DAT Booster Biology Practice Exam 2

Question 1

All of the following are true regarding protein denaturation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. is a reversible process
b. can occur using strong bases
c. denaturing a protein changes its shape
d. can occur using radiation
e. part of the denatured proteins biological function is retained

Answer 1

e

Question 2

a protein’s shape determines its

Answer 2

function

Question 3

a protein’s shape determines its

Answer 3

loss of a protein’s configuration due to unfavorable environmental conditions, which results in the loss of the protein’s function.

Question 4

Proteins can be denatured when they are removed from their

Answer 4

optimal temperature, pH range, or solvent.

Radiation and chemical damage can also lead to denaturation.

Question 5

When proteins are denatured, all structural levels are lost besides the

Answer 5

primary structure

Question 6

proteins loss in shape ultimately leads to a loss

Answer 6

in function

Question 7

In most cases, denaturation is irreversible, but in some cases, if the proteins are returned to their optimal environmental conditions, denaturation can be

Answer 7

reversed and function is regained

The proteins can regain their native state when placed back in favorable environmental conditions. This process is known as renaturatio

Question 8

One of the environmental conditions that cause denaturation is a pH that is either too high or too low. A strong base can create a very basic environment (high pH) which can lead to

Answer 8

the denaturation of a given protein.

Question 9

Gastrulation describes the process by which three embryonic germ layers arise from the

Answer 9

primitive streak

Question 10

The primitive streak is a structure formed by the

Answer 10

epiblast

Question 11

three germ layers are listed from superficial to deep as follows:

Answer 11

ectoderm
mesoderm
endoderm.

Question 12

Once these three germ layers are formed, the embryo is officially considered a

Answer 12

gastrula

Question 13

The ectoderm will differentiate to form the

Answer 13

Nervous system (brain and spinal cord)

integument (epidermis, hair, epithelium of the nose, mouth, and anal canal)

sensory structures of the eyes, ears, and nose

the adrenal medulla.

Neural crest cells of the ectoderm will also form the teeth, jaws, and bones of the skull.

Question 14

The mesoderm will give rise to the

Answer 14

musculoskeletal system

the circulatory system

the excretory system

the gonads

portions of the digestive and respiratory system

the notochord

the kidney

the dermis of the skin

the adrenal cortex.

Question 15

endoderm will give rise to the

Answer 15

epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory tract

portions of the liver

the pancreas

the gallbladder

the thyroid and parathyroid

the thymus

the lining of the urinary bladder.

Question 16

Macromolecules result from the polymerization of

Answer 16

monomeric subunits

ex. proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, and nucleic acids.

Question 17

DNA and RNA are the most common examples of nucleic acids and are responsible for

Answer 17

protein regulation

Question 18

DNA and RNA are composed of

Answer 18

long strands of interconnected nucleotides.

Question 19

Nucleotides are molecules consisting of a

Answer 19

pentose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

Question 20

In order to polymerize, the 5’ phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3’ hydroxyl group of a separate nucleotide undergo a

Answer 20

condensation (glycosidic) reaction.

Question 21

condensation (glycosidic) reaction.

Answer 21

This creates a phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides in a DNA or RNA strand.

Question 22

phosphodiester bond

Answer 22

is what allows nucleotides to bond together in long chains.

Question 23

Hydrogen bonds are bonds that occur between

Answer 23

hydrogen and oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine.

Question 24

In DNA, each nitrogenous base will hydrogen bond with the

Answer 24

nitrogenous base of its complementary nucleotide.

For example, adenine will hydrogen bond with thymine and guanine will hydrogen bond with cytosine. This is what creates the double strand that is seen within a DNA double helix.

Question 25

Van der Waals forces are seen in

Answer 25

all compounds, including DNA.

Question 26

Covalent bonding is the

Answer 26

sharing of electrons between two atoms.

Covalent bonding can be observed in the phosphodiester bonds of DNA and RNA.

Question 27

bonds that exist within DNA is listed below:

Answer 27

hydrogen bonding

van der waals forces

phosphodiester bonds

covalent bonds

Question 28

disulfide bonds occur in

Answer 28

tertiary structure of some proteins

these bonds occur between cysteines and aid in the structural integrity of proteins. Disulfide bonds are not seen in DNA.

Question 29

Disulfide bonds are

Answer 29

covalent bonds

Question 30

sarcomere

Answer 30

functional unit of a striated muscle fiber

Question 31

the sarcomere is responsible for

Answer 31

muscle contraction

Question 32

Sarcomeres are present in both

Answer 32

skeletal and cardiac muscle because both of these muscle types are striated.

Question 33

Sarcomeres contain thick filaments:

Answer 33

myosin

Question 34

Sarcomeres contain thin filaments:

Answer 34

actin

Question 35

actin and myosin

Answer 35

slide past each other when muscle contracts
- sliding filament theory

Question 36

individual myofilaments do not shorten in length, but rather, the sarcomere itself will

Answer 36

shorten in length as the myofilaments overlap one another

Question 37

The Z-lines represent the

Answer 37

borders of 1 individual sacromere

Question 38

The I-band is the region of the sarcomere that contains

Answer 38

thin filaments (actin)

Question 39

The H-zone is the region of the sarcomere that contains

Answer 39

thick filaments (myosin)

Question 40

The A zone is the area of the sarcomere where

Answer 40

actin and myosin overlap

Question 41

The M-line represents the

Answer 41

middle of the sacromere

Question 42

Which of the following layers covers the surface of cortical bone?

Answer 42

periosteum

Question 43

Cortical bone is much denser than cancellous bone and is characterized by its presence of

Answer 43

osteons

Question 44

Osteons are the functional unit of

Answer 44

cortical bone

Question 45

At the center of each osteon is a structure known as the

Answer 45

Haversian canal.

Question 46

The Haversian canal contains

Answer 46

nerves and blood vessels that supply bone cells with their required nutrients.

Question 47

Cancellous bone, also known as spongy bone, is much more

Answer 47

flexible than cortical bone.

Question 48

Instead of osteons, cancellous bone contains

Answer 48

trabeculae which contribute to strength and flexibility

red bone marrow which is the site of hemopoiesis (red blood cell development).

Question 49

short bones are primarily made of

Answer 49

cancellous bones while long bones are primarily made of cortical bone.

Question 50

short bones are primarily made of

Answer 50

cancellous bones while long bones are primarily made of cortical bone.

Question 51

cortical bone (compact bone) creates the

Answer 51

outer layer of long bones with cancellous bone being housed within cortical bone at the metaphysis and epiphysis.

Question 52

Cortical bone is composed of two fibrous membranes:

Answer 52

the periosteum and the endosteum

Question 53

The periosteum is the

Answer 53

outermost membrane that wraps itself around cortical bone.

Question 54

The endosteum is the innermost membrane of

Answer 54

cortical bone and is the border between cancellous and cortical bone.

Question 55

Which one of the following phyla are deuterostomes?

Answer 55

echinodermata

Question 56

All triploblastic organisms (organisms that possess all three germ layers) can be classified as either

Answer 56

protostomes or deuterostomes.

Question 57

The terms ‘protostome’ and ‘deuterostome’ are used to describe certain processes that organisms undergo

Answer 57

during embryonic development.

Question 58

Protostomes have

Answer 58

spiral cleavage

determinate cleavage

Question 59

Determinate cleavage means that blastomeres are unable to

Answer 59

develop into a complete embryo if they are separated.

Question 60

indeterminate cleavage

Answer 60

in which separated blastomeres ARE able to complete full development.

Question 61

indeterminate cleavage

Question 62

In protostomes, the blastopore (an opening created by the invagination of the primitive streak) will develop into the

Answer 62

mouth

Question 63

Deuterostomes undergo

Answer 63

radial cleavage

indeterminate cleavage

Question 64

In deuterostomes, the blastopore becomes

Answer 64

the anus

ex. humans

Question 65

Platyhelminthes examples

Answer 65

(flukes, tapeworms, flatworms, planarians, and trematoda)

protosomes

most primitive triploblastic organisms.

They have only one opening to their digestive cavity which serves as both a mouth for ingesting food and an anus for excretion.

Question 66

Cnidarians examples

Answer 66

hydra, jellyfish, coral, and sea anemones

neither protostomes nor deuterostomes.

This is because these organisms are diploblastic.

These organisms, similar to Platyhelminthes, have a gastrovascular cavity for their digestive system.

Question 67

Nematodes examples

Answer 67

roundworms, ascarcis, trichina, C. elegans, and hookworms

protostomes

Nematodes are the most primitive organisms to possess an alimentary canal.

This means that Nematodes possess both a mouth and an anus in their digestive system.

Question 68

Mollusks –

Answer 68

the phylum Mollusca (clams, squids, octopuses, snails, and slugs) are protostomes.

Mollusks are the most primitive organisms to possess an alimentary canal along with accessory organs, making a complete digestive system.

Question 69

nucleolus

Answer 69

vital role in ribosome biogenesis

produces rRNA and assembles ribosomal subunits

Question 70

Ribosomal subunits are made of

Answer 70

rRNA and proteins.

Question 71

The proteins found in ribosomal subunits are shuttled into the

Answer 71

nucleoplasm via nuclear pores

Question 72

Once in the nucleolus, rRNA and ribosomal proteins are integrated to create a

Answer 72

ribosomal subunit

Question 73

Two ribosomal subunits comprise a

Answer 73

functional ribosome

Question 74

Golgi apparatus is characterized by the presence of

Answer 74

cisternae which is the site of protein modification

Question 75

operant conditioning

Answer 75

form of associate learning

organism learns a behavior with a reward or punishment

ex. offering a puppy a treat for going outside (positive reward)

Question 76

The posterior pituitary is a gland made up of neuronal tissue that is continuous with the

Answer 76

hypothalamus

Question 77

The posterior pituitary does not produce its own hormones, but rather, stores and secretes certain hormones that are made from the

Answer 77

hypothalamus

Question 78

Examples of these hormones from posterior pituitary include

Answer 78

vasopressin (ADH)

oxytocin

Question 79

vasopressin is an important hormone that

Answer 79

decreases urination.

This is important to counteract dehydration by increasing the reabsorption of water in the collecting duct of nephrons (recall that nephrons are the functional unit of the kidney).

This is done by increasing the number of aquaporins which are essentially water channels that accumulate on the collecting duct to allow for the movement of water back into the circulatory system. This will cause urine to become much more concentrated, the sole reason behind urine being yellow when we haven’t drunk enough water during the day.

Question 80

Oxytocin

Answer 80

is released from the posterior pituitary.

Oxytocin is released during childbirth to increase the force of uterine contractions.

Oxytocin also stimulates the contraction of breast tissue to assist in milk ejection during breastfeeding.

Question 81

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released from the

Answer 81

anterior pituitary

Question 82

FSH is responsible for the

Answer 82

production and growth of a follicle in females and the maturation of sperm in males

Question 83

luteinizing hormone (LH)

Answer 83

released from anterior pituitary

responsible for the commencement of ovulation during menstrual cycle

responsible for the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules in males

Question 84

hGH

Answer 84

human growth hormone (somatotropin)

released from anterior pituitary

responsible for the growth and development of muscles and bones

Question 85

cortisol is released from

Answer 85

adrenal cortex and adrenal glands

Question 86

cortisol is a

Answer 86

glucocorticoid that accumulates during long term stress

Question 87

Cortisol raises blood glucose levels by targeting

Answer 87

muscle cells, liver cells, and fat cells

Question 88

The muscle provides

Answer 88

amino acids, the liver stores glycogen which can be converted to glucose via glycogenolysis, and the fat cells provide fatty acids that can be used for energy.

Question 89

A man and a woman have normal skin color but both have one parent with albinism, which is caused by an autosomal recessive allele. If the couple intends on having 2 children, which of the following is the probability that both children will have albinism?

Answer 89

Therefore, there is a ¼ chance a child of this couple will have albinism (aa). Furthermore, the question states that the couple intends on having 2 children and asks for the probability of both children having albinism. Each child is an independent event, and so, we multiply the probability of the first child having albinism (¼) by the probability of the second child having albinism (¼). Therefore, ¼ x ¼ = 1/16 is the probability that both children will have albinism.

Question 90

Down syndrome is a condition caused when nondisjunction occurs in meiosis I. Which of the following gametes would be produced from this condition?

Answer 90

Two gametes will lack chromosome #21 and two would have an extra copy

Question 91

Which of the following produces and secretes a hormone responsible for decreasing blood calcium levels?

Answer 91

thyroid

Question 92

Two glands in the endocrine system are responsible for regulating blood calcium levels:

Answer 92

parathyroid and thyroid

Question 93

C-cells (also known as parafollicular cells) of the thyroid gland produce the hormone

Answer 93

calcitonin

which acts to decrease the calcium levels in the blood (think calcitonin = tone down)

Question 94

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) has the opposite effect as Calcitonin and is produced by the

Answer 94

chief cells of the parathyroid gland.

Question 95

Calcitonin is released by the thyroid when blood calcium levels

Answer 95

high

In order to decrease blood calcium levels, calcitonin will stimulate osteoblasts to build more bone.

calcitonin will also inhibit osteoclast activity and proliferation. This prevents osteoclasts from breaking down bone and releasing calcium into circulation.

Question 96

Adrenal cortex

Answer 96

the outer portion of an adrenal gland

produces and secretes:
1. mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone which regulates blood pressure
2.glucocorticoids, such as cortisol which help regulate metabolism and the body’s response to stress and inflammation.

Question 97

adrenal medulla

Answer 97

inner portion of an adrenal gland

produces catecholamines, specifically, adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine) that are involved in the fight-or-flight response.

Question 98

Anterior pituitary

Answer 98

The anterior pituitary produces and secretes several hormones, including Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH), Luteinizing Hormone (LH), Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), etc…

Question 99

The role of the collecting duct in the nephron of the kidney involves __________.

Answer 99

sodium reabsorption in response to aldosterone

to increase water and sodium reabsorption as well as potassium secretion in response to aldosterone and/or antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin.

Question 100

Aldosterone is a

Answer 100

mineralocorticoid

released by adrenal gland ( cortex )

increases salt and water reabsorption while increasing potassium secretion in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

Question 101

The Hardy-Weinberg principle

Answer 101

states that populations are in genetic equilibrium if their allele frequencies do not change from generation to generation

used to determine allele frequencies within a population that is in genetic equilibrium

p + q = 1
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p = frequency of the dominant allele
q= frequency of the recessive allele
p^2= frequency of homozygous dominant allele
2pq=frequency of heterozygous individuals
q^2= frequency of homozygous recessive individuals

Question 102

In order for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the following conditions must be met:

Answer 102

• No Natural Selection
• No Mutations
• No gene flow (the population is isolated from others)
• Large populations (decreases the effect of genetic drift)
• Random Mating

Question 103

What cells are the most abundant and the first to attack foreign infectious agents?

Answer 103

neutrophils

Question 104

neutrophils

Answer 104

phagocytic cells that are part of the “innate immune response”.

the most abundant type of white blood cell and are generally the first to enter the infected tissues/organs to elicit an immune response.

followed by lymphocytes (specifically, natural killer cells), and then monocytes/macrophages.

Question 105

Like neutrophils, monocytes are also phagocytes that work to

Answer 105

fight infections

Question 106

monocytes can turn into

Answer 106

macrophages

which are very good at eating things, as well as presenting antigens to activate the adaptive immune response.

Question 107

plasma cells and memory cells are part of the

Answer 107

adaptive immune response

derivatives of naive b cells

Question 108

Once naive B cells are activated by a given antigen that is recognized, it begins proliferating into

Answer 108

plasma cells and memory cells.

Question 109

Plasma cells function in the immediate

Answer 109

destruction of the invading pathogen while memory cells are “inactive”, where they lie dormant in circulation until they are activated by the same antigen upon subsequent infections.

Question 110

Memory cells are useful in the occurrence that a pathogen returns, hence the name

Answer 110

memory cells

These cells will recognize a returning antigen and become activated. Once activated, they proliferate into plasma cells, which aid in a much faster and stronger immune response.

Question 111

Helper T cells are derivatives of

Answer 111

naive T cells

which help mediate and assist in both the innate and adaptive immune response

Question 112

Which of the following organisms is most abundant in a prairie biome?

Answer 112

grass

Question 113

Temperate grasslands

Answer 113

fertile soil, its uneven seasonal rainfall, and seasonal droughts and fires.

Question 113

Following fertilization, the zygote will begin a process known as

Answer 113

cleavage

Question 114

Cleavage is the differentiation of the

Answer 114

zygote to form a ball of 8-16 cells (morula)

Question 115

morula will continue to differentiate growing into a mass of 128 cells with a hollow center known as

Answer 115

blastocoel

Question 116

blastula will differentiate into two structure form:

Answer 116

inner cell mass and trophoblast

Question 117

when inner cell mass is formed, the embryo is now known as a

Answer 117

blastocyst

Question 118

the inner cell mass will form two layers:

Answer 118

epiblast and hypoblast

Question 119

what structure will begin the process of grastulation

Answer 119

primitive streak

Question 120

Once the primitive streak has formed, the bilayer embryo will differentiate into

Answer 120

3 layers

Question 121

fitness

Answer 121

measured by the # of fertile offspring an organism can produce that can reach reproductive age

Question 122

yolk sac purpose in humans

Answer 122

first site of RBC synthesis

extraembryonic structure

Question 123

allantois

Answer 123

urine acid storage in egg laying animals

becomes umbilical cord and urinary bladder in adults

Question 124

intermediate filaments

Answer 124

found in cytoskeleton, cell junctions, and nuclear lamina

ex. keratin

Question 125

Absolute refractory period

Answer 125

B

Time period in which a second action potential ABSOLUTELY cannot be initiated, no matter how large the applied stimulus is. The absolute refractory period is a result of inactive Na+ channels.

The absolute refractory period sets the upper limit for the frequency of action potentials. The absolute refractory period begins once the threshold potential is met and ends after repolarization (just before hyperpolarization begins).

Question 126

Relative refractory period

Answer 126

C

is the time period immediately following the Absolute Refractory Period during which the initiation of a second action potential is possible, But a stronger-than-usual stimulus is required. The relative refractory period occurs when the membrane potential of the neuron is hyperpolarized (more negative than resting membrane potential). If the membrane potential of the neuron is more negative than the resting membrane potential, a stronger stimulus is required for the membrane potential to reach the threshold value and fire another action potential. During the relative refractory period, the voltage-gated Na+ channels are no longer activated

Question 127

A defect in which structure of a plant would prevent an ovule from being produced?

Answer 127

pistil

Question 128

flower-bearing plants.

Answer 128

angiosperms

ex fruits, maple, oaks, grass, etc.

Question 129

The flower is the reproductive structure of an

Answer 129

angiosperm

Question 130

the major structures of the flower include the

Answer 130

pistil
stamen
petals

Question 131

pistil

Answer 131

female reproductive structure

Question 132

3 parts of pistil

Answer 132

ovary: The ovary lies at the base of the style and is the site where ovules are produced. Ovules contain the female gamete of the plant which are fertilized by pollen to develop into a seed!

style: The style is the tube that leads from the stigma down to the ovary.

stigma: The stigma is the most superior structure and is the landing site for pollen.

Question 133

stamen

Answer 133

male reproductive structure

anther and filament

anther: chamber where pollen develops

Question 134

sepal

Answer 134

part of calyx of a flower that encases and protects the flower bud

may attract pollinators

Question 135

petal

Answer 135

attracts pollinators

Question 136

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Answer 136

make millions of copies of a specified region of DNA.

utilizes DNA primers, Taq polymerase (a heat-resistant DNA polymerase), a thermal cycler, and a sample of the DNA that the researcher wishes to be amplified.

protocol for PCR requires the researcher to place the DNA sample, Taq polymerase, and DNA primers into a PCR tube

three stages of the polymerase chain reaction: denaturation (~95° C), primer annealing (~65° C), and elongation (~70° C). Each cycle of denaturation, primer annealing, and elongation, the amount of double-stranded DNA segments will double.

Question 137

The blood type with the lowest chance of causing a transfusion reaction when donated is __________.

Answer 137

type O-

Question 138

universal acceptor

Answer 138

AB+

Question 139

bottleneck effect

Answer 139

whenever a population undergoes a dramatic decrease in size due to natural catastrophes or other events. A population bottleneck may be caused by a natural disaster, aggressive hunting practices, or habitat destruction. This results in a smaller population with a smaller gene pool, exaggerating the effect of genetic drift (the random increase or decrease in allele frequency).

Question 141

Menstruation describes the sloughing off of the

Answer 141

uterine wall

causes the discharge of blood when an egg is not fertilized during that cycle

Question 142

The menstrual cycle is a 28-day cycle with 3 distinct phases:

Answer 142

follicular phase (day 1-13)

ovulation (day 14)

luteal phase (day 15-28).

Question 143

follicular phase

Answer 143

steady secretion of both luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone.

(FSH) stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary

one of these follicles (the Graafian follicle) will develop the most and this is where the egg (ovum) will be secreted from.

Nearing the end of the follicular phase, we see a rise in estrogen levels.

Estrogen will cause the innermost uterine lining (the endometrium) to thicken in preparation for the implantation of a developing embryo.

rise in estrogen also leads to a positive feedback loop, ultimately stimulating a sudden rise in luteinizing hormone (LH). This spike in LH is what triggers ovulation.

Question 144

Ovulation phase:

Answer 144

quickest of the three phases and can simply be summarized as the release of an ovum from the Graafian follicle.

During this time, the egg exits the ovary and travels down the fallopian tube, approaching the uterus.

Fertilization of the egg typically occurs in the fallopian tube.

After the Graafian follicle has released the egg, it develops into the corpus luteum

Question 145

luteal phase

Answer 145

Graafian follicle has released the egg, it develops into the corpus luteum.

corpus luteum will produce progesterone and some estrogen.

corpus luteum is being maintained by FSH and LH.

Progesterone, along with estrogen, will continue to thicken the endometrium in preparation for the implantation of a developing embryo.

If fertilization has not occurred, then the high levels of estrogen and progesterone will lead to negative feedback on the anterior pituitary, ultimately inhibiting the continued secretion of FSH and LH.

The drop in FSH and LH will lead to the degradation of the corpus luteum which leads to a decrease in estrogen and progesterone.

The decrease in estrogen and progesterone will ultimately lead to the sloughing off of the endometrium, the process known as menstruation.

Question 146

modern cell theory

Answer 146

1. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells
2. Cell is the basic unit of structure, function, and organization in all organisms.
3. All cells come from preexisting, living cells.
4. Cells carry hereditary information.
   As we can see, the Modern Cell Theory states that the cell is the basic unit of structure, function, and organization in all organisms.

Question 147

Peptide bonds

Answer 147

are the bonds that exist between adjacent amino acids.

Peptide bonds are formed via dehydration synthesis, otherwise known as a condensation reaction

Question 148

All amino acids are composed of an

Answer 148

alpha carbon, an amino group (NH2), hydrogen atom (H), and a carboxyl group (COOH).

Question 149

The outer ear is made up of the

Answer 149

auricle/pinna

Question 150

tympanic membrane

Answer 150

Sound travels through the external auditory canal before reaching

The tympanic membrane is a structure of the middle ear which vibrates the sounds and transfers those vibrations to 3 very small bones within the middle ear.

Question 151

small bones in ear, ossicles

Answer 151

malleous
incus
stapes: connected to the oval window which bridges the gap between the middle ear and the inner ear.

Question 152

Once the sound has reached the oval window, it gets transferred to the

Answer 152

cochlea

Within the cochlea is fluid and a basement membrane.

Hair cells detect the movement of the fluid and send different signals to the brain based on this movement via the auditory nerve. The inner ear also contains semicircular canals which assist with balance.

Question 153

ciliary body

Answer 153

structure of the eye found behind the iris. The ciliary body contains the ciliary muscle which changes the shape of the lens in order to focus light on the retina.

Question 154

What graphical representation shows the accumulation of biomass at each trophic level in an ecosystem?

Answer 154

ecological pyramid

Question 155

The pancreas releases enzymes used in digestion. Which of the following pancreatic enzymes is used to cleave peptide chains?

Answer 155

chymotrypsin

Question 156

As chyme enters the small intestine, cells of the small intestine will secrete

Answer 156

cholecystokinin, a hormone that, among other functions, will signal the pancreas to release its digestive enzymes.

Chymotrypsinogen and trypsinogen are secreted from the pancreas and converted into chymotrypsin and trypsin via enteropeptidase, which is an enzyme released from glands of the small intestine in response to the entrance of chyme.