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Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When is an instrument rating required for a pilot?

A

When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather less than prescribed for VFR.

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2
Q

What conditions require an instrument rating for carrying passengers for compensation or hire?

A

On cross-country flights over 50 NM or at night.

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3
Q

In which airspace is an instrument rating mandatory?

A

Class A airspace.

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4
Q

What are the conditions for logging instrument time?

A

Flight time operated solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated conditions.

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5
Q

What is the required cross-country PIC time for instrument rating?

A

50 hours, with 10 hours in airplanes.

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6
Q

How many hours of actual or simulated instrument time are required for an instrument rating?

A

40 hours.

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7
Q

How many hours with a CFII are required for an instrument rating?

A

15 hours.

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8
Q

What is the requirement for a cross-country flight for an instrument rating?

A

250 NM with an instrument approach at each airport, using three different navigation systems, and a filed IFR flight plan.

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9
Q

How many hours of instrument flight training are required in the last two months before the practical test?

A

3 hours.

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10
Q

What is the maximum amount of instrument time that can be credited using an approved full flight simulator under part 142?

A

30 hours.

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11
Q

How many hours of instrument time can be credited with a Basic Aviation Training Device (ATD)?

A

Maximum 10 hours.

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12
Q

What is the maximum amount of total instrument time that can be credited in simulators, FTDs, or ATDs?

A

No more than 20 hours, except for the 30-hour exception under part 142.

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13
Q

What is required for a flight review to act as PIC?

A

A flight review within the last 24 calendar months, including 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training.

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14
Q

What can substitute a flight review for PIC?

A

A proficiency check, practical test, or completion of FAA’s WINGS program.

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15
Q

What are the recent experience requirements to carry passengers as PIC?

A

3 takeoffs and landings in category, class, and type within the last 90 days.

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16
Q

What are the night currency requirements to carry passengers as PIC?

A

3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop within 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

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17
Q

What recent instrument experience is required to act as PIC under IFR?

A

6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses within the last 6 months.

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18
Q

What must a pilot do if they have not logged the “6 HITS” within the last 6 months?

A

Regain currency by performing the “6 HITS” with a safety pilot.

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19
Q

What are the requirements for a safety pilot during instrument currency flights?

A

Holds at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class, and adequate vision.

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20
Q

What is required if a pilot is more than 6 months out of IFR currency?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person.

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21
Q

What information must be recorded in a logbook to meet recent instrument experience requirements?

A

Location and type of each instrument approach, and the name of the safety pilot if required.

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22
Q

What areas must the IPC cover?

A___________ procedures
I___________ flight
N____________ systems
I____________ approaches
E____________ operations
Post-____________ procedures

A

Airspace procedures
Instrument flight
Navigation systems
Instrument approaches
Emergency operations
Post-flight procedures

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23
Q

What should a pilot do if no “6 HITS” or IPC was logged in the past 6 months?

A

Perform “6 HITS” in simulated IMC with a safety pilot, or in a FFS, FTD, or ATD within an additional 6 months.

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24
Q

What is required after 12 months of expired IFR recency?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC).

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25
What exemption exists for IFR recency of experience for part 121 or 135 operators?
A PIC employed by part 121 or 135 operator is exempt when operating under parts 91, 121, or 135 for that operator.
26
What must be logged for IFR recency using a full flight sim, FTD, or ATD?
Training device, time, and content.
27
What are the requirements for logging an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?
Operate solely by reference to instruments, established on each required segment down to minimums, and in IMC or simulated IMC.
28
What is the "IM SAFE" checklist for preflight self-assessment?
Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion.
29
What does "PAVE" stand for in risk management and personal minimums?
Pilot, Aircraft, EnVironment, External pressure.
30
What does the "DECIDE" model in decision making stand for?
Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate.
31
When can a flight instructor log an instrument approach conducted by the student in actual IMC?
When the instructor observes the approach in actual IMC.
32
What segments of the instrument approach procedure (IAP) must be logged?
Initial, Intermediate, and Final approach segments, unless radar vectored to final by ATC.
33
What are the conditions for logging an IAP in simulated IMC?
Simulated conditions must continue down to MDA or DA.
34
What should be done if conditions change from actual IMC to VMC during the final approach segment?
The approach can still be logged.
35
What is the alcohol limitation in the "IM SAFE" checklist?
No drinking within 8 hours and no more than 0.04% blood alcohol level.
36
What is included in the Pilot category of the "PAVE" checklist?
General health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, and currency.
37
What is included in the Aircraft category of the "PAVE" checklist?
Airworthiness, equipment, performance.
38
What is included in the EnVironment category of the "PAVE" checklist?
Weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, and other conditions.
39
What is included in the External pressure category of the "PAVE" checklist?
Meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.
40
What is the first step in the "DECIDE" model?
Detect that a change has occurred.
41
What is the final step in the "DECIDE" model?
Evaluate the effects of the actions.
42
What personal documents are required for flight?
Pilot certificate, medical certificate, authorized photo ID, Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit (for flights outside the US).
43
What does "ARROW" stand for regarding aircraft documents required for flight?
Airworthiness certificate, Registration certificate, Radio station license (for flights outside the US), Operating limitations & information, Weight & Balance data.
44
What does "AVIATES" stand for regarding aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR?
Airworthiness Directives, VOR check (30 days), Inspections (annual and 100-hour), Altimeter (24 months), Transponder (24 months), ELT, Supplemental Type Certificate inspections.
45
How often must a VOR check be performed for IFR flight?
Every 30 days.
46
What is the frequency for an altimeter, automatic altitude reporting, and static system inspection for IFR in controlled airspace?
Every 24 calendar months.
47
How often must a transponder be inspected?
Every 24 calendar months.
48
What are the ELT inspection requirements?
Inspected every 12 calendar months; battery replaced after 1 hour of use or 50% of its life.
49
What does "SAFETY" stand for in passenger briefing?
Seat belts, Air vents, Fire extinguisher, Exit doors, Traffic, Your questions.
50
What does "ARCH" stand for in a taxi briefing? **Assigned/planned** _____________ **R**_____________, **C**_____________ and hold short instructions, **H**____________ & hazards.
Assigned/planned **runway** **Route**, **Crossings** and hold short instructions, **Hot spots** & hazards.
51
What does "DEPARTS" stand for in a takeoff briefing? **D**____________ review **Establish** ____________ **Plan/special** ____________ **A**___________ **R**_____________conditions and length **T**_____________/tactics **S**_____________ up!
**Departure** review Establish **expectations** Plan/special **considerations** **Alternate** **Runway** conditions and length **Trouble**/tactics **Speak** up!
52
What are the conditions for logging an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?
Operate solely by reference to instruments, established on each required segment down to minimums, and in IMC or simulated IMC.
53
When can a flight instructor log an instrument approach conducted by the student in actual IMC?
When the instructor observes the approach in actual IMC.
54
What should be done if conditions change from actual IMC to VMC during the final approach segment?
The approach can still be logged.
55
What is included in the Pilot category of the "PAVE" checklist?
General health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, and currency.
56
What is included in the Aircraft category of the "PAVE" checklist?
Airworthiness, equipment, performance.
57
What is included in the EnVironment category of the "PAVE" checklist?
Weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, and other conditions.
58
What is included in the External pressure category of the "PAVE" checklist?
Meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.
59
What is the "IM SAFE" checklist for preflight self-assessment?
Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion.
60
What is the first step in the "DECIDE" model?
Detect that a change has occurred.
61
What is the final step in the "DECIDE" model?
Evaluate the effects of the actions.
62
When is a destination alternate required under IFR?
Always, unless an instrument approach is available, and for 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, ceiling is at least 2000' and visibility is at least 3 SM.
63
What are the minimum weather conditions required to list an airport as an alternate with a **precision approach**?
600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
64
What are the minimum weather conditions required to list an airport as an alternate with a **non-precision approach?**
800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
65
What are the preflight information requirements for IFR as per "NW KRAFT"?
NOTAMs, Weather reports and forecasts, Known traffic delays, Runway length, Alternatives, Fuel requirements, Takeoff and landing performance data.
66
What are the requirements for filing an IFR flight plan under §91.173?
Filing an IFR flight plan and receiving an appropriate ATC clearance.
67
How can an IFR flight plan be filed?
Via FSS by phone, radio, in person; online; EFB; or with ATC.
68
When must a flight plan be canceled at non-towered airports?
The pilot must contact ATC/FSS to cancel it by radio or phone.
69
What are the GPS considerations for filing an alternate with a non-WAAS GPS?
Flight plan can be based on GPS approach availability at either the destination or the alternate, but not both.
70
What are the GPS considerations for filing an alternate with WAAS without baro-VNAV?
Flight plan may be filed based on LNAV or circling minima at the alternate. ***This means you can use non-precision approaches that rely on lateral guidance only.***
71
What are the IFR cruising altitudes in controlled airspace?
As assigned by ATC.
72
What are the IFR cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace below FL290 for magnetic courses 0º-179º?
Odd thousands (e.g., 3,000, 5,000).
73
What are the IFR cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace below FL290 for magnetic courses 180º-359º?
Even thousands (e.g., 4,000, 6,000).
74
What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290 in non-RVSM ***(Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum)* airspace for magnetic courses 0º-179º?**
Flight levels at 4,000' intervals starting at FL290 (e.g., FL290, FL330, FL370).
75
What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace for magnetic courses 180º-359º? Flight levels at ________' intervals starting at FL310 (e.g., FL310, FL350, FL390).
Flight levels at **4,000**' intervals starting at FL310 (e.g., FL310, FL350, FL390).
76
What are the IFR cruising altitudes between FL290-FL410 in RVSM airspace for magnetic courses 0º-179º? ____________ flight levels at ________' intervals starting at FL290 (e.g., FL290, FL310, FL330).
**Odd** flight levels at **2,000**' intervals starting at FL290 (e.g., FL290, FL310, FL330).
77
What are the IFR cruising altitudes between FL290-FL410 in RVSM airspace for magnetic courses 180º-359º? ____________ flight levels at ______' intervals starting at FL300 (e.g., FL300, FL320, FL340).
**Even** flight levels at** 2,000'** intervals starting at FL300 (e.g., FL300, FL320, FL340).
78
What is the minimum fuel requirement for IFR flights under §91.167?
Fuel from departure to destination, from destination to the most distant alternate (if required), plus 45 minutes at normal cruise.
79
What are the minimum weather conditions required if no instrument approach is available at the **alternate airport**?
Ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under VFR.
80
What are the preferred IFR routes and where can they be found?
Preferred IFR routes are published in the Chart Supplement U.S. and are recommended by the AIM.
81
What is the "1-2-3" rule for determining if a destination alternate is required?
An alternate is required unless there is an instrument approach and, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the ceiling is at least 2000' and visibility is at least 3 SM.
82
What are the IFR takeoff minimums for Part 121, 125, 129, and 135 operations with no prescribed runway minimums? ___ SM visibility for 1-2 engine airplanes, ___SM visibility for more than 2 engines.
**1** SM visibility for 1-2 engine airplanes,** ½ **SM visibility for more than 2 engines.
83
What are the conditions for ensuring obstacle clearance in departure procedures? Cross the departure end of the runway at least ___ ft AGL, reach _____ ft AGL before turning, and climb at least _____ ft/NM or as published.
Cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL, reach 400 ft AGL before turning, and climb at least 200 ft/NM or as published.
84
What is the difference between an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) and a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?
ODP provides only obstacle clearance; SID reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and minimizing radio communications.
85
What equipment is required for Non-RNAV, RNAV, and RADAR Departure Procedures (DP)? Non-RNAV DP uses ____________-based navigation; RNAV DP requires RNAV equipment with at least RNAV __ performance; RADAR DP requires A____________ _____________vectors.
Non-RNAV DP uses **ground**-based navigation; RNAV DP requires RNAV equipment with at least RNAV** 1** performance; RADAR DP requires **ATC radar** vectors.
86
What is a Diverse Departure Procedure?
A procedure that provides obstacle clearance when a DP is not published, requiring turns only after reaching 400 ft AGL.
87
What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?
A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC where the pilot conducts climbing turns over the airport up to a published altitude before proceeding to the instrument portion of the departure.
88
What does "CRAFT" stand for in an IFR departure clearance?
Clearance limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code.
89
What is a "Clearance void time" in IFR departure clearance?
The time at which your clearance is void, and you must notify ATC within 30 minutes if you did not depart.
90
What is "Hold for release" in IFR departure clearance?
You may not take off until being released for IFR departure.
91
What is "Release time" in IFR departure clearance?
The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.
92
What is "Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)"?
A runway release time given under traffic management programs at busy airports, with departures expected no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.
93
What is an abbreviated departure clearance?
"Cleared (...) as filed (...)."
94
What is the purpose of a Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)?
To serve as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.
95
What do transition routes in STAR procedures connect?
They connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure.
96
What do RNAV STARs require?
RNAV 1 performance.
97
How can a pilot avoid being assigned a SID in their flight plan?
State "NO SIDs" in the flight plan’s remarks section.
98
What is a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)?
An area where ATC can provide radar vectors instead of an ODP while meeting diverse departure criteria.
99
Where is VCOA published?
In the "Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures" section of the terminal procedures publication (TP).
100
What is the significance of non-standard TO minimums or IFR alternate minimums?
They exist due to unmonitored facilities or absence of weather reporting services.
101
When are pilots encouraged to file a DP?
At night, during marginal VMC, or IMC.

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