Deck 1.1 Core Concepts Flashcards

This deck covers essential terminology and concepts in motor skills and movement, including biomechanics, kinesiology, body and spatial awareness, exercise physiology, anatomy, sports strategies, and legal and safety considerations in physical education.

1
Q

What are the ABCs of movement?

A

Agility, Balance, and Coordination.

These are foundational skills necessary for mastering complex movements.

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2
Q

Define:

Agility in the context of movement skills.

A

The ability to change directions quickly at high speed.

It involves moving in multiple directions at once.

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3
Q

Why is balance considered fundamental in movement?

A

It prevents falls and injuries, enhances coordination, supports posture, improves performance, and facilitates everyday activities.

It involves evenly distributing the weight to keep upright.

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4
Q

Define:

Coordination

A

The ability to utilize many parts of the body simultaneously and efficiently during a task.

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5
Q

What are fundamental movement skills (FMS)?

A

Basic movement patterns essential for physical activity, including running, throwing, skipping, catching, and balancing.

FMS allows individuals to perform more complex movements.

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6
Q

Define:

Physical Literacy

A

The ability to move with competence and confidence in a wide variety of physical activities in multiple environments that benefit the healthy development of the whole person.

Physical literacy is about having the skills, knowledge, and motivation to enjoy a lifetime of physical activity.

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7
Q

Differentiate between dynamic movement skills and fundamental movement skills.

A
  • Dynamic movement skills are more complex and involve active movement.
  • Fundamental movement skills are basic movements.
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8
Q

Define:

Reflex movements

A

Automatic movements that are out of one’s control.

It is a response for a stimulus without conscious thought.

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9
Q

Define:

Postural movements

A

The adjustments and actions our bodies make to maintain or regain balance and posture.

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10
Q

What are voluntary movements?

A

Movements entirely controlled by the individual.

It involves the conscious decision to move.

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11
Q

What are non-locomotor sports?

A

Sports that involve movement without traveling to a new location.

E.g. yoga, pilates or calisthenics.

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12
Q

Define:

Kinesiology

A

The study of human movement and muscle function.

It seeks to understand the mechanics of human movement.

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13
Q

In kinesiology, how are muscles classified based on their function?

A
  1. Prime mover (agonist)
  2. Assistant mover
  3. Antagonist
  4. Stabilizer muscles
  5. Synergist

Synergy includes helping synergy and true synergy.

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14
Q

What is the prime mover in kinesiology?

A

The main muscle involved in a specific movement.

Also known as the agonist.

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15
Q

What role do assistant movers play in kinesiology?

A

They support the main muscle to facilitate movement.

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16
Q

What is the function of antagonist muscles?

A

They engage in the opposite movement of the main muscle (agonist).

For example, during a bicep curl, the triceps brachii acts as the antagonist to the biceps brachii, helping to control the movement and stabilize the elbow joint.

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17
Q

What do stabilizer muscles do?

A

Hold a moving body part in place.

For example, during a push-up, the core muscles act as stabilizers to keep the body straight and prevent the lower back from sagging.

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18
Q

What is kinesiological analysis?

A

The application of kinesiology principles to assess, diagnose, and improve motor skills.

Kinesiological analysis is used in various fields, including sports science, physical therapy, ergonomics, and rehabilitation, to improve performance, prevent injuries, and enhance overall movement efficiency.

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19
Q

What is the difference between discrete and cyclical movement skills?

A
  • Discrete skills have obvious starting and stopping points.
  • Cyclical skills are continuous.
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20
Q

What does anatomical analysis in kinesiology involve?

A

Analyzing how the joints, muscles, and neuromuscular system (body mechanisms) work in coordination to create movement.

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21
Q

What is the focus of mechanical analysis in kinesiology?

A

Identifying the principles of motion that govern the most effective form of movement.

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22
Q

What are critical elements identified after kinesiological analysis?

A
  • Speed
  • Force
  • Balance
  • Direction
  • Timing

These elements are essential for optimal performance of the selected skill.

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23
Q

Fill in the blank:

Kinesiological analysis utilizes the principles of kinesiology to develop, diagnose, and treat _______ _______.

A

motor skills

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24
Q

Define:

Simultaneous movements

A

Multiple body segments move together to create a straight-line motion.

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25
Q

Define:

Sequential movements

A

Body segments move in a specific order to accelerate the movement.

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26
Q

What is biomechanics?

A

The study of mechanical laws related to the movement or structure of living things and their interaction with surroundings.

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27
Q

What are the four main elements of biomechanics?

A
  • Dynamics
  • Kinematics
  • Kinetics
  • Statics

Each element focuses on different aspects of moving systems.

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28
Q

What does the 1st Law of Motion state?

(1st biomechanical principle)

A

An object in motion will stay in motion unless an external force is exerted upon it.

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29
Q

Fill in the blank:

The 2nd Law of Motion states that the acceleration of an object is dependent upon its mass and the amount of _______ _______.

A

force applied

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30
Q

Describe the 3rd Law of Motion.

(3rd principle of biomechanics)

A

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

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31
Q

What are the three major planes of motion?

A
  • Frontal Plane
  • Sagittal Plane
  • Transverse Plane

Each plane allows movement in different dimensions.

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32
Q

What movement occurs in the frontal plane?

A

Side-to-side movement and up-and-down movement.

E.g., jumping jacks.

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33
Q

What characterizes movement in the sagittal plane?

A

Moving forward and backward, along with up and down.

E.g., lunges and curls.

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34
Q

Describe the transverse plane’s movement.

A

Often involves rotational movements.

Within this plane, the body moves up/down, forward/backward, and side to side.

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35
Q

Define:

Flexion

A

A decreasing of the angle between two given body parts.

E.g., Bringing your hand’s palm towards the shoulder during a bicep curl.

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36
Q

Define:

Extension

A

An increasing of the angle between two given body parts.

E.g., lowering the hand back down after a bicep curl.

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37
Q

What is circumduction?

A

A type of motion that allows for 360-degree movement at ball and socket joints.

Characteristic of the hip and shoulder joints.

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38
Q

What does pronation refer to in terms of foot movement?

A

An inward roll while walking or running.

Pronation is a natural part of the gait cycle.

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39
Q

What does supination refer to in terms of foot movement?

A

An outward roll while walking or running.

Supination is a natural part of the gait cycle.

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40
Q

What is the difference between pronation and supination of the arms?

A
  • Pronation turns the palm down.
  • Supination turns the palm up.
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41
Q

What is human kinetics?

A

The study of body’s mechanics, primarily focusing on the muscles, the skeleton, and their interaction with gravity.

Often used interchangeably with biomechanics.

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42
Q

What is static stretching?

A

Holding a muscle in place for up to 30 seconds in a challenging position.

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43
Q

Define:

Dynamic Stretching

A

Type of stretching that involves controlled, active movements to take muscles through their full range of motion.

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44
Q

What is the most common sport-related injury?

A

Ankle injuries

They account for 16% of all sport-related injuries.

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45
Q

What are linear injuries?

A

Injuries caused by force occurring on a straight line or with a direct impact.

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46
Q

What are rotational injuries?

A

Injuries caused when the force of impact involves rotational movement, twisting, or torque of the muscles, joints, ligaments, or tendons.

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47
Q

Based on human kinetics, identify strategies to avoid injury.

A
  • Warm-up stretching
  • Stretching during rehabilitation
  • Knowledge of how to utilize equipment and play sports properly
  • Staying hydrated
  • A healthy diet and nutrition
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48
Q

Identify some benefits that exercise can provide for the brain.

A
  • Improving memory capabilities
  • Reducing stress
  • Improving academic performance
  • Improving behavior and socialization
  • Improving overall brain function
  • Enhancing mental cognition
  • Balancing behavior and mood
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49
Q

Define:

Body Awareness

A

An individual’s ability to recognize the position, feeling, and state of the body elements.

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50
Q

What are the three types of body awareness?

A
  • Interoception awareness
  • Proprioception awareness
  • Spatial awareness

Each type focuses on different aspects of body perception.

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51
Q

What is proprioception awareness?

A

The ability to understand how a person’s body is positioned without looking directly at it.

E.g., You dont have to look to know if you have your legs crossed.

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52
Q

How might you explain spatial awareness?

A

A person’s ability to understand their body’s position within space.

It allows proper interaction with the environment.

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53
Q

Identify some developmental milestones in children.

A
  • 1 year: stand without assistance.
  • 1.5 years: run.
  • 2 years: kick and throw a ball.
  • 3 years: Climb and pedal a tricycle.
  • 4 years: Hop on one foot.
  • 5 years: Do a somersault.

If milestones are not achieved, child may be developmentally delayed.

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54
Q

Identify daily activities that require spatial awareness?

A
  • Driving a car
  • Exercising
  • Playing sports
  • Walking around the home

Every activity that involves moving around requires spatial awareness.

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55
Q

What challenges can arise in spatial awareness?

A
  • Misjudging distances.
  • Misinterpreting object movements and position.
  • Difficulty processing and predicting animate objects movement.
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56
Q

Define:

Physical Fitness

A

The ability of your body systems to work together efficiently to allow you to be healthy and perform activities of daily living.

It impacts every aspect of a person’s life.

57
Q

What are the primary components of physical fitness?

A
  • Health-related fitness
  • Skill-related fitness
58
Q

What distinguishes health-related fitness from skill-related fitness?

A
  • Health-related fitness reduces disease risk and enhances health.
  • Skill-related fitness improves sports performance.
59
Q

What are the five components of health-related fitness?

A
  • Body Composition
  • Cardiovascular Endurance
  • Flexibility
  • Muscular Endurance
  • Muscular Strength
60
Q

Define:

Body Composition

A

The ratio of fat to non-fat in the body.

High fat levels can lead to chronic health issues.

61
Q

Define:

Cardiovascular Endurance

(cardiorespiratory endurance)

A

The ability to efficiently take in oxygen and distribute it throughout the body to meet its demands.

It involves the heart, lungs, arteries, vessels, and veins.

62
Q

Define:

Flexibility

A

The range of motion around a given joint.

It impacts agility, balance, coordination, and the chance of injury.

63
Q

What is muscular endurance?

A

The ability to continuously use a particular muscle group against resistance.

It can vary between muscle groups.

64
Q

Define:

Muscular Strength

A

The amount of force a particular muscle group can produce in one effort.

This is muscle-group specific.

65
Q

What are the six components of skill-related fitness?

A
  • Agility
  • Balance
  • Coordination
  • Power
  • Reaction Time
  • Speed
66
Q

Define:

Reaction time

A

The ability to respond quickly to an external stimulus.

This is a component of skill-related fitness.

67
Q

What does speed refer to in fitness?

A

The ability to get faster at a skill.

High-intensity interval training helps with speed.

68
Q

What are the immediate benefits of developing a healthy fitness routine?

A
  • Improved thinking and cognition
  • Reduction in anxiety
  • Reduced depression
  • Better sleep
69
Q

What is the recommended frequency for physical activity to reduce mortality risk?

A

At least 30 minutes of activity 5 times a week.

This can lower all-cause mortality risk by 33%.

70
Q

What are some benefits of regular physical activity?

A
  • Positive mental health
  • Stress relief
  • Longer life span
71
Q

What is considered regular exercise for adults aged 18-64?

A

150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity weekly, plus muscle-strengthening activities on two days.

72
Q

What effect does exercise have on bones?

A

Stimulates bones to stay healthy and prevents breakdown.

73
Q

What are the three components of exercise programs?

A
  • Aerobics (Cardiovascular)
  • Strength training
  • Stretching or Flexibility

These are essential for overall physical and mental health.

74
Q

What is ballistic stretching?

A

A type of stretch involving forceful and quick movements, like bouncing.

It is more likely to lead to injury and should not be confused with dynamic stretching.

75
Q

How often should adults perform flexibility exercises according to the American College of Sports Medicine?

A

2-3 days a week.

Each stretch should be held for 10-30 seconds and repeated 2-4 times.

76
Q

Identify some examples of aerobic exercises.

A
  • Running
  • Walking
  • Bicycling
  • Swimming

These help build cardiorespiratory endurance.

77
Q

What are the benefits of aerobic fitness?

A
  • Increases aerobic capacity
  • Increases bone strength
  • Controls weight
  • Improves sleep
  • Releases feel-good hormones
  • Boosts immune system
78
Q

Define:

Strength Training

A

A physical activity that uses resistance to build muscle strength.

It can involve lifting weights or using resistance bands.

79
Q

What is the recommended rest period between strength training sessions?

A

48 hours

This allows muscles to recover and grow stronger.

80
Q

What are the three principles of training?

A
  • Overload
  • Progression
  • Specificity

These are key to seeing continuous improvement throughout the course of training.

81
Q

What does the overload principle state?

A

Putting the body under additional stress beyond what is normal is key for progress.

As the stress increases, the body adapts to keep up.

82
Q

What is the FITT model?

A

A model that describes four ways in which additional stress can be applied:

  • Frequency
  • Intensity
  • Time
  • Type
83
Q

What does ‘frequency’ refer to in the FITT model?

A

Changing the number of times per week that exercise is performed.

E.g., from 2 to 3 times per week.

84
Q

What does ‘intensity’ refer to in the FITT model?

A

Raising the difficulty of the exercise by increasing repetitions or weight.

E.g., from 8 to 10 repetitions per set.

85
Q

What does ‘time’ refer to in the FITT model?

A

Increasing the amount of time spent exercising.

It is often tied to intensity; as you increase repetitions, the time increases too.

86
Q

What does ‘type’ refer to in the FITT model?

A

Increasing difficulty by switching types of exercise.

E.g., passing from standard squats to one-legged squats.

87
Q

What does the principle of progression state?

A

Body adapts to consistent training, so increasing intensity, volume, or variation over time is essential for continued improvement.

88
Q

What does the specificity principle state?

A

Training should be specific to the individual and their goals.

89
Q

Fill in the blank:

The overload principle utilizes the _____ model.

A

FITT

It means: Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type.

90
Q

Define:

Exercise Physiology

A

The study and investigation of the body’s response to exercise.

It centers on what happens when a person starts to exercise.

91
Q

What are the main goals of exercise physiology?

A
  1. Understanding how bodily functions change with physical activity to help persons know their benefits.
  2. Developing personalized rehabilitation techniques and exercise programs.
92
Q

What is a key method used to evaluate a person’s health in exercise physiology?

A

Fitness tests

They measure cardiovascular endurance, respiratory strength, body composition, flexibility and others.

93
Q

True or False:

Professionals in exercise physiology need to work with interdisciplinary teams.

A

True

Different health professionals work together to holistically treat patients.

94
Q

Identify at least 3 common types of exercise tests conducted in exercise physiology.

A
  1. Stress tests
  2. Core strength tests
  3. Stability tests
  4. Body mass index (BMI) measurements

These help to understand a person’s fitness level.

95
Q

What is a potential risk when prescribing exercise to patients?

A

Recommending inappropriate exercises for their condition.

96
Q

What is the primary role of the cerebellum?

A

Motor control, coordination, and timing.

It is crucial for executing smooth and coordinated movements.

97
Q

What is the importance of the primary motor cortex?

A

The primary motor cortex plays a crucial role in controlling voluntary movements.

It is responsible for the planning, initiation, and execution of motor activities.

It plays a key role in movement control, coordination, motor learning, and adaptability.

98
Q

Describe:

Executive function and where it is primarily located in the brain.

A

Executive function is the ability to monitor and control behavior, thoughts and emotions, and it is located mainly in prefrontal cortex.

This area is primarly found in humans and make us what we are.

99
Q

What is the relationship between blood flow and neuron connections?

A

Increased blood flow leads to more neuron connections.

This is essential for improved general cognition.

100
Q

What is the recommended amount of exercise for children aged 5-17?

A

At least 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous activity per day.

101
Q

What activity should children avoid as part of their exercise routine?

A

Powerlifting and unsupervised strength training.

These activities can harm developing tendons, ligaments, muscles, and bones.

102
Q

How is body mass index calculated?

(BMI)

A

BMI = weight (in kg) / height (in meters)²

It is an approximation of body composition based on height and weight.

103
Q

What are some limitations of the BMI scale?

A
  • Does not account for weight distribution.
  • Inaccurate for high muscle density individuals.
  • Omits important health information.

BMI have larger limitations in athletes or those with larger bodys.

104
Q

Define:

Positive caloric balance

A

A state where caloric intake is greater than caloric use by the body.

This leads to weight gain.

105
Q

What is the thermic effect of food?

A

The amount of energy necessary to digest, absorb, and transport food.

E.g., fats require less energy to digest than proteins and carbohydrates.

106
Q

How does sleep affect obesity?

A

Not getting enough sleep can throw the body’s hormones out of balance, predisposing it to weight gain.

Hormones influence appetite and metabolism.

107
Q

What role does genetics play in obesity?

A

Genetics can predispose individuals to obesity, as obesity tends to run in families.

Genes influence fat absorption, burning rate, and storage.

108
Q

Identify the uncontrollable factors that may lead to obesity.

A
  • Genetics
  • Medical conditions limiting mobility (e.g., arthritis)
  • Important or life-saving medication
  • Pregnancy
109
Q

What are the three main body types?

A
  • Ectomorph
  • Mesomorph
  • Endomorph

This classification is based on physical characteristics and predispositions.

110
Q

What is an ectomorph?

A

An individual with long, lean muscles, low fat storage, and an inability to gain weight or muscle mass.

They have the lowest risk for heart disease, cancer, high blood pressure, and diabetes.

111
Q

What are the characteristics of a mesomorph?

A

Muscular body, wide shoulders, narrow hips, moderate bone mass, low fat levels.

Mesomorph is considered to be the most athletic of the three somatotypes.

112
Q

What defines an endomorph body type?

A

Round body shape, low muscle mass, short limbs, high predisposition for fat accumulation and large head.

113
Q

What is a somatotype?

A

A classification system of three body types based on physical characteristics and disease predisposition.

Developed by William Sheldon in the early 20th century.

114
Q

True or False:

Mesomorphs are more likely to gain weight through fat storage.

A

False

They are more likely to build muscle mass.

115
Q

How is obesity defined in men and women based on percentage of total body fat?

A
  • Men: 25% body fat
  • Women: 33% body fat
116
Q

What method uses calipers to measure body fat?

A

Skinfold measurements.

Skin thickness gives an estimation of fat percentege when assesed at various locations.

117
Q

What is bioelectrical impedance analysis?

A

A technique that estimates body fat percentage sending a small electrical current through the body.

The current travels preferentially through fat-free tissue.

118
Q

How does hydrostatic weighing measure body fat percentage?

A

By comparing a person’s weight underwater to their weight on land.

This method is high-tech and often impractical.

119
Q

Fill in the blank:

Ghrelin is a hormone that makes a person feel _______.

A

hungry

Bad sleep can cause greater levels of ghrelin.

120
Q

Fill in the blank:

Leptin is a hormone that makes a person feel ______.

A

full

Bad sleep can cause reduced levels of leptin.

121
Q

Define:

Physical Activity

A

Any movement of the muscles that requires energy.

122
Q

What are the three energy-yielding nutrients?

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
  • Fats
123
Q

What is Adenosine Triphosphate?

Also known as ATP.

A

Adenosine triphosphate, the form of energy the body’s cells use to perform functions.

It is a high-energy-containing molecule.

124
Q

What is anaerobic metabolism?

A

Energy creation in the absence of oxygen.

Note: “an” = absence; “aerobic” = oxygen.

125
Q

How does creatine phosphate aid in ATP production?

A

Creatine phosphate donates a phosphate group to broken-down ATP, regenerating it.

This activates when ATP reserves have ended.

126
Q

How long can ATP reserves in muscles provide energy during physical activity?

A

A few seconds.

Then creatine phosphate comes into play.

127
Q

What is the primary energy source used during anaerobic metabolism?

A

Glucose

Glucose comes from the breaking down of carbohydrates after consumption.

128
Q

What is lactic acid and what is its effect on the body?

A

An end product of anaerobic metabolism that, when accumulated, it interferes with muscle contractions and causes muscle pain.

129
Q

What is aerobic metabolism?

A

A long-term energy production system that works in the presence of oxygen.

130
Q

How much more ATP can be produced by aerobic metabolism compared to anaerobic metabolism?

A

Up to 15 times more ATP per glucose molecule.

I.e., 30-36 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

131
Q

What are the possible fuel sources for aerobic metabolism?

A
  • Glucose
  • Fatty acids
  • Amino acids

Aminoacids are used only in extreme situations like starvation.

132
Q

What happens to the body if it does not receive oxygen during intense physical activity?

A

Lactic acid builds up, limiting energy production and exercise performance and causing muscle pain.

133
Q

What does RPE stand for?

A

Rate of Perceived Exertion.

RPE is a subjective scale for measurement of workout intensity.

134
Q

What is the range of the Perceived Exertion Scale commonly used today?

A

1(or 0) to 10.

The original from Dr. Gunnar Borg went from 6 to 20.

135
Q

What physical cues are used to assess RPE?

A
  • Breathing rate
  • Heart rate
  • Sweating
  • Muscle fatigue.

These cues help determine the intensity of the workout.

136
Q

What does an RPE of 0 represent?

A

No activity.

The scale starts from 0 or 1, indicating rest.

137
Q

What does an RPE of 10 represent?

A

Very intense activity.

Indicates maximal effort, such as sprinting.

138
Q

What is the suggested RPE range for longer cardiovascular fitness workouts?

A

4 to 6.

This range is recommended for sustained aerobic exercise.