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Physiology MCQ > CVS Physio MCQ > Flashcards

CVS Physio MCQ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which part of the ECG corresponds to the ventricular systole?
    a. Start of the R wave to end of T wave
    b. QRS segment
    c. ST segment
    d. T wave
    e. Start of P to end of QRS
A

a. Start of the R wave to end of T wave

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2
Q

Which of the following is least likely to regulate the heart rate?

a. Intermedio-lateral (lateral) nucleus
b. Sinu-atrial node
c. Cardiac (nerve) plexus
d. Phrenic nerve
e. Vagus nerve

A

d. Phrenic nerve

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the autonomic innervation of the heart?

a. At the preganglionic synapse for parasympathetic innervation, acetylcholine is released from the preganglionic neuron
b. At the postganglionic synapse for parasympathetic innervation, acetylcholine is released from the postganglionic neuron
c. At the postganglionic synapse for sympathetic innervation, noradrenaline (norepinephrine) is released from the postganglionic neuron
d. Postganglionic neurons are located in cervical ganglia
e. Postganglionic neurons run in the vagus nerve

A

e. Postganglionic neurons run in the vagus nerve

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4
Q

Which of the following is an indication of increased ventricular contractility?

a. Increase end-diastolic volume, same end-systolic volume
b. Decrease end-diastolic volume, same end-systolic volume
c. Increase end-systolic volume, same end-diastolic volume
d. Decrease end-systolic volume, same end-diastolic volume
e. Increase end-diastolic volume, increase end-systolic volume

A

d. Decrease end-systolic volume, same end-diastolic volume

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5
Q
  1. Ivabradine is a drug that inhibits the “funny” channels in the sinuatrial node of the heart. Which of the following is an effect of Ivabradine?
    a. Increase heart rate
    b. Decrease heart rate
    c. Increase contractility of the heart
    d. Decrease contractility of the heart
    e. Increases duration of the QRS segment (i.e. prolonged QRS) of the ECG
A

b. Decrease heart rate

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6
Q

The following would be observed in a patient in hypovolemic shock except:

a. Sweating (increased sympathetic innervation)
b. Decreased urine output (ADH / aldosterone)
c. Higher central venous pressure
d. Increased plasma aldosterone concentration
e. Increased total peripheral resistance

A

c. Higher central venous pressure

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7
Q
  1. Aliskiren is a drug that inhibits the enzyme renin. Which of the following effects would you observe in a patient taking this drug?
    a. Lower blood pressure
    b. Decreased heart rate
    c. Increased cardiac contractility
    d. Increased fluid retention
    e. Increased total peripheral resistance
A

a. Lower blood pressure

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8
Q

Which of the following is not indicative of heart failure?

a. Exertional dyspnea
b. Ankle edema
c. Increased ejection fraction

A

c. Increased ejection fraction

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9
Q
  1. If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, which will most likely occur?
    a. The rate of ventricular contraction will decrease
    b. Afterload will increase
    c. The rate of atrial contraction will decrease
    d. Stroke volume will increase to 5L/beat
    e. All of the above
A

a. The rate of ventricular contraction will decrease

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10
Q
  1. If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect the appearance of the EKG?
    a. PR interval would be smaller
    b. QRS interval would be shorter
    c. There would be more P waves than QRS complexes
    d. There would be more QRS complexes than P waves
    e. The T wave would be absent
A

c. There would be more P waves than QRS complexes

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11
Q

What effect would compressing the inferior vena cava just below the diaphragm have on cardiac function?

a. Stroke volume would decrease
b. Cardiac output would decrease
c. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would eventually increase
d. Heart rate would eventually increase
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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12
Q

According to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, CO is directly related to:

a. Ventricular muscle mass
b. Heart rate
c. Amount of blood returning to the heart
d. ESV
e. Cardiac reserve

A

c. Amount of blood returning to the heart

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13
Q

The T wave on an ECG represents:

a. Ventricular depolarization
b. Ventricular repolarization
c. Atrial depolarization
d. Atrial repolarization
e. Ventricular systole

A

b. Ventricular repolarization

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14
Q
  1. Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events:
    a. Closure of the semilunar valves
    b. Contraction of the crista terminalis
    c. Contraction of the ventricular musculature
    d. Closure of the AV valves
    e. All of the above
    f. 2 of the above
A

f. 2 of the above

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15
Q

The left ventricular wall is thicker than the right ventricular wall in order to:

a. Accommodate a greater volume of blood
b. Expand the thoracic cage during diastole
c. Pump a greater volume of blood
d. Pump blood with greater pressure
e. Pump blood through a smaller valve

A

d. Pump blood with greater pressure

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16
Q

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that:

a. The heart would stop
b. The heart rate would decrease
c. The heart rate would increase
d. Parasympathetic stimulation to the blood vessels would increase in an attempt to compensate

A

c. The heart rate would increase

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17
Q

Which of the following depolarizes next after the AV node:

a. Atrial myocardium
b. Ventricular myocardium
c. Bundle branches
d. Purkinje fibers

A

c. Bundle branches

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18
Q

Given an EDV of 150 ml, an ESV of 50 ml and a HR of 60 bpm, cardiac output is:

a. 600 ml/min
b. 6 l/min
c. 60000 ml/min
d. none of the above

A

b. 6 l/min

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19
Q

The statement “strength of contraction increases intrinsically due to increased stretching of the heart wall” is best attributed to:

a. Poiusseille’s law
b. Bainbridge reflex
c. Frank-Starling law
d. Faraday’s law
e. Henry’s law

A

c. Frank-Starling law

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20
Q

An increase in heart rate will cause preload to

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same

A

b. Decrease

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21
Q
  1. The majority of cardiac muscle cells are
    a. Striated
    b. Joined by intercalated discs
    c. Not autorhythmic
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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22
Q

During atrial systole

a. The tricuspid and bicuspid valves are closed but the semilunar valves are open
b. The bicuspid valve is open but the mitral valve is closed
c. Both semilunar valves and both AV valves are open
d. Both AV valves are open and both semilunar valves are closed

A

d. Both AV valves are open and both semilunar valves are closed

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23
Q

A variety of events occur in the cardiac cycle when the semilunar valves are open. Select the letter answer that contains all the correct numbered events.

  1. The ventricles have completed contraction
  2. Blood is entering the pulmonary trunk
  3. Blood is entering the left ventricle
  4. The atria are in diastole
  5. The ventricles are in systole
  6. The AV valves are closed

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
c. 4, 5
d. 4, 5, 6
e. None of the above

A

b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

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24
Q

An ECG has no P waves but QRS and T wave are normal. Which of the following is the most likely pacemaker?

a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Bundle branch
d. Purkinje fibres
e. Myocardium

A

b. AV node

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the cardiac cycle is false?
    a. The aortic valve closes at the end of systole
    b. There is a period in the cardiac cycle when both mitral and aortic valves are closed
    c. Closure of the mitral valve gives rise to the 1st heart sound
    d. The 3rd heart sound occurs during atrial contraction
    e. The carotid pulse can be felt during the period between the 1st and 2nd heart sounds
A

d. The 3rd heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

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26
Q

Which of the following distinguishes hypovolemic from cardiogenic shock?

a. Arterial blood pressure
b. Cardiac output
c. Renal blood flow
d. Central venous pressure
e. Total peripheral resistance

A

d. Central venous pressure

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27
Q

Which of the following is associated with left ventricular failure?

a. Enlarged liver and spleen
b. Ankle edema
c. Raised jugular venous pressure
d. Increased ejection fraction
e. Increased plasma renin levels

A

e. Increased plasma renin levels

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28
Q

Which of the following conditions has the greatest pulse pressure?

a. Decreased arterial compliance
b. Increased total peripheral resistance
c. Increased sympathetic stimulation
d. Increased sympathetic stimulation
e. Cardiac failure

A

a. Decreased arterial compliance

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29
Q

The PR interval in an ECG is measured by finding the interval between the

a. Beginning of the P wave and the beginning of the R wave
b. Beginning of the P wave and the beginning of the QRS complex
c. Beginning of the P wave and the end of the QRS complex
d. End of the wave and the beginning of the QRS complex
e. End of the P wave and the end of the QRS complex

A

b. Beginning of the P wave and the beginning of the QRS complex

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30
Q

Which of the following descriptions of ECG leads V1 to V6 is true?

a. They are unipolar leads measuring electric potential in the frontal plane
b. They are unipolar leads measuring electric potential in the horizontal plane
c. They are bipolar leads measuring electric potential in the frontal plane
d. They are bipolar leads measuring electric potential in the horizontal plane
e. They are bipolar leads measuring electric potential in both frontal and horizontal planes

A

b. They are unipolar leads measuring electric potential in the horizontal plane

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following normally has the steepest prepotential?
    a. SA node
    b. AV node
    c. Bundles of His
    d. Terminals of the Purkinje fibers
    e. Ventricular muscle fibers
A

a. SA node

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32
Q

Phase 2 of the ventricular muscle action potential results from the opening of the

a. Voltage gated Na channel
b. Voltage gated Ca channel
c. Inward rectifying K channel
d. Outward rectifying K channel

A

b. Voltage gated Ca channel

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33
Q
  1. Cardiac output is decreased in
    a. Anemia
    b. Beri-beri
    c. Exercise
    d. Bradycardia
    e. Sympathetic stimulation
A

d. Bradycardia

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34
Q
  1. During the cardiac cycle,
    a. Heart sounds are caused by the opening of valves
    b. The 4th heart sound is caused by atrial filling
    c. The pressures in the LV and aorta are equal
    d. Ventricular ejection of blood occurs during the entire duration of systole
    e. Closure of the mitral valve marks the beginning of systole
A

e. Closure of the mitral valve marks the beginning of systole

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35
Q

A young man complains of cold and pain in his fingers in an air-conditioned room. Which of the following most likely accounts for the increased sensitivity to cold?

a. Low concentrations of circulating epinephrine
b. Low concentrations of circulating norepinephrine
c. High sensitivity of arterioles to norepinephrine
d. High sensitivity of arterioles to nitric oxide
e. Decreased parasympathetic stimulation to arterioles in the skin

A

c. High sensitivity of arterioles to norepinephrine

36
Q
  1. Central venous pressure is increased by
    a. Hemorrhage
    b. Increased excretion of salt and water
    c. Decreased vasopressin secretion
    d. Muscle pump
    e. Standing up
A

d. Muscle pump

37
Q

Which of the following occurs when a normal healthy person stands from a supine posture prior to compensation?

a. Stroke volume increases
b. Heart rate decreases
c. Venous return decreases
d. Right atrial volume increases
e. Mean arterial blood pressure increases

A

c. Venous return decreases

38
Q

Which of the following results in an increase in stroke volume, compared to resting value?

a. Decrease in total peripheral resistance
b. Decrease in heart rate
c. Decrease in venous return
d. Decrease in sympathetic activation
e. Increase in parasympathetic activation

A

a. Decrease in total peripheral resistance

b. Decrease in heart rate

39
Q
  1. An arterial partial pressure of CO2 (PaCO2) of 32 mmHg may
    a. Arise due to the depression of the medullary respiratory center
    b. Arise due to low pulmonary compliance
    c. Arise due to hysterical hyperventilation
    d. Result in low plasma pH
    e. Lead to increased formation of carbaminohaemoglobin
A

c. Arise due to hysterical hyperventilation

40
Q

Which part of the ECG corresponds to the ventricular systole?

a. Start of R wave to end of T wave
b. QRS segment
c. ST segment
d. T wave
e. Start of P to end of QRS

A

a. Start of R wave to end of T wave

41
Q
  1. Total peripheral resistance decreases during exercise because of the effect of:
    A. parasympathetic stimulation to skeletal muscles
    B. local metabolites on skeletal muscle arterioles
    C. increase in cardiac output
    D. increase in blood pressure
    E. histamine on skeletal muscle arterioles
A

B. local metabolites on skeletal muscle arterioles

42
Q 
43.	A valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely. This is known as:
A.	Stenosis 
B.	Heart Block 
C.	Ischemia 
D.	Myocardial Infarction
E.	Fibrillation
A

A. Stenosis

43
Q
  1. During ventricular systole:
    A. The atria are contracting
    B. The AV valves are closed
    C. The intraventricular pressure is less than the intra-atrial pressure
    D. The mitral valve is open
    E. Blood is forced into the ligamentum arteriosum
A

B. The AV valves are closed

44
Q
  1. Which of the following plays a role to ensure that the atria function as priming pumps?
    A. AV nodal delay
    B. Slow conduction along the L atrial wall
    C. Fast conduction along the Purkinje fibers
    D. The atrio-ventricular valves
A

A. AV nodal delay

45
Q 
46.	A patient has been taking digitalis as treatment for heart failure. Digitalis can cause AV nodal delay and shortens ventricular repolarization. Which of the following changes may be observed in the patient’s ECG?
A.	Shortened PR interval 
B.	Shortened QT interval 
C.	Increased heart rate 
D.	Prolonged QRS interval
E.	Prominent T waves
A

B. Shortened QT interval

46
Q 
47.	A patient experienced severe chest pain while watching TV. An ECG done showed ST elevations in leads II, III and aVF. The patient most likely had thrombosis of the 
A.	left main coronary artery
B.	left anterior descending
C.	left circumflex artery
D.	right coronary artery
A

D. right coronary artery

47
Q
  1. Oedema may occur in all of the following EXCEPT
    A. decreased plasma protein concentration
    B. increased capillary permeability
    C. decreased venous pressure
    D. increased capillary pressure
    E. obstruction to lymph flow
A

C. decreased venous pressure

48
Q 
49.	A 20 year old medical student complained of vomiting and watery diarrhoea over several days. His blood pressure was 110/80 on lying down and 90/60 on standing. Which of the following was the most likely cause for his postural hypotension?
A.	Cardiac failure
B.	Decreased blood volume
C.	Anemia
D.	Autonomic dysfunction
E.	Baroreceptor insensitivity
A

B. Decreased blood volume

49
Q
  1. You may expect to find the following in someone after a sudden loss of a litre of blood EXCEPT
    A. Increased heart rate
    B. Increased central venous pressure (RA pressure)
    C. Increased secretion of angiotensin
    D. Increased secretion of epinephrine
    E. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
A

B. Increased central venous pressure (RA pressure)

50
Q
  1. You may expect to find the following in someone after a myocardial infarction EXCEPT
    A. Increased heart rate
    B. Decreased central venous pressure (RA pressure)
    C. Increased secretion of angiotensin
    D. Increased secretion of epinephrine
    E. Increased sweating
A

B. Decreased central venous pressure (RA pressure)

51
Q
  1. An elderly man was referred to the cardiologist for severe hypertension. His plasma potassium was low and his serum urea and creatinine were elevated. Plasma renin was elevated. Auscultation of the abdomen revealed a “bruit” on the left side. Which of the following is a likely cause for his hypertension? (KIV: Renal)
    A. Pheochromocytoma (increased plasma epinephrine)
    B. Renal artery stenosis
    C. Conn’s syndrome – primary hyperaldosteronism
    D. Hyperthyroidism
    E. White-coat hypertension
A

B. Renal artery stenosis

52
Q
  1. Too fast heart rates can influence blood supply to the heart. Which of the following may occur under these circumstances?
    A. Perfusion of LV greater than LA
    B. Perfusion of LV greater than RV
    C. Perfusion of RV greater than LV
    D. No difference in perfusion between LV and RV
    E. Perfusion of RA less than LA
A

C. Perfusion of RV greater than LV

53
Q 
54.	Elderly patients with atherosclerosis of blood vessels, where elasticity is lost may be expected to have diastolic pressures
A.	higher than normal
B.	Same as systolic pressure
C.	Less than normal
D.	That are normal
A

C. Less than normal

54
Q
  1. A patient suffered a myocardial infarction as a result of blockage to the right coronary artery. His resting heart rate is 50 beats/ min. His ECG shows no P waves but QRS waves are normal. Which of the following may explain his bradycardia?
    A. LV damage
    B. Mitral valve regurgitation as a result of MI
    C. Aortic valve regurgitation as a result of MI
    D. Atrial septal defect
    E. SA node dysfunction as a result of MI
A

E. SA node dysfunction as a result of MI

55
Q
  1. An ACE inhibitor is often used to treat primary hypertension. Which of the following is a direct effect of this drug?
    A. Increased levels of renin
    B. Increased levels of aldosterone
    C. Increased levels of anti-diuretic hormone
    D. Decreased levels of angiotensin II
    E. Decreased levels of angiotensinogen
A

D. Decreased levels of angiotensin II

56
Q 
57.	Which of the following may be present in a patient with chronic heart failure?
A.	Decreased plasma renin
B.	Decreased plasma ADH
C.	Decreased sympathetic drive
D.	Increased B-type natriuretic peptide
A

D. Increased B-type natriuretic peptide

57
Q
  1. The following may transiently occur to an individual in a weightless environment EXCEPT:
    A. Increase in venous return
    B. Increase in blood pressure
    C. Decrease in heart rate
    D. Vasopressin (ADH) release is increased
A

D. Vasopressin (ADH) release is increased

58
Q 
59.	Which of the following has no P waves; normal QT complexes; irregular timing; ventricles constantly stimulated by atria; reduced pumping effectiveness and filling time?
A.	Atrial fibrillation
B.	Atrial flutter
C.	Ventricular tachycardia
D.	Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
E.	Ventricular fibrillation
A

A. Atrial fibrillation

59
Q 
60.	Septal myocardial infarction and damage to the bundles of His during surgical correction of congenital intraventricular septal defects would cause 
A.	Incomplete heart block
B.	First degree heart block
C.	Second degree heart block
D.	Third degree heart block
E.	Wenckebach phenomenon
A

D. Third degree heart block

60
Q 
61.	You see a 55-year-old, white female for a routine check-up. On the ECG you see a prolonged PQ interval suggesting a first-degree atrioventricular block. What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?
A.	Sinoatrial node
B.	Atrioventricular node
C.	Atrioventricular bundle
D.	Right and left bundle branches
E.	Purkinje fibers
A

A. Sinoatrial node

61
Q 
62.	A first year medical student is asked to identify that part of the ECG tracing which corresponds to conduction of an impulse from the SA node through the AV node. The correct answer is
A.	P wave
B.	P-R interval
C.	QRS compel
D.	S-T interval
E.	T wave
A

B. P-R interval

62
Q 
63.	A first year medical student is given an ECG tracing for the first time. He tries to determine a point on the tracing where the ventricles are completely depolarized. He thinks it would be at the start of the P wave. His answer is obviously wrong. What do you think is the right answer?
A.	Q
B.	P-R
C.	R
D.	S-T
E.	T
A

D. S-T

63
Q
  1. Prior to anesthetizing your patient for a routine face-lift, you administer an anti-muscarinic agent in order to prevent a decrease in blood pressure by vagal stimulation. What is the mechanism by which acetylcholine from the vagus nerve acts to slow the heart?
    A. Acetylcholine closes the sodium channels of the SA node, effectively hyperpolarizing it
    B. Acetylcholine opens the calcium channels of the cardiac myocytes, effectively delaying repolarization
    C. Acetylcholine increases permeability to potassium in the SA node, effectively hyperpolarizing it
    D. Acetylcholine closes the sodium channels of the SA node, effectively hypopolarizing it
    E. Acetylcholine decreases permeability to potassium in of the SA node, effectively hypopolarizing it
A

C. Acetylcholine increases permeability to potassium in the SA node, effectively hyperpolarizing it

64
Q
  1. Q-T interval recorded on an ECG primarily corresponds to:
    A. Ventricular repolarization
    B. Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization
    C. Ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization
    D. Atrial depolarization and conduction through AV node
    E. Purkinje fibers repolarization
A

B. Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization

65
Q
  1. Afterload is defined as the resistance against which the heart pumps blood into the systemic circulation. In the working ventricle, a sudden increase in afterload, with no change in contractility, preload, or heart rate would result in
    A. An increase in end-systolic ventricular volume
    B. Greater shortening of ventricular muscle fibers during ejection
    C. No change in intraventricular pressure during ejection
    D. A decrease in end-diastolic ventricular volume
    E. A decrease in end-systolic ventricular volume
A

A. An increase in end-systolic ventricular volume

66
Q 
67.	The period lasting from the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valve to the opening of the aortic valve is generally known as
A.	Ventricular filling phase
B.	Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
C.	Ventricular ejection phase
D.	Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
E.	Protodiastole period
A

B. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

67
Q 
68.	The output per minute per square meter of body surface is called
A.	Cardiac output
B.	Stroke volume
C.	Afterload
D.	Cardiac index
E.	Preload
A

D. Cardiac index

68
Q 
69.	The percentage of the end-diastolic ventricular volume ejected with each stroke (ejection fraction) is
A.	10%
B.	20%
C.	50%
D.	65%
E.	90%
A

D. 65%

69
Q 
70.	A cardiac function curve represents the relationship between cardiac output to mean right atrial pressure. Such a curve can be shifted upward or downward by changes in other variables. Which of the following would shift the curve upward (increase cardiac output at a given right atrial pressure)?
A.	An increase in venous return
B.	An increase in preload
C.	An increase in afterload
D.	An increase in heart rate
A

D. An increase in heart rate

70
Q
  1. Plasma renin activity is most likely to be lower than normal
    A. In congestive heart failure
    B. In hemorrhagic shock
    C. In shock due to infection with gram-negative bacteria
    D. In essential hypertension
    E. During quiet standing
A

D. In essential hypertension

71
Q 
72.	In which of the following does heart rate vary 5% during respiratory cycle and up to 30% during deep respiration?
A.	Sinus arrhythmia
B.	SA node block
C.	First-degree AV block
D.	Second-degree AV block
E.	Complete heart block
A

A. Sinus arrhythmia

72
Q
  1. A 50-year-old man experiences a sudden fluttering in his chest and throat, and quickly consults his physician. The attending doctor notices his general weak health condition. The physical examination reveals regular cardiac (130 beats / min, BP (80/70 mm of Hg). The doctor applies massage on the carotid sinus area of the patient’s neck. This results in the sudden decrease of the heart rate to 80 beats/min and an increase of the BP to 110/80 mm of Hg. This change in heart rate and blood pressure in the patient may be attributed to
    A. Stimulation of the vasomotor center
    B. Stimulation of the cardio-inhibitory center
    C. Stimulation of both the vasomotor and the cardio-inhibitory centers
    D. Inhibition of the vasomotor and stimulation of the cardio-inhibitory centers
    E. Inhibition of the cardio-inhibitory center
A

D. Inhibition of the vasomotor and stimulation of the cardio-inhibitory centers

73
Q
  1. If the end-diastolic volumes were held constant, increased stroke volume could be accomplished by
    A. Increased sympathetic activity to the heart
    B. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity to the heart
    C. Decreased contractibility
    D. Sleep
    E. Increased arterial blood pressure
A

A. Increased sympathetic activity to the heart

74
Q 
75.	Which of the following factors causes arteriolar constriction?
A.	Adenosine
B.	VIP
C.	Neuropeptide Y
D.	K+
E.	CGRPa
A

C. Neuropeptide Y

75
Q
  1. Which of the following responses occurs after moving from the supine to the standing position?
    A. Arteriolar vasodilation in skin and muscle
    B. Decreased firing of parasympathetic nerves to blood vessels in skeletal muscle
    C. Increased firing of parasympathetic nerves going to the heart
    D. Increased firing of sympathetic nerves going to veins
    E. Reduced heart rate because of decreased parasympathetic drive to the Heart
A

D. Increased firing of sympathetic nerves going to veins

76
Q
  1. Blood flow through the coronary circulation occurs
    A. Mainly during systole
    B. Mainly during diastole
    C. Almost equally during systole and diastole
    D. Only during ventricular isovolumetric contractions
A

B. Mainly during diastole

77
Q
  1. 19-year-old African American male is wheeled in to the ER by paramedics who were unable to control the loss of blood from the left thigh. A cursory examination revealed two gunshot wounds in close proximity on the left thigh. On examination the patient is found to have cold clammy extremities and a rapidly falling blood pressure. The patient goes into hemorrhagic shock. Which of the following changes would you expect to find?
    A. Decreased total peripheral resistance
    B. Decreased plasma aldosterone
    C. Decreased plasma vasopressin
    D. Decreased heart rate
    E. Decreased venous capacity or capacitance
A

E. Decreased venous capacity or capacitance

78
Q 
79.	A 3rd year medical student develops an experimental method to induce isolated venoconstriction in lab rats. During the experiment he notes that the measured cardiac output also increases with the degree of venoconstriction induced. The mechanism by which venoconstriction causes an increase in cardiac output involves an increase in
A.	Afterload
B.	Preload
C.	Inotropic state
D.	Heart rate
E.	Contractility
A

B. Preload

79
Q
  1. Hypertension is a complicated disease that is due to genetic and environmental factors. Salt intake continues to be a dietary factor that influences blood pressure in many individuals. Essential hypertension tends to cluster in families and represents the genetic predisposition to this disease(s). What is the definition of hypertension in adults?
    A. Elevated blood pressure
    B. Diastolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg
    C. Systolic blood pressure above 140 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure at or below 90 mm Hg
    D. A measurement of diastolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg and a systolic blood pressure above 140 mm Hg
    E. An average reading of either diastolic blood pressure measurements above 90 mm Hg or a systolic blood pressure average measurement above 140 mm Hg
A

E. An average reading of either diastolic blood pressure measurements above 90 mm Hg or a systolic blood pressure average measurement above 140 mm Hg

80
Q 
81.	The largest fractional volume of blood in the circulation is normally contained in the
A.	Veins
B.	Vena cavae
C.	Arterioles
D.	Capillaries
E.	Aorta
A

A. Veins

81
Q
  1. Exercise produces a decrease in peripheral resistance. Which of the following also occurs during periods of exercise?
    A. Arteriolar constriction with decreased blood flow to muscles
    B. Arteriolar dilation with increased blood flow to muscles
    C. Arteriolar constriction with increased blood flow to muscles
    D. Increased cardiac output with decreased blood pressure
    E. Decreased cardiac output with decreased blood pressure
A

B. Arteriolar dilation with increased blood flow to muscles

82
Q 
83.	Your patient is a woman 60 years of age weighing 60 kg. Her oxygen consumption is 250 ml/min at rest. Oxygen content (ml/dl) was measured in the following blood samples: brachial artery, 15 ml/dl; femoral vein, 10 ml/dl; pulmonary artery, 5 ml/dl. Your patient's cardiac output is closest to (in l/min):
A.	1.0
B.	1.7
C.	2.5
D.	5.0
E.	10.0
A

C. 2.5

83
Q
  1. Discuss which of the following ECG changes a loss in function of the sinuatrial node is likely to lead to
    A. Duration of the QRS complexes would be longer
    B. P waves would be larger in magnitude
    C. There will be QRS complexes without P waves
    D. There will be fewer QRS complexes than P waves
    E. There will be fewer T waves than QRS complexes
A

C. There will be QRS complexes without P waves

84
Q 
85.	A 50-year old man had a blood pressure of 140/80 when supine and a blood pressure of 100/60 when standing up. What was the cause of his presentation?
A.	Anaemia
B.	Blood loss
C.	Tachycardia
D.	Hypoxia
E.	Vasoconstriction
A

B. Blood loss

85
Q
  1. A patient with acute pulmonary embolism from deep vein thrombosis of the right calf is least likely to have:
    A. Difficulty in breathing
    B. Bilateral ankle edema
    C. Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP)
    D. Decreased cardiac output
    E. Drop in the partial pressure of oxygen
A

B. Bilateral ankle edema

Physiology MCQ (8 decks)

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