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Pilot's Cafe > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What are the minimum IFR altitudes in mountainous areas?

A

2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course.

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2
Q

What are the minimum IFR altitudes in non-mountainous areas?

A

1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

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3
Q

What is the Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H) in IFR terms?

The altitude or height on a ____________ guided approach where the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

A

The altitude or height on a vertically guided approach where the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

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4
Q

What is the Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA)?

The _____________ altitude permitted on a particular segment of an airway.

A

The highest altitude permitted on a particular segment of an airway.

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5
Q

What is the Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?

A

The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.

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6
Q

What is the Minimum Descent Altitude/Height (MDA/H)?

The lowest altitude or height to which descent is authorized on a ____________ approach until ____________ _____________ are seen for landing.

A

The lowest altitude or height to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until visual references are seen for landing.

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7
Q

What is the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)?

The lowest published altitude between ___________ ____________ which assures acceptable ____________ signal coverage and meets _____________ clearance requirements.

A

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.

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8
Q

What is the Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)?

Provides ___________ clearance and ____________ coverage only up to ___ NM of the VOR.

A

Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR.

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9
Q

What is the Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA)?

Provides obstruction clearance within ___ NM to either side of a___________ ____________ and within a ___ NM radius at the ends of airways (route MORA), or within a latitude/longitude grid block (grid MORA).

A

Provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the ends of airways (route MORA), or within a latitude/longitude grid block (grid MORA).

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10
Q

What is the Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)?

The lowest altitude on an airway segment where ____________ can be determined using ____________ navigational aids.

A

The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersections can be determined using radio navigational aids.

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11
Q

What is the Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA)?

Provides ____________ and ____________ obstacle clearance in turns over certain _____________.

A

Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes.

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12
Q

What is the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?

The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a ___________ ____________.

A

The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller.

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13
Q

What is the Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)?

A

Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas.

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14
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A

An ATC clearance that allocates a block of airspace from the minimum IFR altitude to a specified altitude, allowing the pilot to climb and descend within that block.

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15
Q

What does a cruise clearance allow you to do upon arrival at your destination?

A

Begin an approach without receiving an additional “cleared for approach” clearance.

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16
Q

What is a block altitude?

A

A range of altitudes assigned by ATC to allow altitude deviations within it.

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17
Q

What does a cruise clearance prohibit once you report leaving an altitude?

A

Returning to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.

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18
Q

What is the formula to convert Feet-Per-Nautical-Mile (FPNM) to Feet-Per-Minute (FPM)?

A

FPM = FPNM x Groundspeed / 60.

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19
Q

What information does a Diverse Vector Area (DVA) provide?

A

Initial headings provided by ATC and any applicable climb gradients.

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20
Q

What must a pilot do to fly a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

A

Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure.

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21
Q

What are the two principles of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space and precession.

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22
Q

On what principle does the Attitude Indicator (AI) operate?

A

Rigidity in space.

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23
Q

What does the Attitude Indicator (AI) show?

A

Bank and pitch information.

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24
Q

What errors may an older Attitude Indicator (AI) have?

A

Acceleration/deceleration errors and roll-out errors.

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25
Q

How long should the Attitude Indicator (AI) take to show the correct attitude after starting the engine?

A

Within 5 minutes.

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26
Q

What is the Heading Indicator (HI) based on?

A

Rigidity in space.

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27
Q

Why must the Heading Indicator (HI) be calibrated with a magnetic compass?

A

Because it cannot measure the heading directly.

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28
Q

What is the principle behind Turn Indicators?

A

Precession.

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29
Q

What do Turn Coordinators show?

A

Rate-of-turn and rate of roll.

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30
Q

What do Turn-and-Slip Indicators show?

A

Rate-of-turn only.

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31
Q

How does an altimeter work?

A

It uses a stack of sealed aneroid wafers that expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure from the static port.

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32
Q

What is the standard pressure lapse rate for altimeters?

A

1000 feet per inch of mercury.

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33
Q

What does the Kollsman Window on an altimeter display?

A

The current pressure setting in mb and/or inches of mercury (Hg).

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34
Q

How should the altimeter be set when operating below 18,000’ MSL in the US?

A

Set to a station within 100 NM.

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35
Q

What is the standard altimeter setting above 18,000’ MSL?

A

29.92 inches of mercury (Hg).

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36
Q

What happens to the indicated altitude when flying from high pressure to low pressure without updating the altimeter setting?

A

It will indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired.

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37
Q

What is Indicated Altitude?

A

Uncorrected altitude shown on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).

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38
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

Altitude above the standard 29.92 inches of mercury (Hg) plane (QNE).

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39
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

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40
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).

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41
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

Height above airport elevation (QFE).

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42
Q

What does the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) indicate?

A

Rate-of-climb in feet per minute (fpm) and rate trend.

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43
Q

What causes the lag in the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)?

A

The configuration responds to static pressure change over time through a calibrated leak.

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44
Q

How does the Instantaneous VSI (IVSI) solve the lag issue?

A

By adding vertical accelerometers.

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45
Q

How does the Airspeed Indicator (ASI) measure airspeed?

A

By measuring the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port.

46
Q

What are the types of speed shown by the Airspeed Indicator (ASI)?

A

Indicated airspeed (IAS), Calibrated airspeed (CAS), Equivalent airspeed (EAS), True airspeed (TAS), Mach number, Ground speed.

47
Q

What is indicated by the white arc on an airspeed indicator?

A

Flap operating range (Vs0 to Vfe).

48
Q

What is indicated by the green arc on an airspeed indicator?

A

Normal operating range (Vs1 to Vno).

49
Q

What does the yellow arc on an airspeed indicator signify?

A

Caution range, fly only in smooth air and with caution.

50
Q

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A

Vne (Never Exceed Speed).

51
Q

What is Va?

A

Design maneuvering speed.

52
Q

What is Vs?

A

Stall speed in clean configuration.

53
Q

What is Vs0?

A

Stall speed in landing configuration.

54
Q

What is Vs1?

A

Stall speed in a specific configuration.

55
Q

What is Vfe?

A

Maximum flap extended speed.

56
Q

What is Vno?

A

Maximum structural cruise speed.

57
Q

What is Vne?

A

Never Exceed Speed.

58
Q

What is Vx?

A

Best angle of climb speed.

59
Q

What is Vy?

A

Best rate of climb speed.

60
Q

What happens to the airspeed indicator if the static port is blocked?

A

It indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude, higher altitudes show lower airspeed, and lower altitudes show higher airspeed.

61
Q

What happens to the altimeter if the static port is blocked?

A

It will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked.

62
Q

What happens to the VSI if the static port is blocked?

A

It freezes on zero.

63
Q

What happens to the instruments when using an alternate static source?

A

Airspeed indicates faster, altimeter indicates higher, and VSI momentarily shows a climb.

64
Q

What happens to the airspeed indicator if both the pitot tube inlet and drain hole are clogged?

A

The airspeed indicator acts as an altimeter and becomes unreliable.

65
Q

What should you do if you suspect a pitot tube blockage?

A

Use pitot heat to melt any ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

66
Q

What are the magnetic compass errors and limitations?

A

Deviation, Variation, Magnetic dip, Oscillation, North/south turn errors, Acceleration errors.

67
Q

What does “UNOS” stand for in magnetic compass errors?

A

Undershoot North, Overshoot South.

68
Q

What does “ANDS” stand for in magnetic compass acceleration errors?

A

Accelerate North, Decelerate South.

69
Q

What does an Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS) provide?

A

More accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems.

70
Q

What does an Air Data Computer (ADC) replace?

A

The mechanical pitot-static instruments.

71
Q

What is the function of a flight director?

A

Computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course, or vertical speed.

72
Q

What does a Flight Management System (FMS) do?

A

Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director, and selects the most appropriate navigation source.

73
Q

What is an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)?

A

Also known as a “Glass cockpit.”

74
Q

What information does a Primary Flight Display (PFD) show?

A

Flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI, and heading, as well as rate tapes.

75
Q

What information does a Multi-Function Display (MFD) provide?

A

Moving maps, aircraft system status, weather, and traffic; may also serve as a backup for other displays.

76
Q

What is required for VFR day flight under §91.205?

A

Altimeter, Tachometer, Oil temperature indicator, Manifold pressure gauge, Airspeed indicator, Temperature gauge, Oil pressure gauge, Fuel quantity gauge, Landing gear position lights, Anticollision lights, Magnetic direction indicator, ELT, Safety belt/shoulder harness.

77
Q

What additional equipment is required for VFR night flight?

A

All VFR day equipment plus Fuses, Landing light, Anticollision lights, Position lights, Source of electrical power.

78
Q

What equipment is required for IFR day flight?

A

All VFR day equipment plus Generator/alternator, Radios, Altimeter, Ball (slip-skid indicator), Clock, Attitude indicator, Rate-of-turn indicator, Directional gyro.

79
Q

What equipment is required for IFR night flight?

A

All VFR day and night equipment plus Generator/alternator, Radios, Altimeter, Ball (slip-skid indicator), Clock, Attitude indicator, Rate-of-turn indicator, Directional gyro.

80
Q

What should be done if inoperative equipment is found but the aircraft has an MEL?

A

Follow MEL provisions.

81
Q

What must be checked if the aircraft does not have an MEL and there is inoperative equipment?

A

Check if the equipment is required by VFR-day type certification, Equipment list, §91.205 or other regulations, or an Airworthiness Directive.

82
Q

What actions can be taken if inoperative equipment is not required by regulation or certification?

A

Remove the inoperative equipment (affecting weight & balance) or deactivate and placard it as “Inoperative.”

83
Q

What must a pilot or mechanic determine about inoperative equipment?

A

That there is no hazard from the inoperative item.

84
Q

When is flying not allowed with inoperative equipment?

A

Without a special flight permit if the equipment is required by regulations or certification.

85
Q

What equipment is required for flight at and above FL240 when using VOR for navigation?

A

DME or RNAV.

86
Q

What frequency range does Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operate in?

A

962-1213 MHz (UHF).

87
Q

How is DME normally tuned?

A

Automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC).

88
Q

How does the airborne DME unit calculate distance?

A

By transmitting an interrogation signal, receiving a reply from the ground DME facility, and calculating the slant range distance based on the reply time.

89
Q

What causes slant range error in DME readings?

A

The difference in altitude between the aircraft and the DME station.

90
Q

At what distance is slant range error negligible?

A

1 NM DME station per every 1000 ft height (e.g., at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM from the station).

91
Q

What is the frequency range for Non-Directional Beacons (NDB)?

A

190-535 kHz.

92
Q

What does the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) do in relation to NDB?

A

It points towards the NDB.

93
Q

How is Magnetic Bearing to an NDB calculated?

A

Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing.

94
Q

What is a compass locator in relation to NDB?

A

A low-powered NDB installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches.

95
Q

What frequency range does VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) operate in?

A

108.0 to 117.95 MHz, excluding 108.10-111.95 with odd tenths (reserved for LOC frequencies).

96
Q

What is the full-scale deflection on a VOR indicator?

A

10 degrees.

97
Q

What must a pilot verify before using a VOR station?

A

The correct and usable VOR station with Morse code ID.

98
Q

What does the VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON) program ensure?

A

That a MON airport is available within 100 NM regardless of aircraft position in the CONUS as old VORs are decommissioned.

99
Q

How often must VOR receiver checks be performed?

A

Every 30 calendar days.

100
Q

What is the acceptable error for a VOR check using a VOT or at a repair station?

A

±4 degrees.

101
Q

What is the acceptable error for a VOR ground checkpoint?

A

±4 degrees.

102
Q

What is the acceptable error for a VOR airborne checkpoint?

A

±6 degrees.

103
Q

What is the acceptable error for a dual VOR cross-check?

A

±4 degrees.

104
Q

What is the acceptable error for a VOR check above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial?

A

±6 degrees.

105
Q

What are the limitations of VOR?

A

Cone of confusion, reverse sensing (if used incorrectly), and requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station.

106
Q

What information must be included in a VOR check sign-off?

A

Date, Error (bearing error), Place, Signature.

107
Q

What are the DME service volumes?

A

DME Low (DL): 12,900 ft ATH, 130 NM; DME High (DH): 18,000 ft ATH, 130 NM, 100 NM, 60,000 ft ATH, 45,000 ft.

108
Q

What are the NDB service volume classes and their ranges?

A

Compass Locator: 15 NM; Medium High (MH): 25 NM; High (H): 50 NM; High High (HH): 75 NM.

109
Q

What are the VOR service volumes?

A

Terminal (T): 25 NM, 12,000 ft; Low (VL): 40 NM, 18,000 ft; High (VH): 100 NM, 45,000 ft.

110
Q

What is the formula for calculating dynamic pressure (airspeed) in a pitot-static system?

A

Dynamic Pressure = Impact Pressure - Static Pressure.

Pilot's Cafe (7 decks)

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