Blood Physio MCQ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Blood clotting in a test tube would not require:
    a. Ca2+
    b. Platelets
    c. Vitamin K
    d. Thrombin
    e. Phospholipids
A

c. Vitamin K

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following about serum is false?
    a. Proteins form the main composition of weight
    b. Has little fibrinogen
    c. Has few cells
    d. Has sodium ions
    e. Has calcium ions
A

a. Proteins form the main composition of weight

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3
Q
  1. A patient with moderate to severe anemia with Fe deficiency is expected to have increased
    a. Vasodilation
    b. Blood viscosity
    c. RBC MCV
    d. Arterial PO2
    e. O2 binding to RBC
A

a. Vasodilation

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4
Q
  1. Hemolytic anemia
    a. Is caused by excessive blood loss
    b. Lead to raised bilirubin levels
    c. Causes decreased reticulocytes
    d. Causes large RBCs
A

b. Lead to raised bilirubin levels

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5
Q
  1. The following causes hematopoiesis EXCEPT:
    a. Blood loss
    b. Systemic infection
    c. Administration of GCSF
    d. Blood transfusion
    e. Malignancy of bone marrow
A

d. Blood transfusion

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6
Q
  1. If the maximum amount of blood that can be safely donated is 10% of total blood volume, and the standard fixed amount of blood collected at each donation is 400ml, what is the minimum required weight of a donor? (Assume hematocrit = 0.5)
    a. 38 kg
    b. 40 kg
    c. 42 kg
    d. 44 kg
    e. 46 kg
A

b. 40 kg

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a potential cause of hypertonicity in the body?
    a. Water deprivation
    b. Massive sweating
    c. Massive secretion of vasopressin
    d. Diabetes insipidus
    e. Severe diarrhea
A

c. Massive secretion of vasopressin

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8
Q
  1. A young boy presents with easy bruising and prolonged bleeding from cuts. His PTT is prolonged but his PT is normal. Adding fresh plasma to the PTT test normalized the PTT. Which of the following is mostly likely to be the cause of this observation?
    a. Factor II
    b. Factor V
    c. Factor VII
    d. Factor VIII
    e. Factor X
A

d. Factor VIII

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9
Q
  1. The coagulation pathway can be amplified via
    a. Thrombin activating factor V, VIII, XI
    b. Va-Xa prothrombinase complex
    c. VIIIa-IXa tenase complex
    d. VII activation
    e. XI activation
A

a. Thrombin activating factor V, VIII, XI

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10
Q
  1. A functional test of primary haemostasis can be measured by
    a. Bleeding time
    b. Activated partial thromboplastin time
    c. Platelet count
    d. Prothrombin time
    e. Fibrinogen concentration
A

a. Bleeding time

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following substances enzymatically cause the polymerization of plasma fibrinogen?
    a. Thromboplastin
    b. Prothrombin
    c. Prothrombin activator
    d. Thrombin
    e. Phospholipids
A

d. Thrombin

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12
Q
  1. A young male has a mild bleeding tendency. He undergoes an appendectomy and experiences wound dehiscence. Further evaluation is done, and he is found to have dysfibrinogenemia. His laboratory tests reflect several abnormalities. Which laboratory test is a measure of the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?
    a. Activated partial thromboplastin time
    b. Prothrombin time
    c. Tourniquet test
    d. Bleeding time
    e. Thrombin time
A

e. Thrombin time

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13
Q
  1. A 21-year-old male is known to have haemophilia B. He has frequent bleeding into his large joints. Recently, he was hospitalized for a GI bleed. Which of the following laboratory test results would most likely be abnormal secondary to the underlying bleeding disorder?
    a. Activated partial thromboplastin time
    b. Prothrombin time
    c. Tourniquet test
    d. Bleeding time
    e. Thrombin time
A

a. Activated partial thromboplastin time

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14
Q

A previously healthy 56-year-old female presents to the ER with a swollen cyanotic left foot and calf. Dopper ultrasound shows reduced flow in the left deep saphenous vein. The patient was started on intravenous heparin. The mechanism of the anticoagulant effect of heparin is

a. Destruction of coagulation factors
b. Forming a complex with antithrombin III
c. Inhibition of a vital enzyme in the coagulation factor activation
d. Inhibition of coagulation factors synthesis
e. Stimulating the production of anticoagulant proteins

A

b. Forming a complex with antithrombin III

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15
Q

A 7-year-old neonate (newborn baby) presented to the emergency room with bleeding from the umbilicus. The baby was delivered at home in a rural setting. A vitamin deficiency was suspected. The clotting factors affected by this vitamin are

a. Factor II
b. Factor II and VII
c. Factor II, VII, IX and X
d. Factor IX and X

A

c. Factor II, VII, IX and X

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16
Q
  1. A 46-year-old female patient underwent elective cholecystectomy. The attending nurse noted mild bleeding at the site of the IV line and incision site during dressing. The patient also complained of bleeding from the gums and nose. Coagulation profiles revealed prolongation of aPTT, PT and TT along with decreased fibrinogen level and increased levels of fibrinogen degradation product (FDP). Platelet count was also decreased. The patient was not suffering from any bleeding disorder prior to her hospitalization. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s bleeding tendency?
    a. Deficiency of clotting factors of the intrinsic pathway
    b. Deficiency of clotting factors of the extrinsic pathway
    c. Platelet functional defect
    d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
    e. Cholestatic jaundice.
A

d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

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17
Q

In the lymph nodes, B lymphocytes are localized in follicles, with T cells more diffusely distributed in surrounding paracortical areas, also referred to as T-cell zones. Some of the B cell follicles include germinal centres, where B cells are undergoing intense proliferation. Each germinal centre consists predominately of activated B cells, a few T helper cells, and a small number of specialised cells known as

a. Eosinophils
b. Mast cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. Basophils
e. Neutrophils

A

c. Dendritic cells

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18
Q
  1. Cytokines are similar to polypeptide hormones, since they facilitate communication between cells and do so at very low concentrations. Cytokines are short-lived and may act locally either on the same cell that secreted them or other cells. They may also act systemically like hormones. More than 25 cytokines have now been identified to exhibit some sort of hematopoietic activity. Several have been found to have stimulatory activity on platelet production. One of these is
    a. EPO
    b. G-CSF
    c. M-CSF
    d. TPO
    e. RANTES
A

d. TPO

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19
Q

A 13-year-old junior high school student awakens with a pimple on the end of his nose. In school, he is cruelly mocked and teased by his classmates who name him “Uncool bumpy nose”. In the restroom, he squeezes the pimple. At lunch, he collapses in the cafeteria and is brought to your clinic with a fever of 106°F. Which of the following would you expect to find on his differential white blood cell count?

a. Increased number of granulocytes
b. Increased number of platelets
c. Increased number of megakaryocytes
d. Increased number of reticulocytes
e. Increased number of lymphocytes

A

a. Increased number of granulocytes

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20
Q

You order heparin to be administrated prophylactically to your 59-year-old female patient who has suffered myocardial infarction: 10,000 USP units, q 12 h SC. Which test will you use to monitor this heparin therapy?

a. Prothombin time
b. Partial thromboplastin time
c. Thrombin time
d. Specific factor assay
e. Platelet count

A

b. Partial thromboplastin time

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21
Q

A 29-year-old female patient presented to the attending doctor with a complaint of black, tarry stools. History revealed that she had undergone mitral valve replacement surgery two years ago due to severe rheumatic mitral stenosis. Since then she has been receiving oral anticoagulants such as warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure and pulse rate were normal. However, she has subconjunctival hemorrhage and bleeding gums. Examination also reveals bruises on arms and legs. The attending resident rightly diagnosed an inadvertent dose of warfarin. Immediate restoration of hemostatic competence can be obtained by administration of:

a. Vitamin K1
b. Fresh frozen plasma
c. Protamine sulphate
d. Tissue plasminogen activator
e. Vitamin C
f. Calcium

A

b. Fresh frozen plasma

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22
Q
  1. Many proteins in the cell must undergo post-translational modifications in order to become physiologically active. Several of the enzymes involved in the blood coagulation cascade undergo post-translational modifications. One particular modification of prothrombin requires the presence of
    a. Dicoumarol
    b. Vitamin K
    c. Calcium phosphate
    d. Vitamin C
    e. Oestrogen
A

b. Vitamin K

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23
Q

A 20-year-old female presents with a history of easy bruising, menorrhagia, and frequent epitaxis. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Her CBC and coagulation results are as follows;

RBC			5.0 x 106/ml (3.5 – 5.5)
Haemoglobin		12.5 mg/dl (11.0 – 16.0)
WBC			5.6 x 103/ml (4.0 – 10.0)
Platelets		120 x 103/ml (150 – 400)
Bleeding time		12 minutes (2 – 6)
PT			15 seconds (10 – 13)
PTT			60 seconds (20 – 34)
TT			1 second longer than control
Fibrinogen		250 mg/dl (200 – 400)

The prolonged PTT completely corrects to 35 seconds after mixing with normal plasma (1:1 mix). Morphologic review of the peripheral blood smear is unremarkable. The next test you need to order for the patient’s work up is:

a. Fibrin degradation products
b. Intrinsic coagulation pathway factor assays
c. Platelet aggregation studies
d. Von Willebrand’s factor antigen assay
e. Von Willebrand’s factor multimeric assay

A

b. Intrinsic coagulation pathway factor assays

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24
Q

Prothombin time is prolonged in which of the following conditions?

a. Deficiency of factor VII
b. Haemophilia
c. Christmas disease
d. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
e. Henoch-Scholein purpura

A

a. Deficiency of factor VII

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25
Q

A 35-year-old female underwent elective cholecystectomy for obstructive jaundice and was given heparin prophylaxis for postoperative thromboembolism. The patient has started to bleed at incision site, and her partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was prolonged. The possible cause of her bleeding is due to which of the following?

a. Vitamin K deficiency
b. Heparin therapy
c. Congenital deficiency of factor VII
d. Afibrinogenemia
e. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

b. Heparin therapy

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26
Q

A 30-year-old female (G2, P1) presents to your office for her 30th week atenatal care visit. The woman’s blood group is O, Rh negative. Her husband’s blood type is B, Rh positive. The mother had a previous newborn with Rh immune hemolytic anemia born at 40 weeks gestation. The spectrophotometric analysis of the amniotic fluid sample showed increased absorbance of 0.36 at 450 nm. The fetus was delivered by caesarean section and a decision to start exchange blood transfusion was made. The best management of the fetus at this point is

a. Blood transfusion using A, Rh negative blood
b. Blood transfusion using A, Rh positive blood
c. Blood transfusion using B, Rh negative blood
d. Blood transfusion using B, Rh positive blood
e. Blood transfusion using O, Rh negative blood

A

e. Blood transfusion using O, Rh negative blood

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following cases would result in a fatal transfusion reaction?
    a. Donor group A, host group A
    b. Donor group AB negative, host group AB, Rh positive
    c. Donor Rh negative, host Rh positive, medical history negative for prior transfusions
    d. Donor group AB, host group O
    e. Donor group O, host group AB
A

d. Donor group AB, host group O

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28
Q

It is important to ascertain aspirin intake before undergoing a surgical procedure. Aspirin affects what phase of coagulation?

a. Accelerates the action of antithrombin
b. Activates conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
c. Activates fibrinolysis (thrombolysin)
d. Decreases platelet adhesiveness
e. Reduces its first and second phase platelet aggregation

A

e. Reduces its first and second phase platelet aggregation

29
Q

Blood platelets normally circulate without adhering to undisturbed vascular endothelium. When damage to the vessel wall occurs, subendothelial products such as collagen are exposed. Platelets adhere to these substances and form an effective hemostatic plug. This interaction may be mediated by:

a. Factor IX
b. Factor XIII
c. Protein C
d. Von Willebrand’s factor
e. Tissue plasminogen factor

A

d. Von Willebrand’s factor

30
Q
  1. Red blood cells are ‘doughnut’ shaped. This shape is due to the
    a. Extracellular matrix
    b. Cytoskeleton
    c. Nuclear pore complex
    d. Receptors
    e. Hemoglobin
A

b. Cytoskeleton

31
Q

Which of the listed disorders develops due to mutations of the globin genes affecting the structure of globin proteins?

a. Porphyrias
b. Hemoglobinopathies
c. Thalassemias
d. Jaundice
e. Iron-deficiency anemia

A

b. Hemoglobinopathies

32
Q

Defects in the recruitment of phagocytic cells to extravascular sites of infection can cause serious immunodeficiency. Leukocytes reach such sites by emigrating from blood vessels in a tightly regulated process. Most of the other known defects in phagocytic cells affect their ability ot kill intracellular and/or ingested extracellular bacteria. Qualitative or morphologic abnormalities of leukocytes may be hereditary or acquired. The most common inherited disorder of neutrophils is:

a. Myeloperoxide deficiency
b. Chediak-Hiagashi syndrome
c. Pelger-Huet anomaly
d. Mau-Hegglin anomaly
e. Alder-Reilly anomaly

A

a. Myeloperoxide deficiency

33
Q

The drugs streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator both function to:

a. Inhibit blood clot formation
b. Inhibit platelet aggregation
c. Dissolve blood clots
d. Activate factor X
e. Activate prekallikrein

A

c. Dissolve blood clots

34
Q

The dissolution of the blood clot is necessary to resume normal blood flow after tissue repair. This dissolution occurs through the action of

a. Plasmin
b. Plasminogen
c. Urokinase
d. Serotonin
e. Thrombin

A

a. Plasmin

35
Q

Extrinsic and common pathways in hemostasis can be tested by

a. Prothrombin time
b. Activated partial thromboplastin time
c. Thrombin time
d. Bleeding time

A

a. Prothrombin time

36
Q

The following intrinsic pathway components releases bradykinin:

a. Factor II
b. Factor IV
c. Factor VII
d. Factor XII
e. Factor XI

A

d. Factor XII

37
Q
  1. Deficiency of which of the following factors may predispose one to recurrent thrombosis?
    a. Platelet deficiency
    b. Factor VIII deficiency
    c. Protein C deficiency
    d. Von Willebrand’s factor deficiency
    e. Factor VII deficiency
A

c. Protein C deficiency

38
Q

The inadequate availability of which vitamin listed below can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Vitamin K

A

e. Vitamin K

39
Q

An 8-year-old boy was found to have a swollen right knee. Investigations revealed blood in the right knee. The bleeding time and PT were normal. The PTT was prolonged. The factor VIII and IX were also normal. Which is true?

a. Blood coagulation is expected to be normal
b. Factor V is deficient
c. Factor VIII function is low
d. Serum calcium is expected to be low
e. Prothrombin is low

A

c. Factor VIII function is low

40
Q

The boy was treated with factor VIII concentrate. After some time, he started to have bleeding tendencies again despite higher doses of VIII replacements. Which of the following is true?

a. He developed other factor deficiencies
b. There is a factor VIII inhibitor or antibody
c. Fresh frozen plasma is useful in treatment
d. Protein C may be deficient
e. Bone marrow transplant may help

A

b. There is a factor VIII inhibitor or antibody

41
Q
  1. The negative charge of erythrocytes is caused by:
    a. Albumins of erythrocytes membrane
    b. Sialic acid of erythrocytes membrane
    c. Spectrin and anserine
    d. Na+-K+-dependent ATP-ase
    e. Carboanhydrase
A

b. Sialic acid of erythrocytes membrane

42
Q
  1. Erythrocytes content in the newborn organism equals approximately to…
    a. 4.0 x 10^6
    b. 5.0 x 10^6
    c. 3.7 x 10^6
    d. 4.5 x 10^6
    e. 5.9 x 10^6
A

e. 5.9 x 10^6

43
Q
  1. Which among listed below organisms conditions are characterised by erythrocytes release from depot, EXCEPT
    a. Sleep
    b. Pain
    c. Physical activity
    d. Hypoxia
    e. Bleeding
A

a. Sleep

44
Q
  1. Erythropoietin’s secretion is caused by …
    a. Blood androgens concentration
    b. Blood catecholamines concentration
    c. The level of oxygenation in the kidneys
    d. Blood estrogens concentration
    e. Blood glucocorticoids concentration
A

c. The level of oxygenation in the kidneys

45
Q
  1. What physiological property is provided by the erythrocytes biconcave form?
    a. The osmotic stability
    b. Membrane plasticity
    c. Blood antigen differentiation
    d. Easier gases diffusion through membrane
    e. Glucose and heparin transport
A

d. Easier gases diffusion through membrane

46
Q
  1. What factor promotes erythrocytes intravascular hemolysis?
    a. Blood lipids content increasing
    b. Bleeding time delay
    c. “Young” age of erythrocytes
    d. Erythrocytosis
    e. Ageing of erythrocytes
A

e. Ageing of erythrocytes

47
Q
  1. Regarding the platelets:
    a. Are present in greater number than red cells
    b. Secrete the main clotting factors
    c. Will adhere to the walls of damaged blood vessels
    d. Aggregate in the presence of prostacyclin
A

c. Will adhere to the walls of damaged blood vessels

48
Q
  1. A massive blood transfusion may lead to:
    a. Hyperthermia
    b. Raised conjugated bilirubin level in blood
    c. Reduced total body iron stores
    d. Low ionised calcium level in blood
    e. Increased thrombosis
A

d. Low ionised calcium level in blood

49
Q
  1. Plasma is:
    a. Blood that has no red blood cells
    b. The liquid portion of blood including clotting factors
    c. The liquid portion of blood after it has clotted
    d. The proteins of blood
A

b. The liquid portion of blood including clotting factors

50
Q
  1. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes can result in:
    a. Thalassemia
    b. Aplastic anemia
    c. Pernicious anemia
    d. Hemolytic anemia
A

d. Hemolytic anemia

51
Q
  1. A hematocrit value of 80 is termed:
    a. Polycythemia
    b. Anemia
    c. Thrombocytopenia
    d. Leukemia
A

a. Polycythemia

52
Q
  1. An increased neutrophil count typically is associated with:
    a. An ongoing bacterial infection
    b. Neutropenia
    c. Allergic reactions
    d. An ongoing parasitic infection
A

a. An ongoing bacterial infection

53
Q
  1. These cells are important phagocytes and eventually become macrophage:
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Basophils
    c. Monocytes
    d. Lymphocytes
A

c. Monocytes

54
Q
  1. Hypoxia induces the kidneys to produce:
    a. Platelets
    b. Intrinsic factor
    c. Urobilin
    d. Erythropoietin
A

d. Erythropoietin

55
Q
  1. The first phase of hemostasis is:
    a. Separation of globin and heme
    b. Activation of prothrombinase
    c. Platelet aggregation
    d. Vascular spasm
A

d. Vascular spasm

56
Q
  1. Which of the following activates platelets during hemostasis:
    a. Eosinophil degranulation
    b. Exposed collagen or endothelial basement membrane
    c. Fibrin thread formation
    d. Thromboplastin
A

b. Exposed collagen or endothelial basement membrane

57
Q
  1. The phase of coagulation that begins with exposed endothelial collagen is:
    a. Extrinsic pathway
    b. Intrinsic pathway
    c. Common pathway
    d. Fibrin stabilization
A

b. Intrinsic pathway

58
Q
  1. This clotting factor is an important link between the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways and is deficient in hemophilia B:
    a. Factor IX
    b. Factor XII
    c. Factor VIII
    d. Fibrinogen
A

a. Factor IX

59
Q
  1. This clotting factor plays an important role in activating two positive feedback loops to accelerate coagulation:
    a. Thrombin
    b. Fibrin
    c. Calcium
    d. Prothrombinase
A

a. Thrombin

60
Q
  1. An individual with type B+ blood has which of the following antibodies in their blood:
    a. Anti-A and anti-O
    b. Anti-B
    c. Anti-Rh
    d. Anti-A
    e. None of the above
A

d. Anti-A

61
Q
  1. The following is likely to be observed in an individual with a deficiency of anti-thrombin III
    a. Resistance to activated protein C
    b. Easy bruising
    c. Higher concentration of heparin needed to maintain a certain PTT level
    d. Low platelet count
    e. Low levels of factor Va
A

c. Higher concentration of heparin needed to maintain a certain PTT level

62
Q
  1. Natural antibodies to the blood group antigen A
    a. Develop in utero during fetal development
    b. Cross the placenta during pregnancy
    c. Damage RBC from blood group O individuals
    d. Are absent in blood group O individuals
    e. Clump blood group AB red blood cells
A

e. Clump blood group AB red blood cells

63
Q
  1. Protein C conversion to activated Protein C is:
    a. Mediated by thrombin
    b. Inhibited by thrombomodulin
    c. Activated by Vitamin K
    d. Enhanced by plasminogen
    e. Inhibited by protein S
A

a. Mediated by thrombin

64
Q
  1. The activation of platelets results in the following except
    a. Change in shape of platelets
    b. Increased binding of platelets to fibrinogen
    c. Release of thromboxanes
    d. Release of von Willebrand’s Factor
    e. Cleavage of thrombin
A

e. Cleavage of thrombin

65
Q
  1. Blood for transfusion is often collected from donors into a sterile bag with an anticoagulant. The anticoagulant acts by:
    a. Prothrombin inactivation
    b. Plasminogen activator
    c. Vitamin K inactivator
    d. A substance that chelates Calcium ions
    e. Protein C activator
A

d. A substance that chelates Calcium ions

66
Q
  1. A young man has a genetic condition which shortens the lifespan of his RBCs. He is chronically anaemic due to this. What laboratory findings will be typical for this patient?
    a. High nucleated RBC count
    b. High leukocyte count
    c. Low serum bilirubin
    d. Low serum folate
    e. Low serum iron
A

a. High nucleated RBC count

67
Q
  1. A 42 year old female admitted for acute chest pain and breathlessness. After investigation, diagnosis of suspected pulmonary embolism was made. The following factors increase the possibility of embolus except:
    a. Raised Protein C
    b. Increased D Dimers
    c. Increased fibrinogen
    d. Polycythemia
    e. Thrombocytosis
A

a. Raised Protein C

68
Q
  1. A 50 year old man was on long term warfarin treatment and was admitted to hospital for bruising. He had prolonged PT time and INR. He was given a treatment. What was it?
    a. Tissue factor
    b. Vitamin K
    c. Fresh frozen plasma
    d. Thrombin
A

c. Fresh frozen plasma