Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cardiovascular and Lymphatic PT > CV exam II > Flashcards

CV exam II Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient has pale, shiny, dry skin with loss of hair, you should suspect..

A

PAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intermittent claudication is

A

Pain, cramping, and LE fatigue occurring during exercise & RELIEVED BY REST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the percussion test & what is it used to detect?

A

Palpate one section of vein then percuss another 20 cm higher, IF PULSE WAVES FELT BY LOWER HAND, The intervening valves are incompetent
-TESTS THE COMPETENCE of the GREATER SAPHENOUS VEIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With the trendelenberg test, when patient is asked to stand their vein should refill after ..

A

30 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is APG used for ? (Air plethysmography)

A

Measures patience of venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ABI is ..

  • what value marks “abnormal”
A

LE pressure/UE pressure

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rubor of dependency is., and indicates.,

A

Red limb when hanging foot and pallor with elevation ; indicates arterial insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a patient has a platelet count of 20,000- 30,000c what can they do ?

A

LIGHT exercise only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is normal HgB for a male?

A

13-18 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what WBC count should you use a mask?

A

WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a patient has a platelet count of

A

AROM, ADLs only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Typical INR Is :

- in patients with DVTs, PE, mechanical valves, a-fib on ANTICOAGULATION THERAPY , their targeT INR is ..

A

Typical : 0.9-1.1

-ANTICOAGULATION : 2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pH of blood should be ..

A

7.35-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a patient has COPD they are In a state of respiratory..

A

Acidosis (hypo ventilation, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Unstable angina is indicative of ..

A

Incr risk of MI or lethal arrhythmia ; no precipitating factors involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Variant angina is caused by..

A

Vasospasm of coronary arteries in the ABSENCE OF occlusive disease
-BUT responds well to nitroglycerin or ca channel blocker long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Older adults when experiencing an MI may exhibit atypical symptoms :

A

No chest pain, but dyspraxia, diaphoresis, vomiting and syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the qualification for very severe (4+) edema?

A

Depression lasts >30 sec, >1 inch pitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

on an ECG, you will see an elevated ST segment in leads over what type of injury?

A

zone of injury (a zone of infarction)

-tissue is non-contractile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a “STEMI” is..

A

ST elevated MI, full thickness of myocardium involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CHF is also known as ..

A

LEFT sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the actual result in the heart of CHF?

A

backup of blood from the LV to the LA and lungs

-causes pulmonary congestion, edema and low CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the clinical presentation of right-sided heart failure?

A

increased pressure load on the R ventricle

-SIGNS: jugular vein distention & peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the main pharmacological intervention for CHF? what are its effects?

A

digitalis

-increases contractility and decreases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what do Ca channel blocking agents do?

A

decrease HR, dilate coronary arteries, decr BP, control arrythmias & chest pain

26
Q

quinidine is a type of..

A

anti-arrythmitic drug

27
Q

what do ACE inhibitors and angiotension II receptor blockers both do?

A

both work at teh level of angiotension II to decrease BP (both decr peripheral vasoconstriction & Na retention)

28
Q

diuretics work to..

A

decrease myocardial work (via decr pre and afterload) and control HTN

29
Q

when can activity begin after an acute MI?

A

can be increased once the acute MI has stopped, aka after the peak in cardiac troponin levels
-limited to 5 METs or 70% of age predicted HR max for 4-6 weeks following an MI

30
Q

If you hear an S3 heart sound, it MAY be indicative of..

A

heart failure - L or R

31
Q

A CABG is..

A

circumvention of an obstruction in a coronary artery to improve coronary blood flow and improve LV function

32
Q

a PTCA is..

A

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

-surgical dilation of a blood vessel which relieves obstructed blood flow in acute angina or acute MI

33
Q

intravascular stents are used to..

A

prevent restenosis and occlusion in coronary or peripheral arteries

34
Q

heteroptic vs orthotopic heart transplants:

A

heteroptic - leaves the natural heart and piggy backs the donor heart
orthotopic - removes diseased heart and replaces it with donor

35
Q

what is a VAD?

A

Ventricular assist device

  • implanted device (accessory pump) that improves tissue perfusion and maintains cardiogenic circulation
  • SEVERE CASES ie cardiogenic shock unresponsive to meds
36
Q

thrombolytic therapy is administered for..

A

acute MI - dissolve clot and restore coronary blood flow

37
Q

how many METs is walking considered?

A

4-5 METs

38
Q

how many METs is running (5.5 mph) or bicycling at 13 mph considered?

A

8-9 METs

39
Q

what is BUerger’s disease?

A

chronic inflammaory vascular occlusive disease of small arteries & veins

  • often in smokers
  • pain/paresthesias, cyanotic extremities, decr temp discriminiation, ulcers, fatigue, gangrene risk
40
Q

intermittent claudication is present in PVD or PAD?

A

PAD - chronic occlusive arterial disease of MEDIUM AND LARGE SIZED VESSELS

41
Q

what are the clinical signs of a PE?

A

abrupt presentation, with chest pain & dyspnea, diaphoresis, cough, apprehension
LIFE THREATENING

42
Q

what mmHg is recommended for compression stockings after a DVT?

A

30-40 mmHg assist wth pain and reduce risk of post-thrombolytic syndrome

43
Q

if a pt p/w dark, cyanotic, thickened brown skin you can suspect..

A

chronic venous insufficiency

44
Q

which is more common in WOMEN : chronic VENOUS insufficiency or chronic ARTERIAL insufficiency?

A

VENOUS

45
Q

if a patient has chronic venous insufficiency, you can suspect they may develop ulcers WHERE?

A

sides of ankles esp near medial malleolus w irreg borders

46
Q

those with a h/o Smoking, DM, and HTN are more likely to have which : chronic VENOUS or ARTERIAL insufficiency?

A

arterial

47
Q

what causes lymphedema?

A

excessive accumulation of fluid either 2/2 obstruction of lymphatics OR removal of lymph nodes

48
Q

the most accurate way to determine age predicted max HR is..

A

208 - 0.7 x age

49
Q

a positive ETT indicates that..

A

you have ischemia (imbalanced oxygen supply)

50
Q

“somewhat hard” on the Borg scale is..

A

13

51
Q

what occurs to the ST segment during normal exercise?

A

depresses (but is upsloping) less than 1 mm

-greater than 1 mm below baseline is indicative of MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA

52
Q

when dealing w a pt w HEART FAILURE, what is the concern hours after exercise? .

A

may experience HYPOTENSION

53
Q

HOW LONG should warm up & cool down last?

A

5-10 min

54
Q

what is considered “moderate intensity” strength training?

A

60-80% of 1 rep max ; also considered moderate is 5 METs

55
Q

resistive exercises can be dangerous after a cardiac event due to the risk of..

A

Valsalva - esp w uncontrolled HTN, sub acute MI, etc

56
Q

if a PPM is fixed, what is the HR response to exercise

A

HR does not rise normally

57
Q

how long after an uncomplicated MI can a patient ambulate/return to activities?

A

24 hours after OR until the pt is stable for 24 hrs

58
Q

the MET goal for a patient in acute care after an uncomplicated MI for d/c is..

A

5 MET capacity (walking 3.5 mph, bicycling 8 mph)

59
Q

after an MI, what are the HR and MET limitations?

A
60
Q

how long after an MI are lifting activities restricted/

A

6 weeks

61
Q

suggested MET criterion for d/c from OP cardiac rehab ?

A

9 METs (running 5.5 mph)

62
Q

after cardiac surgery, how long are sternal precautions in place? WHY?

A

6-8 weeks to allow for bony and soft tissue healing

-no UE resistance training!!

Cardiovascular and Lymphatic PT (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions