverage only up to ___ NM of the VOR.

A

Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA)?

Provides obstruction clearance within ___ NM to either side of a___________ ____________ and within a ___ NM radius at the ends of airways (route MORA), or within a latitude/longitude grid block (grid MORA).

A

Provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the ends of airways (route MORA), or within a latitude/longitude grid block (grid MORA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)?

The lowest altitude on an airway segment where ____________ can be determined using ____________ navigational aids.

A

The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersections can be determined using radio navigational aids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA)?

Provides ____________ and ____________ obstacle clearance in turns over certain _____________.

A

Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?

The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a ___________ ____________.

A

The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)?

A

Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A

An ATC clearance that allocates a block of airspace from the minimum IFR altitude to a specified altitude, allowing the pilot to climb and descend within that block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a cruise clearance allow you to do upon arrival at your destination?

A

Begin an approach without receiving an additional “cleared for approach” clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a block altitude?

A

A range of altitudes assigned by ATC to allow altitude deviations within it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does a cruise clearance prohibit once you report leaving an altitude?

A

Returning to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the formula to convert Feet-Per-Nautical-Mile (FPNM) to Feet-Per-Minute (FPM)?

A

FPM = FPNM x Groundspeed / 60.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What information does a Diverse Vector Area (DVA) provide?

A

Initial headings provided by ATC and any applicable climb gradients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What must a pilot do to fly a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

A

Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two principles of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space and precession.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

On what principle does the Attitude Indicator (AI) operate?

A

Rigidity in space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the Attitude Indicator (AI) show?

A

Bank and pitch information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What errors may an older Attitude Indicator (AI) have?

A

Acceleration/deceleration errors and roll-out errors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How long should the Attitude Indicator (AI) take to show the correct attitude after starting the engine?
Within 5 minutes.
26
What is the Heading Indicator (HI) based on?
Rigidity in space.
27
Why must the Heading Indicator (HI) be calibrated with a magnetic compass?
Because it cannot measure the heading directly.
28
What is the principle behind Turn Indicators?
Precession.
29
What do Turn Coordinators show?
Rate-of-turn and rate of roll.
30
What do Turn-and-Slip Indicators show?
Rate-of-turn only.
31
How does an altimeter work?
It uses a stack of sealed aneroid wafers that expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure from the static port.
32
What is the standard pressure lapse rate for altimeters?
1000 feet per inch of mercury.
33
What does the Kollsman Window on an altimeter display?
The current pressure setting in mb and/or inches of mercury (Hg).
34
How should the altimeter be set when operating below 18,000’ MSL in the US?
Set to a station within 100 NM.
35
What is the standard altimeter setting above 18,000’ MSL?
29.92 inches of mercury (Hg).
36
What happens to the indicated altitude when flying from high pressure to low pressure without updating the altimeter setting?
It will indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired.
37
What is Indicated Altitude?
Uncorrected altitude shown on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).
38
What is Pressure Altitude?
Altitude above the standard 29.92 inches of mercury (Hg) plane (QNE).
39
What is Density Altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
40
What is True Altitude?
Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).
41
What is Absolute Altitude?
Height above airport elevation (QFE).
42
What does the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) indicate?
Rate-of-climb in feet per minute (fpm) and rate trend.
43
What causes the lag in the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)?
The configuration responds to static pressure change over time through a calibrated leak.
44
How does the Instantaneous VSI (IVSI) solve the lag issue?
By adding vertical accelerometers.
45
How does the Airspeed Indicator (ASI) measure airspeed?
By measuring the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port.
46
What are the types of speed shown by the Airspeed Indicator (ASI)?
Indicated airspeed (IAS), Calibrated airspeed (CAS), Equivalent airspeed (EAS), True airspeed (TAS), Mach number, Ground speed.
47
What is indicated by the white arc on an airspeed indicator?
Flap operating range (Vs0 to Vfe).
48
What is indicated by the green arc on an airspeed indicator?
Normal operating range (Vs1 to Vno).
49
What does the yellow arc on an airspeed indicator signify?
Caution range, fly only in smooth air and with caution.
50
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
Vne (Never Exceed Speed).
51
What is Va?
Design maneuvering speed.
52
What is Vs?
Stall speed in clean configuration.
53
What is Vs0?
Stall speed in landing configuration.
54
What is Vs1?
Stall speed in a specific configuration.
55
What is Vfe?
Maximum flap extended speed.
56
What is Vno?
Maximum structural cruise speed.
57
What is Vne?
Never Exceed Speed.
58
What is Vx?
Best angle of climb speed.
59
What is Vy?
Best rate of climb speed.
60
What happens to the airspeed indicator if the static port is blocked?
It indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude, higher altitudes show lower airspeed, and lower altitudes show higher airspeed.
61
What happens to the altimeter if the static port is blocked?
It will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked.
62
What happens to the VSI if the static port is blocked?
It freezes on zero.
63
What happens to the instruments when using an alternate static source?
Airspeed indicates faster, altimeter indicates higher, and VSI momentarily shows a climb.
64
What happens to the airspeed indicator if both the pitot tube inlet and drain hole are clogged?
The airspeed indicator acts as an altimeter and becomes unreliable.
65
What should you do if you suspect a pitot tube blockage?
Use pitot heat to melt any ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.
66
What are the magnetic compass errors and limitations?
Deviation, Variation, Magnetic dip, Oscillation, North/south turn errors, Acceleration errors.
67
What does "UNOS" stand for in magnetic compass errors?
Undershoot North, Overshoot South.
68
What does "ANDS" stand for in magnetic compass acceleration errors?
Accelerate North, Decelerate South.
69
What does an Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS) provide?
More accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems.
70
What does an Air Data Computer (ADC) replace?
The mechanical pitot-static instruments.
71
What is the function of a flight director?
Computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course, or vertical speed.
72
What does a Flight Management System (FMS) do?
Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director, and selects the most appropriate navigation source.
73
What is an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)?
Also known as a “Glass cockpit.”
74
What information does a Primary Flight Display (PFD) show?
Flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI, and heading, as well as rate tapes.
75
What information does a Multi-Function Display (MFD) provide?
Moving maps, aircraft system status, weather, and traffic; may also serve as a backup for other displays.
76
What is required for VFR day flight under §91.205?
Altimeter, Tachometer, Oil temperature indicator, Manifold pressure gauge, Airspeed indicator, Temperature gauge, Oil pressure gauge, Fuel quantity gauge, Landing gear position lights, Anticollision lights, Magnetic direction indicator, ELT, Safety belt/shoulder harness.
77
What additional equipment is required for VFR night flight?
All VFR day equipment plus Fuses, Landing light, Anticollision lights, Position lights, Source of electrical power.
78
What equipment is required for IFR day flight?
All VFR day equipment plus Generator/alternator, Radios, Altimeter, Ball (slip-skid indicator), Clock, Attitude indicator, Rate-of-turn indicator, Directional gyro.
79
What equipment is required for IFR night flight?
All VFR day and night equipment plus Generator/alternator, Radios, Altimeter, Ball (slip-skid indicator), Clock, Attitude indicator, Rate-of-turn indicator, Directional gyro.
80
What should be done if inoperative equipment is found but the aircraft has an MEL?
Follow MEL provisions.
81
What must be checked if the aircraft does not have an MEL and there is inoperative equipment?
Check if the equipment is required by VFR-day type certification, Equipment list, §91.205 or other regulations, or an Airworthiness Directive.
82
What actions can be taken if inoperative equipment is not required by regulation or certification?
Remove the inoperative equipment (affecting weight & balance) or deactivate and placard it as “Inoperative.”
83
What must a pilot or mechanic determine about inoperative equipment?
That there is no hazard from the inoperative item.
84
When is flying not allowed with inoperative equipment?
Without a special flight permit if the equipment is required by regulations or certification.
85
What equipment is required for flight at and above FL240 when using VOR for navigation?
DME or RNAV.
86
What frequency range does Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operate in?
962-1213 MHz (UHF).
87
How is DME normally tuned?
Automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC).
88
How does the airborne DME unit calculate distance?
By transmitting an interrogation signal, receiving a reply from the ground DME facility, and calculating the slant range distance based on the reply time.
89
What causes slant range error in DME readings?
The difference in altitude between the aircraft and the DME station.
90
At what distance is slant range error negligible?
1 NM DME station per every 1000 ft height (e.g., at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM from the station).
91
What is the frequency range for Non-Directional Beacons (NDB)?
190-535 kHz.
92
What does the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) do in relation to NDB?
It points towards the NDB.
93
How is Magnetic Bearing to an NDB calculated?
Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing.
94
What is a compass locator in relation to NDB?
A low-powered NDB installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches.
95
What frequency range does VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) operate in?
108.0 to 117.95 MHz, excluding 108.10-111.95 with odd tenths (reserved for LOC frequencies).
96
What is the full-scale deflection on a VOR indicator?
10 degrees.
97
What must a pilot verify before using a VOR station?
The correct and usable VOR station with Morse code ID.
98
What does the VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON) program ensure?
That a MON airport is available within 100 NM regardless of aircraft position in the CONUS as old VORs are decommissioned.
99
How often must VOR receiver checks be performed?
Every 30 calendar days.
100
What is the acceptable error for a VOR check using a VOT or at a repair station?
±4 degrees.
101
What is the acceptable error for a VOR ground checkpoint?
±4 degrees.
102
What is the acceptable error for a VOR airborne checkpoint?
±6 degrees.
103
What is the acceptable error for a dual VOR cross-check?
±4 degrees.
104
What is the acceptable error for a VOR check above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial?
±6 degrees.
105
What are the limitations of VOR?
Cone of confusion, reverse sensing (if used incorrectly), and requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station.
106
What information must be included in a VOR check sign-off?
Date, Error (bearing error), Place, Signature.
107
What are the DME service volumes?
DME Low (DL): 12,900 ft ATH, 130 NM; DME High (DH): 18,000 ft ATH, 130 NM, 100 NM, 60,000 ft ATH, 45,000 ft.
108
What are the NDB service volume classes and their ranges?
Compass Locator: 15 NM; Medium High (MH): 25 NM; High (H): 50 NM; High High (HH): 75 NM.
109
What are the VOR service volumes?
Terminal (T): 25 NM, 12,000 ft; Low (VL): 40 NM, 18,000 ft; High (VH): 100 NM, 45,000 ft.
110
What is the formula for calculating dynamic pressure (airspeed) in a pitot-static system?
Dynamic Pressure = Impact Pressure - Static Pressure.

Pilot's Cafe (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions