Deck 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

When is an instrument rating required for a pilot?

A

When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather less than prescribed for VFR.

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2
Q

What conditions require an instrument rating for carrying passengers for compensation or hire?

A

On cross-country flights over 50 NM or at night.

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3
Q

In which airspace is an instrument rating mandatory?

A

Class A airspace.

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4
Q

What are the conditions for logging instrument time?

A

Flight time operated solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated conditions.

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5
Q

What is the required cross-country PIC time for instrument rating?

A

50 hours, with 10 hours in airplanes.

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6
Q

How many hours of actual or simulated instrument time are required for an instrument rating?

A

40 hours.

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7
Q

How many hours with a CFII are required for an instrument rating?

A

15 hours.

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8
Q

What is the requirement for a cross-country flight for an instrument rating?

A

250 NM with an instrument approach at each airport, using three different navigation systems, and a filed IFR flight plan.

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9
Q

How many hours of instrument flight training are required in the last two months before the practical test?

A

3 hours.

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10
Q

What is the maximum amount of instrument time that can be credited using an approved full flight simulator under part 142?

A

30 hours.

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11
Q

How many hours of instrument time can be credited with a Basic Aviation Training Device (ATD)?

A

Maximum 10 hours.

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12
Q

What is the maximum amount of total instrument time that can be credited in simulators, FTDs, or ATDs?

A

No more than 20 hours, except for the 30-hour exception under part 142.

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13
Q

What is required for a flight review to act as PIC?

A

A flight review within the last 24 calendar months, including 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training.

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14
Q

What can substitute a flight review for PIC?

A

A proficiency check, practical test, or completion of FAA’s WINGS program.

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15
Q

What are the recent experience requirements to carry passengers as PIC?

A

3 takeoffs and landings in category, class, and type within the last 90 days.

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16
Q

What are the night currency requirements to carry passengers as PIC?

A

3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop within 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

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17
Q

What recent instrument experience is required to act as PIC under IFR?

A

6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses within the last 6 months.

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18
Q

What must a pilot do if they have not logged the “6 HITS” within the last 6 months?

A

Regain currency by performing the “6 HITS” with a safety pilot.

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19
Q

What are the requirements for a safety pilot during instrument currency flights?

A

Holds at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class, and adequate vision.

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20
Q

What is required if a pilot is more than 6 months out of IFR currency?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person.

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21
Q

What information must be recorded in a logbook to meet recent instrument experience requirements?

A

Location and type of each instrument approach, and the name of the safety pilot if required.

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22
Q

What areas must the IPC cover?

A___________ procedures
I___________ flight
N____________ systems
I____________ approaches
E____________ operations
Post-____________ procedures

A

Airspace procedures
Instrument flight
Navigation systems
Instrument approaches
Emergency operations
Post-flight procedures

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23
Q

What should a pilot do if no “6 HITS” or IPC was logged in the past 6 months?

A

Perform “6 HITS” in simulated IMC with a safety pilot, or in a FFS, FTD, or ATD within an additional 6 months.

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24
Q

What is required after 12 months of expired IFR recency?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC).

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25
Q

What exemption exists for IFR recency of experience for part 121 or 135 operators?

A

A PIC employed by part 121 or 135 operator is exempt when operating under parts 91, 121, or 135 for that operator.

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26
Q

What must be logged for IFR recency using a full flight sim, FTD, or ATD?

A

Training device, time, and content.

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27
Q

What are the requirements for logging an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?

A

Operate solely by reference to instruments, established on each required segment down to minimums, and in IMC or simulated IMC.

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28
Q

What is the “IM SAFE” checklist for preflight self-assessment?

A

Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion.

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29
Q

What does “PAVE” stand for in risk management and personal minimums?

A

Pilot, Aircraft, EnVironment, External pressure.

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30
Q

What does the “DECIDE” model in decision making stand for?

A

Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate.

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31
Q

When can a flight instructor log an instrument approach conducted by the student in actual IMC?

A

When the instructor observes the approach in actual IMC.

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32
Q

What segments of the instrument approach procedure (IAP) must be logged?

A

Initial, Intermediate, and Final approach segments, unless radar vectored to final by ATC.

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33
Q

What are the conditions for logging an IAP in simulated IMC?

A

Simulated conditions must continue down to MDA or DA.

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34
Q

What should be done if conditions change from actual IMC to VMC during the final approach segment?

A

The approach can still be logged.

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35
Q

What is the alcohol limitation in the “IM SAFE” checklist?

A

No drinking within 8 hours and no more than 0.04% blood alcohol level.

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36
Q

What is included in the Pilot category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

General health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, and currency.

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37
Q

What is included in the Aircraft category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

Airworthiness, equipment, performance.

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38
Q

What is included in the EnVironment category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

Weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, and other conditions.

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39
Q

What is included in the External pressure category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

Meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.

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40
Q

What is the first step in the “DECIDE” model?

A

Detect that a change has occurred.

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41
Q

What is the final step in the “DECIDE” model?

A

Evaluate the effects of the actions.

42
Q

What personal documents are required for flight?

A

Pilot certificate, medical certificate, authorized photo ID, Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit (for flights outside the US).

43
Q

What does “ARROW” stand for regarding aircraft documents required for flight?

A

Airworthiness certificate, Registration certificate, Radio station license (for flights outside the US), Operating limitations & information, Weight & Balance data.

44
Q

What does “AVIATES” stand for regarding aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR?

A

Airworthiness Directives, VOR check (30 days), Inspections (annual and 100-hour), Altimeter (24 months), Transponder (24 months), ELT, Supplemental Type Certificate inspections.

45
Q

How often must a VOR check be performed for IFR flight?

A

Every 30 days.

46
Q

What is the frequency for an altimeter, automatic altitude reporting, and static system inspection for IFR in controlled airspace?

A

Every 24 calendar months.

47
Q

How often must a transponder be inspected?

A

Every 24 calendar months.

48
Q

What are the ELT inspection requirements?

A

Inspected every 12 calendar months; battery replaced after 1 hour of use or 50% of its life.

49
Q

What does “SAFETY” stand for in passenger briefing?

A

Seat belts, Air vents, Fire extinguisher, Exit doors, Traffic, Your questions.

50
Q

What does “ARCH” stand for in a taxi briefing?

Assigned/planned _____________
R_____________,
C_____________ and hold short instructions,
H____________ & hazards.

A

Assigned/planned runway
Route,
Crossings and hold short instructions,
Hot spots & hazards.

51
Q

What does “DEPARTS” stand for in a takeoff briefing?

D____________ review
Establish ____________
Plan/special ____________
A___________
R_____________conditions and length
T_____________/tactics
S_____________ up!

A

Departure review
Establish expectations
Plan/special considerations
Alternate
Runway conditions and length
Trouble/tactics
Speak up!

52
Q

What are the conditions for logging an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?

A

Operate solely by reference to instruments, established on each required segment down to minimums, and in IMC or simulated IMC.

53
Q

When can a flight instructor log an instrument approach conducted by the student in actual IMC?

A

When the instructor observes the approach in actual IMC.

54
Q

What should be done if conditions change from actual IMC to VMC during the final approach segment?

A

The approach can still be logged.

55
Q

What is included in the Pilot category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

General health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, and currency.

56
Q

What is included in the Aircraft category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

Airworthiness, equipment, performance.

57
Q

What is included in the EnVironment category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

Weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, and other conditions.

58
Q

What is included in the External pressure category of the “PAVE” checklist?

A

Meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.

59
Q

What is the “IM SAFE” checklist for preflight self-assessment?

A

Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion.

60
Q

What is the first step in the “DECIDE” model?

A

Detect that a change has occurred.

61
Q

What is the final step in the “DECIDE” model?

A

Evaluate the effects of the actions.

62
Q

When is a destination alternate required under IFR?

A

Always, unless an instrument approach is available, and for 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, ceiling is at least 2000’ and visibility is at least 3 SM.

63
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions required to list an airport as an alternate with a precision approach?

A

600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

64
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions required to list an airport as an alternate with a non-precision approach?

A

800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

65
Q

What are the preflight information requirements for IFR as per “NW KRAFT”?

A

NOTAMs, Weather reports and forecasts, Known traffic delays, Runway length, Alternatives, Fuel requirements, Takeoff and landing performance data.

66
Q

What are the requirements for filing an IFR flight plan under §91.173?

A

Filing an IFR flight plan and receiving an appropriate ATC clearance.

67
Q

How can an IFR flight plan be filed?

A

Via FSS by phone, radio, in person; online; EFB; or with ATC.

68
Q

When must a flight plan be canceled at non-towered airports?

A

The pilot must contact ATC/FSS to cancel it by radio or phone.

69
Q

What are the GPS considerations for filing an alternate with a non-WAAS GPS?

A

Flight plan can be based on GPS approach availability at either the destination or the alternate, but not both.

70
Q

What are the GPS considerations for filing an alternate with WAAS without baro-VNAV?

A

Flight plan may be filed based on LNAV or circling minima at the alternate.

This means you can use non-precision approaches that rely on lateral guidance only.

71
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes in controlled airspace?

A

As assigned by ATC.

72
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace below FL290 for magnetic courses 0º-179º?

A

Odd thousands (e.g., 3,000, 5,000).

73
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace below FL290 for magnetic courses 180º-359º?

A

Even thousands (e.g., 4,000, 6,000).

74
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290 in non-RVSM (Reduced
Vertical Separation Minimum)
airspace for magnetic courses 0º-179º?

A

Flight levels at 4,000’ intervals starting at FL290 (e.g., FL290, FL330, FL370).

75
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace for magnetic courses 180º-359º?

Flight levels at ________’ intervals starting at FL310 (e.g., FL310, FL350, FL390).

A

Flight levels at 4,000’ intervals starting at FL310 (e.g., FL310, FL350, FL390).

76
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes between FL290-FL410 in RVSM airspace for magnetic courses 0º-179º?

____________ flight levels at ________’ intervals starting at FL290 (e.g., FL290, FL310, FL330).

A

Odd flight levels at 2,000’ intervals starting at FL290 (e.g., FL290, FL310, FL330).

77
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes between FL290-FL410 in RVSM airspace for magnetic courses 180º-359º?

____________ flight levels at ______’ intervals starting at FL300 (e.g., FL300, FL320, FL340).

A

Even flight levels at** 2,000’** intervals starting at FL300 (e.g., FL300, FL320, FL340).

78
Q

What is the minimum fuel requirement for IFR flights under §91.167?

A

Fuel from departure to destination, from destination to the most distant alternate (if required), plus 45 minutes at normal cruise.

79
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions required if no instrument approach is available at the alternate airport?

A

Ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under VFR.

80
Q

What are the preferred IFR routes and where can they be found?

A

Preferred IFR routes are published in the Chart Supplement U.S. and are recommended by the AIM.

81
Q

What is the “1-2-3” rule for determining if a destination alternate is required?

A

An alternate is required unless there is an instrument approach and, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the ceiling is at least 2000’ and visibility is at least 3 SM.

82
Q

What are the IFR takeoff minimums for Part 121, 125, 129, and 135 operations with no prescribed runway minimums?

___ SM visibility for 1-2 engine airplanes, ___SM visibility for more than 2 engines.

A

1 SM visibility for 1-2 engine airplanes,** ½ **SM visibility for more than 2 engines.

83
Q

What are the conditions for ensuring obstacle clearance in departure procedures?

Cross the departure end of the runway at least ___ ft AGL, reach _____ ft AGL before turning, and climb at least _____ ft/NM or as published.

A

Cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL, reach 400 ft AGL before turning, and climb at least 200 ft/NM or as published.

84
Q

What is the difference between an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) and a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

A

ODP provides only obstacle clearance; SID reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and minimizing radio communications.

85
Q

What equipment is required for Non-RNAV, RNAV, and RADAR Departure Procedures (DP)?

Non-RNAV DP uses ____________-based navigation;
RNAV DP requires RNAV equipment with at least RNAV __ performance; RADAR DP requires A____________ _____________vectors.

A

Non-RNAV DP uses ground-based navigation;
RNAV DP requires RNAV equipment with at least RNAV** 1** performance; RADAR DP requires ATC radar vectors.

86
Q

What is a Diverse Departure Procedure?

A

A procedure that provides obstacle clearance when a DP is not published, requiring turns only after reaching 400 ft AGL.

87
Q

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

A

A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC where the pilot conducts climbing turns over the airport up to a published altitude before proceeding to the instrument portion of the departure.

88
Q

What does “CRAFT” stand for in an IFR departure clearance?

A

Clearance limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code.

89
Q

What is a “Clearance void time” in IFR departure clearance?

A

The time at which your clearance is void, and you must notify ATC within 30 minutes if you did not depart.

90
Q

What is “Hold for release” in IFR departure clearance?

A

You may not take off until being released for IFR departure.

91
Q

What is “Release time” in IFR departure clearance?

A

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

92
Q

What is “Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)”?

A

A runway release time given under traffic management programs at busy airports, with departures expected no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

93
Q

What is an abbreviated departure clearance?

A

“Cleared (…) as filed (…).”

94
Q

What is the purpose of a Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)?

A

To serve as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

95
Q

What do transition routes in STAR procedures connect?

A

They connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure.

96
Q

What do RNAV STARs require?

A

RNAV 1 performance.

97
Q

How can a pilot avoid being assigned a SID in their flight plan?

A

State “NO SIDs” in the flight plan’s remarks section.

98
Q

What is a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)?

A

An area where ATC can provide radar vectors instead of an ODP while meeting diverse departure criteria.

99
Q

Where is VCOA published?

A

In the “Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures” section of the terminal procedures publication (TP).

100
Q

What is the significance of non-standard TO minimums or IFR alternate minimums?

A

They exist due to unmonitored facilities or absence of weather reporting services.

101
Q

When are pilots encouraged to file a DP?

A

At night, during marginal VMC, or IMC.