CSF (week 3) Flashcards

cell SF, harvesting chemical energy, cell signalling

1
Q

what is the endomembrane system

A

a network of membrane-bound organelles in a eukaryotic cell involved in many processes lie protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what organelles are in the endomembrane system

A

nuclear envelope, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes and vesicles, and golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cytoplasm vs cytosol

A

cytoplasm is everything inside the cell excluding the nucleus, cytosol is the fluid portion inside the cell, consisting of water and dissolved/suspended substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the plasma membrane

A

a selectively permeable barrier around the cell controlling the passage of substances in and out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe the structure of the plasma membrane

A

fluid mosaic model, consisting of phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic phosphate heads and internal hydrophobic lipid tails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 important features of the PM

A
  • dynamic (not static)
  • cell specific (different proteins according to need)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

6 functions/types of PM proteins

A
  • transport
  • enzymes
  • cell signalling
  • intercellular recognition
  • intercellular joining (e.g cadherins)
  • transmembrane (can perform many functions like above ones, can link cytoskeleton to ECM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe structure of the nucleus

A
  • has a membrane; nuclear envelope
  • nucleolus within the nucleus produces rRNA and ribosome sub-units
  • has nuclear pores for entry/exit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

explain the various forms of DNA and

A

double helix structure is wrapped around histones to form nucleosomes (8 histones in a nucleosome). chains of histones/nucleosomes form chromatin, which can organise itself into chromatin fibres, which condenses into chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are ribosomes made of and where

A

consist of small and large subunits made of rRNA and proteins. the subunits are made in the nucleolus and assembled in the cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the two sites of ribosomal protein synthesis, where do they end up, and why is this segregation important?

A

ribosomes can be in the RER or free in the cytoplasm. RER proteins are either used in the endomembrane system or are secreted, while ribosomes in the cytoplasm produce proteins which function in the cytosol.

separation allows for more efficient protein production, as proteins can be made right where they are intended to function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when might DNA occupy various forms/structures

A

during interphase DNA usually exists as chromatin, but must be unwound during replication, and condenses to chromosomes during cell division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

function of the smooth ER

A

-storage for cell-specific proteins and enzymes (detoxifying enzymes in the liver)
-synthesis of lipids
stores calcium for muscle contraction in muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe the structure and function of the golgi

A

consists of sacs called cisternae, usually 3-20 per apparatus. looks like a stack of pita breads.

proteins travel through the cisternae, receiving modification at each step, and maturing at the exit cisternae to travel via vesicles to their destination. movement occurs from the cis (ER facing side) to trans (extracellular facing side).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe structure and function of lysosomes

A

lysosomes are vesicles formed from the golgi apparatus, contain powerful digestive enzymes. they digest old organelles and substances from outside the cell like pathogens. once a lysosome digests material, nutrient waste is released to be reused (e.g amino acids and lipids), and then the lysosome (containing the waste) leaves the cell via exocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is it called when a lysosome digests its own cell’s organelles

A

autophagy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe microfilaments structure, function, and features

A

7nm. made of actin molecules in two long, twisting chains. found around the periphery of the cell. dynamic - formed and reformed for different temporal requirements.
- bear tension and weight
- aid ameboid mobility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe ameboid motility

A

allows cell movement by rearrangement of the cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe intermediate filaments structure, function, and features

A

8-12nm. composed of various substances, e,g keratin. found in the cytoplasm. more permanent, less dynamic.
- bear tension and weight.
- contribute to cell structure and organelle placement, like scaffolding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the structure of an ATP molecule

A

adenosine associated with three phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe microtubules structure and functions

A

25nm outer diameter. consist of tubulin, both alpha and beta subtypes. 15nm inner diameter of tubular structure, with lumen inside. dynamic.
- support cell structure
- support movement of cell structures like cilia/flagellum
- are a ‘road’ for organelles, vesicles, and proteins.
- form the mitotic spindle for chromosome separation during cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 main types of fuel for the body, and what they break down into

A

carbs; simple sugars
proteins; amino acids
fats; simple fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe glycolysis

A

first step of respiration; lysis of glucose. 6-carbon glucose chain is split into two 3-carbon pyruvate molecules, in the cytoplasm, in absence of oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

glycolysis products and reactants

A

P: glucose
R: 2 pyruvate, 2 H2O, 2 ATP, 2 NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe the significance of the 3rd step of glycolysis

A

phosphofructokinase enzyme catalyses the irreversible phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate -> fructose-1,6-biphosphate. this therefore the ‘gatekeeper’ and rate regulator for glycolysis. buildup of citrate and ATP will inhibit the enzyme, and buildup of AMP stimulates it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why does AMP stimulate glycolysis rate?

A

because it signals low energy, as it means ATP is in high demand and is being used up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why do citrate and ATP inhibit glycolysis?

A

because citrate is a product of the CAC, implying that it is running smoothly. ATP presence means that energy levels are already high/available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe pyruvate oxidation

A

pyruvate enters the cell through transport protein to be converted to acetyl CoA by losing a carbon and binding to coenzyme A. this allows it to enter the CAC. occurs in the matrix, and requires oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

reactants and products of pyruvate oxidation

A

R: 2 pyruvate
P: 2 CO2, 2 NADH, 2 acetyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe the CAC

A

occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and requires oxygen. 2 acetyl CoA from pyruvate oxidation are invested, and 2 ATP, 2 FADH2, 4 CO2, and 6 NADH are produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

reactants and products of CAC

A

R: acetyl CoA (2)
P: 2 ATP, 2 FADH2, 4 CO2, 6 NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why does the CAC require oxygen

A

because it requires acetyl CoA, which must be OXIDISED from pyruvate

33
Q

what state are electron carriers in when they reach the ETC

34
Q

what is an acetyl molecule

A

a 2 carbon molecule resulting from the loss of a carbon from pyruvate

35
Q

what happens to NADH produced during glycolysis during aerobic and anaerobic conditions

A

oxygen present: sends its electrons via electron shuttles to the matrix, to be used in the ETC
oxygen absent: it is oxidised back to NAD+ to be reused in further glycolysis so ATP can be produced quickly without oxygen

36
Q

define substrate phosphorylation

A

ATP production via transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate directly to ADP

37
Q

where/when does substrate phosphorylation occur?

A

whenever ATP is produced in respiration prior to oxidative phosphorylation;
- during glycolysis in the cytoplasm
- CAC in the matrix,

38
Q

reactants (what is needed) and products of oxidative phosphorylation

A

needed: reduced electron carriers, oxygen, H+, ADP + P

39
Q

describe the ETC - detailed (i.e each complex.

A

NADH and FADH2 deposit electrons, which are transferred through a series of protein complexes in the inner membrane, simultaneously pumping H+ outside of the matrix to form an electrochemical gradient.

NADH transfers electrons at complex I, and FADH2 at complex II. Coenzyme Q transfers these directly to complex III, to cytochrome C, which transfers them to complex IV, which transfers them to oxygen, the final electron acceptor, which forms H2O.

40
Q

what is cytochrome C

A

a small, mobile carrier protein transferring electrons between CIII and CIV

41
Q

what complex in the ETC doesn’t pump H+ ions

A

complex II

42
Q

explain chemiosmosis

A

H+ ions rush down the concentration gradient through the enzyme ATP synthase, which acts a turbine which the movement of H+ powers.

43
Q

explain what is meant by the electrochemical gradient of H+

A

H+ creates a gradient of electrical charge due to its positive charge (greater in the inter membrane space where H+ has accumulated), and a chemical gradient due to the difference in H+ concentration between the intermembrane space and matrix

44
Q

where are insulin and glucagon secreted

A

the pancreatic islets/islets of langerhaans.
- insulin; beta cells
- glucagon; alpha cells

45
Q

what is the fasting blood sugar level that signals diabetes

A

7mmol/L or higher

46
Q

what happens if we have no functional insulin?

A

we can’t take glucose into our cells, therefore blood accumulates too much glucose

47
Q

what type of diabetic is insulin dependent

A

a type 1 diabetic, as they produce no insulin

48
Q

examples of cellular activities as results of cell signalling

A

gene expression, alteration of protein function, regulation of cell’s metabolism, cytoskeleton rearrangement, regulation of cell’s organelles or organisation, open/closing of ion channel

49
Q

explain the structure of a G-protein couples receptor (GPCR)

A

transmembrane that passes through the membrane 7 times. extracellular loop regions are hydrophilic, and embedded part is lipophilic.

50
Q

what are G-proteins

A

proteins embedded in the cytoplasmic side of the membrane that act as molecular switches, becoming either active or inactive depending on whether GTP or GDP is bound to them (GDP=inactive)

51
Q

explain how GPCRs work and are deactivated

A

a ligand binds to GPCR, causing a conformational change and activating it. it then binds to a G-protein, whose GDP will be replaced with GTP, activating it. the activated protein activates enzymes to carry out the cellular response. GTPase activity hydrolyses GTP back to GDP + P, reverting the G protein back to resting inactive state.

52
Q

what system relies heavily on ligand-gated ion channels

A

nervous system

53
Q

explain ligand-gated ion channel’s structure and function

A

transmembrane proteins with ligand-binding sites on the extracellular side. specific ligand binds, causing a conformational change resulting in the channel opening, allowing CERTAIN ions to enter down the concentration gradient. ligand dissociates and gate closes.

54
Q

example of a neurotransmitter, and what else we may see it as

A

acetylcholine, is also a ligand for a gated ion channel.

55
Q

4 main types of signalling

A

autocrine, paracrine, endocrine, synaptic

56
Q

what is a protein ‘kinase’

A

a kinase phosphorylates (adds a phosphate from ATP) a molecule; a protein kinase phosphorylates a protein.

57
Q

what dephosphorylates a protein

A

phosphatase enzymes

58
Q

where would the receptor for a lipid-soluble messenger be found

A

not in the membrane. in cytoplasm, or nucleus.

59
Q

what is the enzyme called in the GPCR activation that trigger

59
Q

the GPCR/cAMP pathway is disrupted by:

A

cholera toxin

59
Q

examples of lipid-soluble messengers

A

lipid-soluble hormones like oestrogen and testosterone, thyroid hormones, some gasses

60
Q

3 main steps of cell signalling

A

reception, transduction, response

61
Q

what are the two examples of things that are typically phosphorylated in the phosphorylation cascade

A

serine and threonine residues

62
Q

finish sentence: activation usually _____ the start of _________

A

prompts, deactivation.

63
Q

common second messengers

A

Ca2+, cAMP, IP3

63
Q

what type of messengers are received by membrane-bound receptors

A

water-soluble ligands

64
Q

how is cAMP activated

A

adenylyl cyclase is activated by G-protein, converting ATP to cyclic AMP- cAMP.

65
Q

what does adrenaline do (in the signalling of the fleeing impala…)

A

acts as the messenger for a response resulting in breakdown of glycogen, releasing glucose for muscle use

66
Q

how is glycogen broken down

A

glycogen phosphorylase converts glucose to glucose-1-phosphate, which can be converted to glucose-6-phosphate, which can be used in glycolysis for energy

67
Q

what enzyme is associated with IP3 second messenger

A

phospholipase C

67
Q

what does cAMP/other second messengers do

A

activate downstream proteins

68
Q

what is a PP/phosphatase

A

enzymes that dephosphorylate proteins, removing a phosphate and rendering the protein inactive but reusable.

69
Q

what does phospholipase C do

A

it is activated by G-protein (fills same place as adenylyl cyclase), and cleaves PIP2 phospholipid (in the membrane) into DAG and IP3 messengers.

70
Q

what does IP3 do

A

diffuses through the cytoplasm to act as a ligand for a channel in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, opening it and allowing Ca+ to flow OUT OF the SER down the conc. gradient.

71
Q

where is Ca2+ found in high concentration, how is this maintained.

A

very high outside the cell, as well as in mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. maintained by calcium pumps.

72
Q

why is it important that there are many steps in the cell signalling process

A
  1. each step amplifies the response significantly
  2. allows for temporal and spatial specificity of responses despite shared messengers
  3. provides multiple control points
  4. intermediates allow for coordination with other pathways
73
Q

what breaks down cAMP - what details relate to it

A

PDE - caffeine halts its action