CV Exam Flashcards

1
Q

orthopenia is indicative of..

A

L heart failure (dyspnea when supine)

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2
Q

pitting edema is indicative of – heart failure

A

R

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3
Q

how does HDL contribute to risk of heart disease?

A

can be a NEGATIVE risk factor if HDL > 60 mL

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4
Q

diaphoresis is.. -is a sign of ?

A

excess sweating and cool clammy skin; sign of decreased CO & low O2 sat

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5
Q

where can you palpate the apical pulse in a typical person?

A

pt supine, palpate at 5th interspace, midclavicular vertical line

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6
Q

grade for a normal pulse is..

A

2+

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7
Q

why should you assess the pulse of the carotid artery one side at a time?

A

reduce the RISK OF BRADYCARDIA thru stimulation of the carotid sinus baroreceptor

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8
Q

what is the best place to take a pulse in infants? -also, what is their anticipated HR?

A

brachial pulse -newborn 127bpm, normal = 90-164 bpm

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9
Q

where is the auscultation landmark for the aortic valve

A

the 2nd right intercostal space at the sternal border

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10
Q

what is the sound that marks the beginning of systole? What produces the sound?

A

S1 - sound is normal closure of mitral and tricuspid valves

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11
Q

What sound marks the end of systole? -what produces the sound?

A

S2 (dub) marks the end of systole aka the closing of the pulmonary and aortic valves

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12
Q

if a murmur occurs between S1 & S2 it could be indicative of..

A

mitral valve prolapse (it’s systolic dysfunction)

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13
Q

if a murmur can be felt upon palpation and is more of an abnormal tremor, it is considered a ..

A

thrill

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14
Q

what is a BRUIT and what does it indicate?

A

adventitious sound or murmur of arterial OR venous origin; -indicates ATHEROSCLEROSIS

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15
Q

an S3 heart sound in older individuals may be indicative of ..

A

CHF

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16
Q

S4 heart sound could be indicative of..

A

CAD, MI, aortic stenosis OR chronic HTN

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17
Q

QRS wave is indicative of..

A

ventricular depolarization

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18
Q

the PR interval is..

A

the time req for the impulse to travel from atria thru conduction system to Purkinje fibers

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19
Q

when are PVCs considered abnormal?

A

> 6 per min paired or in sequential runs;

absent P wave, bizarre/wide QRS that’s premature

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20
Q

what is considered “ventricular tachycardia”?

A

3 or more PVCs occuring sequentially

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21
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation (VF)?

A

a pulseless, emergency situation, req CPR /defibrillation/meds

  • chaotic activity of ventricle originating from multiple foci
  • unable to determine rate

NO QRS complexes

clinical death within 4-6 minutes

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22
Q

an AV block is.

A

abnormal delays or failure to conduct thru normal conducting system

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23
Q

which AV block is a life threatening situation?

A

3rd degree AV block - COMPLETE block, req meds/PPM

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24
Q

what causes ST segment depression?

-& what is considered significant?

A

impaired coronary perfusion (ischemia or injury)

-depression OR elevation > 1mm in 2 consecute leads

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25
Q

acute ST elevations present 2/2 ..

A

an acute MI

26
Q

quinidine is used for..

A

antiarrythmia med

-lengthens the QRS (extends ventricular depolarization)

27
Q

“orthostasis” qualification =

A

systolic decr >20 mmHg, diastolic decr >10 mmHg

28
Q

what should a 3-5 y/o child’s BP be?

A

113-116 / 67-74 mmHg

29
Q

Mean arterial pressure is..

A

= [SBP + (2 x DBP)] / 3

NORMAL = 70-110 mmHg

30
Q

tachypnea is ..

A

an incr in RR >22 Breaths per min

31
Q

the modified borg scale is rated on a scale of ..

What is considered “severe”?

A

0-10;

>5 is severe

32
Q

crackles (rales) are indicative of..

A

secretions in the lungs

33
Q

what do rhonchi sound like?

A

whistling sounds

34
Q

where does pain from a dissecting aortic artery refer to?

A

the back

35
Q

hypoxemia VS hypoxia

A

hypoxemia is abnormally low O2 in the blood (sat level <90%) ; hypoxia is low O2 in tissues

36
Q

clubbing is indicative of..

A

chonic O2 deficiency, chronic pulmonary disease or heart failure

37
Q

rubor is..

A

dependent redness with PAD

38
Q

b/l edema is indicative of..

A

CHF

39
Q

what is Stemmer’s sign and what does it indicate?

A

dorsal skin folds of toes OR fingers resistant to lifting

-indicates fibrotic changes and lymphadema

40
Q

if a pt has heart failure, they are at risk for acute decompensation. What are the signs of that?

A

increased SOB, sudden wt gain, incr LE edema or abdominal swelling, increased pain or fatigue, pronounced cough, lightheadedness, or dizziness

41
Q

when dealing with pts with heart failure, begin at an intensity of..

A

40-60% of functional capacity, and warm up/cool down for slightly longer than the typical 5-10 minutes

42
Q

why shoudl you be cautious of supine or prone positioning with pts w Heart failure/

A

orthopnea risk

43
Q

if a pt is diagnosed with class II HF, what is their physical activity limitation?

A

up to 4.5 METs (walking)

44
Q

why is HR not an appropriate measure of exercise intensity in pts after cardiac transplant?

A

heart is denervated and pts tend to be tachycardic

45
Q

when treating pts with PAD with intermittent claudication , walking program should proceed HOW?

A

intensity should be so that pt reports 1 on claudication scale within first 3-5 minutes & doesn’t surpass a 2

-30-60 min aerobic exercise 3-5 days/week

46
Q

what is the most effective manner of increasing LE bloodflow in PAD?

A

resistive calf exercises

47
Q

after an acute DVT, when can ambulation take place ?

A

after a dose of low molecular weight heparin

48
Q

if a pt has chronic venous insufficiency, how should they position the limb with edema?

A

elevate a minimum of 18 inches above the heart

49
Q

when applying an unna boot for edema compression therapy, how long should it be applied for ?

A

4-7 days

50
Q

what ABI value is contraindicated to use compression therapy?

A

ABI <0.8 OR if there is evidence of active cellulitis or infection

51
Q

what type of activities are contraindicated in patients with stage I lymphadema?

A

jogging, strenuous activities

-likely to exacerbate lymphadema

52
Q

what modalities are contraindicated when dealing with phase I lymphadema?

A

ice, heat, hydrotherapy, saunas, contrast baths and paraffin

ALL cause vaodilation and incr lymphatic load of water

NO electrotherapeutic modalities greater than 30 Hz

53
Q

when dealing with Phase II lymphadema, what is the maximum pressure for compression therapy?

A

45 mm Hg

54
Q

how many compressions/minute should you do for CPR in an adult?

A

100 comp/min

55
Q

what is the sequence of actions in CPR for adults?

A

CAB (compressions, airways & breathing)

56
Q

how long should it take for a minor cut to clot?

A

10 minutes

57
Q

what does a venous bleed present like?

A

low pressure, steady flow, dark red or maroon blood

58
Q

if blood soaks thru the original layer of gauze, what do you do?

A

put on an additional layer of gauze DO NOT REMOVE GAUZE

59
Q

when someone is experiencing internal bleeding, what does their body part look like?

A

swollen, tender and firm; ecchymosis (black and blue)

60
Q

when you see someone in shock, how should you test for peripheral blood flow?

A

capillary refuill test - should return to refill in <2 seconds

61
Q

if someone is in shock, you should elevate their legs over 12 inches UNLESS..

A

there is a suspected spinal injury or painful deformity of the LEs

62
Q
A