CV Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

agonal rhythm

A
  • irregular heartbeat
  • below 20 bpm
  • near death
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2
Q

atrial tachycardia

A
  • HR > 100 bpm

- usually associated w increased HR or product of exertion

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3
Q

ventricular tachycardia

A
  • HR > 100 bpm

- usually a regular rhythm

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4
Q

when is ventricular tachycardia most common?

A

after acute MI

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5
Q

which tachycardia is more pathologic?

A

ventricular

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6
Q

atrial fibrillation (a-fib)

A
  • most common arrhythmia

- can lead to syncope bc no atrial kick

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7
Q

ventricular fibrillation (v-fib)

A

chaotic rate and rhythm, will lead to death if not treated

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8
Q

multifocal VT (torsades de pointes)

A

irregular rhythm and rate > 150 bpm

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9
Q

AV blocks

A

rhythm disturbance where electrical conduction from atria to ventricles is partially or completely blocked

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10
Q

what amount of ST depression indicates ischemia?

A

1-2 mm

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11
Q

ST elevation indicates what?

A

MI

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12
Q

T-wave inversion indicates what?

A

MI

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13
Q

prominent Q-wave indicates what?

A

MI

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14
Q

wide QRS indicates what?

A

bundle branch block

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15
Q

what is normal PaO2?

A

> 80 mm Hg

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16
Q

what is normal PaCO2?

A

35-45 mm Hg

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17
Q

what are 3 good functional outcome measures to assess endurance?

A
  • chair rise
  • 2MWT
  • 6MWT
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18
Q

how many PVCs should you see to stop and reassess vitals?

A

> 6/min

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19
Q

what type of heart disease is cardiac tamponade?

A

pericardial

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20
Q

what is an acute management strategy for pts experiencing MI?

A

thrombolytics

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21
Q

what are 3 indications for thrombolytic therapy?

A
  • chest pain suggesting an MI
  • elevated ST segment
  • bundle branch block
22
Q

what is the timing of administration for thrombolytics?

A
  • within 3 hrs of onset of chest pain

- within 6-24 hrs of onset of symptoms

23
Q

what is a PTCA?

A
  • percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

- endoluminal stent to open up occluded artery

24
Q

what is a CABG?

A
  • coronary artery bypass graft

- used to revascularize the myocardium when a coronary artery is occluded

25
Q

what are the 3 vascular structures used for a CABG? (SIR)

A
  • saphenous veins
  • internal mammary artery
  • radial artery
26
Q

what is the standard approach for a CABG?

A

median sternotomy

27
Q

what are 3 post-op possibilities to be seen with a CABG?

A
  • mediastinal chest tube
  • external pacemaker
  • intravascular catheters
28
Q

what 6 factors put a pt at risk for experiencing dehiscence after a median sternotomy?

A
  • obestity
  • COPD
  • DM
  • smoking
  • PVD
  • repeat thoracotomy
  • pendulous breasts
29
Q

what is the purpose of an ablation procedure?

A

to remove or isolate ectopic foci (abnormal pacemakers) in order to reduce rhythm disturbance

30
Q

maze procedures are used to ablate ____ fibrillation

A

atrial

31
Q

the leg used in an ablation procedure must remain straight and immobile for how many hours?

A

3-4

32
Q

what is the purpose of cardioversion?

A

to restore normal heart rhythm in tachycardia arrhythmic conditions

33
Q

what are the 2 types of cardioversion procedures?

A
  • cardiac pacemaker implantation

- automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD)

34
Q

what kind of arrhythmia does the AICD help with?

A

ventricular

35
Q

what are 3 PT considerations for pts with pacemakers or AICDs?

A
  • closely monitor activity response w HR and BP
  • know if device has rate modulation
  • pts can’t do any lifting or resistive exercise on L side post-op
36
Q

what type of pts would wear a life vest external defibrillator?

A
  • high risk of sudden cardiac arrest

- need a heart transplant

37
Q

what are 3 precautions for someone with an LVAD/RVAD?

A
  • know emergency procedures in case battery dies
  • maintain patency of drive lines w external pump
  • monitor hemodynamics
38
Q

what are the complications with LVAD/RVAD? (5)

A
  • thrombus formation
  • CVA
  • hemorrhage
  • line infections
  • renal or hepatic insufficiency
39
Q

what phase should a pt with an LVAD/RVAD be at in order for you to refer them to cardiac rehab to initiate exercise?

A

phase I-II

40
Q

why would a pt have an LVAD/RVAD?

A
  • if they need a heart transplant

- can also be a terminal treatment

41
Q

what does the Marburg Heart Score predict?

A

likelihood of dx of CAD

42
Q

what are the 3 goals for cardiac PT interventions?

A
  • asses hemodynamic response during self-care and functional mobility
  • maximize activity tolerance
  • pt/caregiver edu for activity or behavior modifications
43
Q

what are the 6 absolute indications to withhold tx for an unstable cardiac pt?

A
  • decompensated CHF
  • 2nd degree heart block with PVCs
  • 3rd degree heart block
  • > 10 PVCs/min at rest
  • chest pain w new ST segment changes
  • new onset of A-fib w rapid ventricular response at rest (HR > 100 bpm)
44
Q

what are the 6 precautions to modify or withhold tx for an unstable cardiac pt?

A
  • RHR > 100
  • resting HTN > 160/90
  • hypotension at rest (systolic < 80)
  • ventricular ectopy at rest
  • A-fib w rapid ventricular response at rest (HR > 100)
  • psychosis/unstable psych condition
45
Q

if pt is on beta blockers, do not exceed ___ beats above their normal RHR

A

20

46
Q

what is the target HR for someone with an AICD?

A

20-30 beats below threshold rate on defibrillator

47
Q

if someone has had a heart transplant, can you use their HR to prescribe exercise?

A

no bc the nerves aren’t connected the way they used to be

48
Q

what should the HR recovery be with a cool down?

A

greater than 12 bpm

49
Q

what is the normal systolic BP response to activity?

A

increase by 5-12 mm Hg

50
Q

what are the 3 abnormal BP responses you might see during activity?

A
  • systolic dec of 10 mm Hg below resting
  • systolic > 180
  • diastolic > 110
51
Q

use BP to gauge activity intensity for pts who have what?

A

pacemakers without rate modulation

52
Q

what is the general guideline for mRPE and RPE when monitoring activity tolerance?

A
  • mRPE: 5 or less

- RPE: 13 or less