Dale's Dreaded Fill in the Blank Quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the defining features of SVT.

A

Narrow, Fast, Regular (Rate over 150 for adults, 180 for pediatrics, 220 for infants)

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2
Q

Describe the defining features of a 3rd degree HB.

A

P-waves and QRS are unrelated

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3
Q

Describe the defining features of a 2nd degree type 1 HB.

A

Wenckebach P-R interval widens until a beat is dropped

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4
Q

Describe the defining features of v-tach.

A

Wide, Fast, Regular

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5
Q

Describe the defining features of multifocal atrial tachycardia.

A

Rate over 100, 3 or more different P waves, Irregularly Irregular

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6
Q

Describe the defining features of v-fib.

A

Chaos

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7
Q

Your pediatric patient is in vfib, you have elected to defib. What is the Joule setting?

A

1-2 J/kg

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8
Q

In PEA, the H’s and T’s must be identified, list them.

A

H: Hypoxia, Hypovolemia, Hydrogen Ion Excess, Hypokalemia, Hypothermia
T: Toxins, Thrombosis (PE), Thrombosis (MI), Tamponade, Tension Pneumo

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9
Q

Beck’s Triad is used to identify what disorder? What are the components of Beck’s Triad?

A

Cardiac Tamponade
JVD, Muffled Heart Tones, Narrowing Pulse Pressures

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10
Q

What part of the heart’s anatomy is consistent with leads I and AVL?

A

High Lateral

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11
Q

Use the rule of nines for an infant who has burns to the chest and abdomen.

A

18%

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12
Q

ACTH is produced in the ________ and stimulates the ________.

A

Anterior Pituitary
Adrenal Glands

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13
Q

What are the receptor sites for the sympathetic nervous system? When stimulated, what is the response for each?

A

A1 - Vasoconstriction
A2 - Mediator
B1 - Increased dromotropy, Inotropy, and Chronotropy
B2 - Bronchodilation
B3 - Piloerection / Muscle Shivering

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14
Q

What are the components of the Parkland Burn Formula?

A

% BSA x 4 mL x weight in KG
1st half in first 8 hrs, 2nd half in 16 hrs

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15
Q

What are the three types of obstructive shock?

A

Tension Pneumo, Cardiac Tamponade, PE

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16
Q

What structure separates the upper and lower GI system?

A

Ligament of Treitz

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17
Q

What is the drug class for Albuterol? What is the effect of Albuterol?

A

Sympathetic Agonist
Bronchodilation

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18
Q

A patient has HIV, which has become AIDS. This is an example of…

A

Seroconversion

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19
Q

What is a normal PaO2?

A

80-100 mm/hg

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20
Q

Describe Henry’s Law.

A

The weight of a gas is based on the weight of the gas above it.

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21
Q

How do you mix dopamine?

A

800 mg of dopamine placed in 500 mL of saline = 1600 mcg/mL

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22
Q

Lasix is a diuretic. Where in the kidney does it work?

A

Loop of Henle

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23
Q

What is the antidote for benzodiazepines?

A

Romozicon
Rominizil

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24
Q

A person overdosed on Elavil. What significant finding would I look for on the EKG?

A

Dominant R wave in AVR and a wide QRS

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25
Q

Number one sign of RSF? Number one cause of RSF?

A

Peripheral Edema
Left Side Failure

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26
Q

What coronary artery feeds the septum?

A

Left Anterior Descending

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27
Q

What are the components of Tort Law?

A

Injury
Duty to Act
Breach of duty
Proximal cause

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28
Q

Describe the pH, HCO3, and CO2 in respiratory acidosis?

A

pH below 7.35
HCO3 normal
CO2 above 45

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29
Q

When dopamine is delivered at 2-5 ug/kg/min, the effects are?

A

Renal and mesenteric dilation

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30
Q

Osmotic diuresis is responsible for dehydration in what common disease?

A

Diabetes or HHNK

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31
Q

What defines a pathological Q wave (how do you identify it)?

A

Q-wave that is ⅓ the depth of the height of the R-wave and wider then 1 little box

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32
Q

A 47 y/o patient has LLQ pain, with diarrhea and some mucus. What do they likely have?

A

Diverticulitis

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33
Q

What is an acute arterial occlusion? What is the treatment?

A

Partial occlusion of an artery
Pain medication

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34
Q

Portal hypertension is associated with which sign/symptom?

A

Esophageal varices

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35
Q

What are the steps the body takes to control a bleed?

A

Vasoconstriction
Inflammatory Response
Clotting Cascade

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36
Q

An ace inhibitor causes its action by?

A

Preventing angiotensin 1 from becoming angiotensin 2

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37
Q

What rate is considered SVT in infants?

A

220 bpm

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38
Q

You have a medication that contains 10 mg of the drug in 20 mL of fluid. You are ordered to give 5 mg to the pt. How much of the fluid would you administer?

A

10 mL

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39
Q

What is the infusion rate for amiodarone?

A

1 mg/min

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40
Q

What causes the narrowing pulse pressure in a pt with a tension pneumothorax?

A

The inferior vena cava is twisted by pressure in the thoracic cavity decreasing preload dropping systolic and creating back pressure increasing diastolic.

41
Q

What leads do we look at to determine if a pt has left ventricular hypertrophy?

A

V1 or V2 (Highest)
V5 or V6 (Lowest)
7 little blocks combined = Left Hypertrophy

42
Q

What is the BSA percentage for an infant with circumferential burns to both legs?

A

28%

43
Q

What nerve controls the intercostal muscles?

A

Intercostal Nerve

44
Q

What are the receptor sites for the parasympathetic nervous system? What is the neurotransmitter for the cholinergic system?

A

Muscarinic and Nicotinic
Acetylcholine

45
Q

Describe the s/s in a pt who has Brown Sequard Syndrome.

A

Penetrating Trauma to the spinal cord
Loss of sensation on one side of the body and loss of motor on the opposite

46
Q

Name the types of distributive shock.

A

Sepsis
Anaphylaxis
Neurogenic

47
Q

At the transition between fetus and newborn the umbilical vein becomes the _______?

A

Ligament of teres (liver)

48
Q
A
49
Q

What is the class of Ipratropium? What is the action of Ipratropium on lungs?

A

Parasympathetic antagonist
Prevents bronchoconstriction by blocking parasympathetic receptors in the lungs

50
Q

What is the name for the system that drains the venous blood from the alimentary canal to the liver?

A

Portal System

51
Q

List the following: normal PaCO2, normal HCO3, normal PaO2.

A

35-45 mm/hg
22-26 mm/hg
80-100 mm/hg

52
Q

Describe Boyle’s Law.

A

A gasses volume is inversely proportional to its pressure.

53
Q

What is the infusion rate for epinephrine for refractory bradycardia?

A

2-10 mcg/min

54
Q

Describe acetazolamide.

A

Diuretic that enhances elimination of bicarb (given in high altitude sickness)

54
Q

What is the treatment for a hydrofluoric acid burn?

A

Cations (calcium/magnesium)
If the burn is on a limb you can submerge the limb in cold water

55
Q

What is the treatment for an amitriptyline overdose?

A

Sodium Bicarb

56
Q

What is the number 2 cause of RSF? Your pt has developed RVH, and has a long hx of COPD. What is the name of this condition?

A

COPD
Cor Pulmonale

57
Q

The LM artery bifurcates into the _________ and the ________.

A

LAD
Circumflex

58
Q

What patients are at risk for developing a subdural hematoma?

A

Alcoholics and Geriatrics

59
Q

Describe the following in metabolic acidosis: pH, PaCO2, HCO3.

A

PH below 7.35
PaCO2 normal
HCO3 below 22

60
Q

What is the action of dopamine at 5 ugs to 10 ugs/kg/min?

A

Cardiac dose
Increases dromotropy, inotropy, and chronotropy

61
Q

What is the normal RR for a newborn?

A

30-60

62
Q

ST depression in leads VI, VII, VIII, and VIIII, in a pt with chest pain could indicate?

A

Posterior MI or ischemia of the septum

63
Q

Pain in URQ could indicate what two potential problems?

A

Liver or gallbladder disorders

64
Q

What are the components to Virchow’s Triad?

A

Venous stasis
Venous injury
Hypercoagulability

65
Q

Name two vessels that perfuse the Circle of Willis in the brain?

A

Internal Carotids
Posterior Cerebral Artery

66
Q

When mast cells degranulate, it causes vessels to become ________ and bronchial muscle to ________.

A

Dilated
Constrict

67
Q

The posterior pituitary produces what hormones?

A

ADH
Oxytocin

68
Q

Your trauma pt has developed narrowing pulse pressure. He has lost approximately how much blood?

A

1500 - 2000 mL or around 25%

69
Q

A pt with addisonian crisis could present with which of the following?

A

Hypoglycemia and low BP

70
Q

What do each of the letters in CHAP mean?

A

Chest Pain
Hypotension
Altered Mental Status
Pulmonary Edema

71
Q

What are the components of Cushing’s Reflex?

A

Result of increasing ICP
BP rises, Heart Rate drops, Biots or Cheyne-Stokes respirations

72
Q

An infant has circumferential burns to the left arm and back, what is the TBS area burned?

A

27%

73
Q

What is the motor nerve that controls the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal nerve
Cranial nerve XII

74
Q

Which blade is used in intubation with a one y/o pt?

A

Miller Blade

75
Q

What causes bradycardia in a pt with neurogenic shock?

A

Lack of sympathetic tone above

76
Q

Your pt has been involved in a rear-end MVA and now complains of
weakness and numbness in their arm and hand. The pt probably has _________.

A

Central Cord Syndrome

77
Q

During the transition from fetus to newborn, the ductus arteriosus becomes the ________.

A

Arteriosus ligamentum

78
Q

What is the class for epinephrine? What is its action on the lungs? In the lungs, what receptor sites are stimulated?

A

Sympathomimetic
Bronchodilation
B2

79
Q

Describe the term claudication.

A

Pain caused by occlusion of an artery, lack of O2 to muscle, relief with rest

80
Q

Describe the cause of trench foot. Describe the signs and symptoms.

A

Exposure to cold and damp
Numbness, tingling, pruning, skin loss, cold/ashen skin

81
Q

What is Dalton’s Law?

A

The total weight (pressure) of a gas is equal to the weight (pressure) of the gasses that compose it.

82
Q

When dopamine is administered at 10 mcg/kg to 20 mcg/kg, what is the result?

A

Powerful vasoconstrictor similar to norepi

83
Q

List possible causes for the following: metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis.

A

M acidosis: Kidney Failure
M alkalosis: Vomiting
R acidosis: Overdose of opiates
R alkalosis: Altitude sickness

84
Q

What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate?

A

Calcium Gluconate

85
Q

What drug is used to treat torsades de pointes? What is the dose for the above treatment?

A

Magnesium Sulfate
2 g

86
Q

What is the number one cause of LSF? Number two cause of LSF? Number one sign of LSF?

A

MI
Long term hypertension
Pulmonary edema

87
Q

What is the branch of the RCA that feeds the inferior wall of the left ventricle?

A

Posterior descending artery

88
Q

What does the term ‘res ipsa loquitur’ mean?

A

The thing speaks for itself

89
Q

Describe the following in metabolic alkalosis: pH, CO2, HCO3.

A

PH above 7.45
CO2 normal
HCO3 above 26

90
Q

In reference to norepinephrine, what is its class? What is its action? How is it different from epinephrine?

A

Sypatomimetric
Vasoconstriction
Primarily A1 (think of dale drawing the greater amounts of receptor sites)

91
Q

What is a normal BP for a 12 y/o?

A

100/60

92
Q

Inverted T waves in II, III, and aVF would indicate _________.

A

Ischemia to the inferior or right side cardiac tissue

93
Q

Chest pain radiating between shoulder blades should be evaluated for ________.

A

Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm

94
Q

What is the treatment for acute arterial occlusion?

A

Pain Medicine

95
Q

Esophageal varices is usually the result of chronic ________.

A

Portal Hypertension
Alcoholism also acceptable

96
Q

A person with an obstruction at the carina would most likely present with ________. A person with an obstruction in the left mainstem bronchus would present with ________.

A

Persistent coughing
Tracheal tugging to the side of the obstruction

97
Q

TSH is secreted from the ________ and causes the ________ to release ________.

A

Anterior Pituitary
Thyroid
T3 and T4