Cutaneous Mycoses Flashcards

1
Q

• Are caused by fungi that infect the keratinized tissues - skin, hair, and nails (and feathers); affect humans and animals.

A

Cutaneous Mycoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cutaneous mycoses

• Agents:
_________
- Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, etc.

__________
- most often Candida species

A

Dermatophytic fungi - dermatophytosis/tinea/ringworm

Nondermatophytic fungi - dermatomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Parasitize the nonliving, cornified integument, secrete keratinases (keratinophilic, keratinolytic); its metabolic products induce an allergic & inflammatory eczematous response in the host

A

Cutaneous mycoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

• Restricted to nonviable skin, hair, or nails, unable to grow at 37C, or in the presence of serum

• Many species have particular keratinases, elastases, and other enzymes enabling them to be quite host-specific.

A

Dermatophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dermatophytes

• Asexual forms:
• Sexual forms:

A

hyaline, septate, branching hyphae, macroconidia, microconidia, or arthroconidia (infectious fragments of hyphae)

ascospores; teleomorphic genus used to be Arthroderma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Epidemiology
worldwide in distribution, tropical & subtropical regions

some vary in geographic distribution and virulence for humans

acquired from the transfer of_______, or keratinous material directly or indirectly via fomites, contact with contaminated soil, or with infected animals or humans

A

Dermatophytosis

arthroconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Initiation of dermatophyte infection in skin.
(1) Arthroconidia from environment or other infected host contacts new host’s skin. Adhesion to skin occurs between_____ after contact.
(2) Arthroconidia begins to_____ in the top layer of the epidermis, forming germ tubes.
(3)____ continue to grow within the epidermis
(4) Within 7 days of infection,____ are formed, allowing for the cycle to repeat.

A

2-6 h

germinate

Hyphae

arthroconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is still considered the gold standard for diagnosing dermatophytosis. (Best if in tandem
with DNA sequence analysis.)

A

Fungal culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dermatophytes

• 3 Classifications:

A

*Geophilic (soil, environment)
*Zoophilic (animals)
* Anthropophilic (humans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dermatophytes

  • cause the greatest number of infections; elicit mild/chronic infections; are adapted to the human physiology & immune system; may be difficult to eradicate
A

• Anthropophilic species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

• Anthropophilic species

• Agents: TritsEf

• Species have developed preferences for specific locations on the body.

A

Trichophyton rubrum (most common), Trichophyton interdigitale,
T. tonsurans,
T. schoenleinii
E. floccosum,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Feet

Scalp

Nails

Beard

Hands

Groin region

Glabrous skin (body)

A

Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)

Tinea capitis

Tinea unguuim
(onychomycosis)

Tinea barbae

Tinea manuum

Tinea cruris

Tinea corporis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Epidermophyton floccosum.
Humans

A

Tinea cruris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Trichophyton digitale
Humans

A

Tinea pedis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Trichophyton schoenleinii
Humans

A

Tinea capitis
favosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dermatophytes:
• Live on animals (asymptomatic carriers) but species have evolved to live on non-human animals.

A

Zoophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Zoophilic

(dogs/cats)

(horses)

(mice, guinea pigs, kangaroos, cats, horses, sheep, rabbits)

(fowls/chickens)

(voles/bats)

(cattle)

(pigs)

A

Microsporum canis

T. equinum

T. mentagrophytes

Lophophyton gallinae

Nannizzia persicolor

T. verrucosum

N nana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Zoophilic

• Human infections:
• Usually with significant inflammation & shorter course of infection

A

M. canis
T. mentagrophytes
T. verrucosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

• Mainly reside in soil and keratinous debris shed from animals
• rare cause of human/animal infections
• ecologically important
• Transmitted between hosts; are acquired from the environment

A

Geophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

• Etiologic agent of tinea corporis/tinea capitis:

A

Nannizia gypsea (formerly Microsporum gypseum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

• Farmers have a higher risk for acquiring this infection.
• Inflammatory response usually more severe
• generally shorter in duration
• signs are similar to dermatological diseases/disorders

A

Geophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clinical features:
Scalp hair infection

A

Tinea capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tinea capitis

“black dot ringworm”, “, corkscrew hair,” hair shafts break off at the scalp leaving the black dot stubs.

A

• Endothrix (inside hair shaft)
• T. tonsurans & T. violaceum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tinea capitis

“gray-patch ringworm,” circular bald
patches, short hair stubs, broken hair

Kerion rare. Fluoresce a bright
greenish-yellow under UV, 365 nm

A

• Ectothrix (on hair surface)
• M. audouinii & M. ferrugineum -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clinical features:

Raised, circular or ring-shaped patches of alopecia with erythema and scaling or as more diffusely scattered papules, pustules, or vesicles

• i.e. T. tonsurans, T. schoenleinii, N. gypsea

A

Tinea capitis

• Alopecia with erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

acute inflammation of hair follicles & hypersensitivity, raised spongy lesions, usually zoophilic dermatophytes

• i.e. M. canis, T. mentagrophytes

A

Tinea capitis

• Kerions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinical features:

• An acute inflammatory infection of the hair follicle eventually leads to the formation of scutula (crusts, cup-shaed flakes) around the follicle

• Etiologic agent: T. schoenleinii

hyphae do not form spores but can be found within the hair shaft.

A

Tinea capitis

• Favus/Tinea favosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clinical features:
• Infection of the beard, moustache areas of the face.
• Coarse facial hair with an ectothrix pattern - hyphae & arthroconidia cover outside of the hair
• Edematous, erythematous lesion

• Caused by:
T. verrucosum
T. mentagrophytes
T. rubrum

A

Tinea barbae (beard)

29
Q

Clinical features:
• Glabrous (nonhairy/smooth) skin
• Circular/annular lesions of ringworm, with a clearing, scaly center surrounded by a red advancing border that may be dry or vesicular. Pruritic.

• Caused by:
T. rubrum (most common)
T. tonsurans
E. floccosum
M. canis
N. gypsea

A

Tinea corporis - Ringworm

30
Q
  • a rare form of tinea corporis

• Nodules, plaques, papules
• Dermatophytes penetrate damaged hair follicles causing deep skin infection.

• Caused by: T. rubrum
• Occasionally by Aspergillus & Phoma

A

• Majocchi’s granuloma (fungal folliculitis)

31
Q

Clinical features:
• Infection of the face, resembles tinea corporis.

A

Tinea faciei

32
Q

• Acute/chronic. Oval red scaly patches (less in the middle); may present as a kerion (fungal abscess)

Aggravated by sun exposure; infection comes from tinea pedis, tinea unguium, from cats/dogs, cattle

• Caused by:
T. rubrum
T. tonsurans
M. canis
T. mentagrophytes

A

Tinea faciei

33
Q

Clinical features:
• Acute inflammatory rash, extending area of peeling, dryness, mild itching (palm); blistering rash, crops with sticky clear fluid, itches & burns

• Contact with another site of infection (tinea pedis or tinea cruis), person with tinea, infected soil, contaminated object like towel or gardening tool

• Most commonly caused by:
T. rubrum (most)
M. canis

A

Tinea manus/Tinea manuum

34
Q

Clinical features:
• Affecting the groin, pubic region, adjacent thigh, acute or chronic asymmetrical rash, erythematous scaling lesion in intertriginous area, pruritic

• By scratching from tinea pedis, tinea unguium, contaminated towels or bed sheets

• Caused by:
T. rubrum
E. floccosum

A

Tinea cruris/jock itch

35
Q

Clinical features:
• Infection on interdigital spaces of feet; acute - itching, red vesicular, ulcerative, moccasin, hyperkeratosis of the sole; chronic - peeling and cracking; most prevalent

• Usually males/adolescent/young adults; direct contact with fungus, shared towel, walking barefoot in a public change room

• Caused by:
T. rubrum
T. interdigitale

A

Tinea pedis/athlete’s foot

36
Q

Clinical features:
• Increasingly prevalent with age
• Spreads from tinea pedis, less often from tinea manuum

• Lateral - white/yellow opaque streak at one side of the nail
• Subungual hyperkeratosis - under the nail
• Distal - end of the nail lifts up, free edge crumbles
• Proximal - yellow spots in the half-moon (lunula)
• Complete destruction of the nail

• Caused by:
T. rubrum
T. mentagrophytes

A

Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)

37
Q

Clinical features:
• Distal or proximal infection

• Nondermatophytes:
• Molds: Aspergillus spp. Scopulariopsis,
Fusarium, Acremonium, Syncephalastrum, Scytalidium, Paecilomyces, Neoscyatalidium,
Chaetomium, Onchocola, Alternaria

• Yeasts: Candida albicans, rarely non-albicans candida yeasts

A

Dermatomycosis

Onychomycosis

38
Q

• An allergic rash caused by an
inflammatory fungal infection at a distant site (tinea pedis);

• Treated with topical steroid

• Scrapings - negative microscopic and culture methods; no fungi present in lesion. May become secondarily infected
BADAN with bacteria.

Trichophytin skin test is markedly positive.

A

Dermatophytid (id)

39
Q

Dermatophytosis
General Measures

A

• Wear loose-fitting cotton or synthetic clothing to wick moisture away from the skin.
• Avoiding sharing garments and towels.
• Avoid infected pets and shared bathing facilities.
• Regular washing & drying of undergarments, socks, caps.
• Prophylactic use of imidazole or tolnaftate powders.
• Avoiding occlusive footwear

40
Q

Dermatophytosis - TREATMENT

Tinea capitis:

A

• Oral administration of griseofulvin or terbinafine

• Frequent shampoos, miconazole cream, or ketoconazole or itraconazole

41
Q

Dermatophytosis - TREATMENT

Tinea corporis, pedis, and other related infections

A

• Most effective are itraconazole and terbinafine; topical - miconazole nitrate, tolnaftate, clotrimazole applied 2-4 weeks

42
Q

Dermatophytosis - TREATMENT

Tinea unguium - most difficult to treat; relapses common

A

• Months of oral itraconazole or terbinafine. Surgical removal of nail.

• Topical imidazole - luliconazole - penetrate the nail plate, potent against dermatophytes and non-dermatophytes

43
Q

Macroconidia:
Numerous, thick walled, rough

Microconidia:
Rare

A

Microsporum

44
Q

Macroconidia:
Numerous, smooth walled

Microconidia:
Absent

A

Epidermophyton

45
Q

Macroconidia:
Rare, thin walled, smooth

Microcondia:
Abundant

A

Trichophyton

46
Q

Lab test

• In_____ preps of skin & nails regardless of the infecting species:
• presence of branching hyphae or chains of arthroconidia

47
Q

Lab tests

In hairs:
- ectothrix (dense sheaths of spores around hair); fluoresce

  • endothrix (arthroconidia inside hairshaft; do not fluoresce except T. schoenleinii.
A

• Microsporum spp.

• T. tonsurans & T. violaceum

48
Q

Cutaneous mycoses
DIAGNOSTIC LABORATORY TESTS
Culture
• ID of dermatophytes require culture on _______ or _______ or _______

________ weeks incubation at room temperature; further observation by slide cultures or subculture on a special medium

• species identified on the basis of colonial morphology (growth rate, surface texture, and any pigmentation, microscopic morphology (macroconidia, microconidia), and, in some cases, nutritional requirements, biochemical tests.

A

Inhibitory Mold Agar (IMA)
SDA-CC slants
DTM - Dermatophyte test medium

01 to 3 weeks

49
Q

Usually slow growing, greenish-brown or khaki-colored with a suede-like surface, raised and folded in the center, with a flat periphery & submerged fringe of growth

Older cultures may develop white pleomorphic tufts of mycelium

• A deep yellowish/orange-brown reverse pigment is usually present.

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

50
Q

Characteristic SMOOTH, thin/thick-walled MACROCONIDIA (clavate) which are often produced in CLUSTERS (1-6 cells) growing directly from the hyphae (septate)

• Numerous chlamydospores formed in older cultures

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

51
Q

MICROCONIDIA ARE NOT PRODUCED.

A

E floccosum

52
Q

Surface colonies: flat, spreading, white to cream-colored, w/ dense cottony surface, some radial grooves.

• Reverse pigment: bright golden yellow to brownish yellow, (some strains non pigmented)

• Macroconidia/microconidia often not produced on primary isolation media; need to do subcultures on Lactritmel agar or boiled polished rice grains for sporulation

A

Microsporum canis

53
Q

• Macroconidia/microconidia often not produced on primary isolation media;

need to do subcultures on Lactritmel agar or boiled polished rice grains for sporulation

A

Microsporum canis

54
Q

• Good growth on boiled polished rice grains, yellow pigment

A

Microsporum canis

55
Q

Microscopy: numerous SPINDLE-SHAPED MACROCONIDIA,
5-15 cells,
VERRUCOSE, THICK-WALLED, often have a terminal knob;

few pyriform to clavate MICROCONIDIA

56
Q

Hair perforation test: Positive in 14 days

57
Q

Surface colonies: flat, spreading, suede-like to granular, deep cream to tawny-buff to pale cinnamon-colored surface;

many with a central white downy umbo (dome) or a fluffy white tuft & narrow white peripheral border

• Reverse pigment: yellow-brown, central darker brown spot, some reddish-brown

Abundant macroconidia & microconidia

A

Nannizzia gypsea

58
Q

MACROCONIDIA - symmetrical, ellipsoidal, thin-walled, verrucose,
4- to 6-cells,
terminal/distal ends are slightly rounded, proximal ends are
truncate

Microconidia: numerous, clavate-shaped

59
Q

• Colonies exhibit a spectrum of overlapping characters:

• Texture ( downy to suede-like to granular )
Surface pigmentation (white to cream to deep red)
• Reverse pigmentation (colorless to yellowish to yellow-brown to wine red)

A

Trichophyton rubrum

60
Q

•Tinea pedis/onychomycosis:
isolates show scanty to moderate numbers of SLENDER CLAVATE
MICROCONIDIA & NO MACROCONIDIA
(formerly the “downy strain”)

61
Q

Cases of tinea corporis: isolates
show moderate to abundant
numbers of CLAVATE to PYRIFORM
MICROCONIDIA
& moderate to
abundant numbers of thin-walled,
CIGAR-SHAPED MACROCONIDIA (formerly the “granular strain”)

A

Trichophyton rubrum

62
Q

Cigar shaped macroconidium

A

Trichophyton rubrum

63
Q

Colonies show considerable variation:

Texture (suede-like to powdery to flat, a raised center or folded, often with radial grooves)

Surface pigmentation (pale-buff to yellow to dark brown)

• Reverse pigmentation (yellow-brown to reddish-brown to deep mahogany)

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

64
Q
  • Hyphae - relatively broad, irregular, much branched, numerous septa

• Microconidia - numerous, varying in size & shape, from long clavate to broad pyriform borne at right angles to the hypha (often remained unstained with LPCB)
Macroconidia - very occasional smooth, thin-walled, irregular, clavate (may be present on some cultures);

giant microconidia and chlamydospores in older cultures

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

65
Q

Trichophyton tonsurans
Confirmatory tests:
•_______ agar - chlamydospore-like structures in 5 days

• Urease _______ in 5 days

•______ requirement for growth (Trichophyton agars: T1 negative, T4 positive)

_______: positive in 14 days

KEY FEATURES: Microscopic morphology, culture characteristics, endothrix invasion, and partial thiamine requirement

A

Mycosel agar

Urease positive

Thiamine

Hair perforation test

66
Q

Trichophyton tonsurans
Confirmatory tests:
• Mycosel agar - chlamydospore-like structures in_____
• Urease positive in____
• Thiamine requirement for growth (Trichophyton agars: T1 negative, T4 positive)

Hair perforation test: positive in_____
KEY FEATURES: Microscopic morphology, culture characteristics, endothrix invasion, and partial thiamine requirement

A

5 days

5 days

14 days

67
Q

• Colonies: generally flat, white to cream in color, with a powdery to granular surface.
• Some cultures: central folding or develop raised central tufts or pleomorphic suede-like to downy areas.

• Reverse pigmentation: usually a yellow-brown to reddish-brown color.

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

68
Q

• Microconidia: numerous single-celled often in clusters, hyaline, smooth-walled, predominantly SPHERICAL to SUBSPHERICAL in shape, occasionally clavate to pyriform

• Macroconidia: smooth, thin-walled, clavate, multiseptate

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

69
Q

• Varying numbers of chlamydospores, SPIRAL HYPHAE, smooth/thin-walled, clavate macroconidia may be present

• Subculture: SDA with 5% salt
No special nutritional requirement
(Trichophyton agars)

• Urease positive, 3-5 days
• Hair perforation positive, 14 days

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes