CSCS Flashcards
Which type of muscle fiber is also called slow-twitch? Type I Type IIa Type IIb TypeIIx
Type I
What involves the parts of the body affected by exercise?
Neuromuscular Anatomy
What are the names for type I, type IIa, and type IIb muscle fibers in order
A. Fast Oxidative glycolytic fibers, fast glycolytic fibers, and slow oxidative fibers.
B. slow oxidative fibers, fast glycolytic fibers, and fast oxidative glycolytiv fibers.
C. slow oxidative fibers, fast oxidative glycolytic fibers, and fast glycolytic fibers.
D. None
C
These muscle fibers are also known as slow-twitch fibers, which are useful for aerobic exercise because they do not tire quickly. They have a large capacity for supplying aerobic energy, but their capacity for anaerobic power is low. They don’t produce much rapid force, as they activate and contract slowly.
Type I
Which of the following is an example of a mode? A. Hiking B. High impact activities C.Upper body exercise D. All of the above
D
These muscle fibers, called fast twitch fibers, get tires quickly, so are not useful for aerobic capacity, but they do help with rapid force production, such as needed when sprinting . These fibers are classified as either type IIa/b with the latter fatiguing less quickly than the former due to more capillaries and greater blood flow.
Type II
The stretch reflex is initiated by which of the following? A. Muscle spindles B. Golgi tendon organs C. A and B D. Neither
A
Type IIa muscle fibers are also called what?
Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers
If a person is singing along to music while on an exercise machine, at what level of intensity is he/she likely ecercising? A.Low B. Moderate C. High D. Vigorous
A
Type IIb fibers are also called what?
Fast glycolytic fibers
At how many weeks should pregnant women stop lying in a supine position? A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. None
C
What is an important part of the muscles, assumed to serve a protective function. It is found where the muscle and tendon connect to bone, and it tells the body when too much force is placed on a muscle?
Golgi Tendon Organ
At what percentage of ideal body weight may a person with an eating disorder begin aerobic exercise? A. 80 B. 90 C. 95 D. 100
B
What has sensory functions like Golgi tendon organs. The sensory organs observe changes in muscle length and initiate a motor response if elongation happens to quickly?
Muscle spindles
How long should a post caridac rehab person exercise without problems before beginning resistance training? A. 1 month B. 2 months C. 3 months D. 6 months
C
What shows how motor units react to exercise stress
Motor unit recruitment patterns
Which of the following statements best describes PNF stretching?
A. gradual, slow, controlled lengthening of the muscle through the full range of motion
B. technique targeting the muscular nerve receptors be sending a massage to the muscle that is to be stretched
C. shortening contraction of the opposing muscles while stretching the target muscles
D. short duration, bouncing movement against the resistance of the antagonist muscle
C
What is the flow of energy to biological systems, and the metabolization of food is the most important aspect of this process
Bioenergetics
When is a specific time that you do not need a spotter?
A. when your client says he/she is confident enough on his/her own
B. for more complex movements because it is not safe for a spotter
C. During power movements
D. spotter is never necessary unless a client asks for one
C
What is simply the type of physical activity?
Mode
A stable body position does NOT include which of the following:
A. head placed firmly on the bench
B. left foot on the floor
C. shoulders and upper back placed firmly and evenly on the bench
D. right foot on its toe for support
D
What is the difficulty level of physical activity
Intensity
The appropriate volume for a beginner athlete in plyometric training should be: A. 60-80 contacts per session B. 80-100 contacts per session C. 100-120 contacts per session D. 120-140 contacts per session
B
What is the amount of time spent exercising and is usually divided into short, medium, and long categories
Duration
Which of the following describes proper breathing technique when exercising?
A. inhale through the sticking point
B. inhale during the most strenuous part of a repetition
C. exhale through the sticking point
D. exhale during the eccentric phase
C
What is a variable used for weight training. It is typically measured as volume-load, which is the amount of weight lifted multiplied by the number of repetitions
Volume
Which of the following is the correct range of maximum rate for cardio fitness? A. 50-65% B. 60-85% C. 80-95% D. None
B
What is the ratio length of exercise compared to the length of recovery time
Work-to-rest
There are four main factors that contribute to the success of agility performance. Which of the following is not one of those factors? A. perceptual/decision making factors B. physical factors C. technical factors D. background and education
D
What is one of the main hormones responsible for muscle tissue growth. Men who engage in resistance training have increased concentrations of it in their muscles, which stimulate protein synthesis in skeletal muscle
Testosterone
.............speed is learning how to improve reaction time by training with an outside stimulus A. reactive B. active C. frequency D. complex
A
What is the natural movement that happens when someone swings their body, such as when swinging a heavy object.
Momentum
Static stretching is designed to gradually lengthen a muscle in an elongated position for approximately A. 5-10 seconds B. 15-30 seconds C. 30 seconds to 2 minutes D. 2 minutes or more
B
What is defined as the force needed for rotation
Torque
Which of the following is not a training variable? A. repetitions B. sets C. rest periods D. time of day
D
What is a type of training is considered explosive movements during personal training
Power
Hypertrophy is the goal of A. increasing strength B. increasing endurance C. increasing muscle size D. decreasing body fat
C
What is the amount of force a muscle must produce to move something
Work
How many joints and muscle groups are involved in core exercises?
A. at least one joint and at least one muscle group
B. two or more joints and at least one large muscle group
C. two or more joints and tow or more small muscle groups
D. two or more joints and two or more muscle groups
B
What is the average location of a person’s or object weight
Center of gravity
A power exercise is a variation of what type of exercise? A. structural B. assistance C. core D. sport-specific
A
What is force multiplied by time
Mechanical impluse
What factor does the Karvonen Formula consider that is not in the general calculation for max heart rate? A. age B. resting heart rate C. gender D. weight
B
What refers to pressure a person places on a supporting surface, generally from a foot or hand
Center of pressure
Which pairing represents a superset in a push-pull workout? A. hamstring curls and calf raises B. squats and pull-ups C. leg extension and lunges D. bench press and lateral pull-downs
D
What are the three anatomical planes of movement?
Sagittal, Frontal, and Transverse
At what intensity would someone be working if they could engage in conversion, but not sing? A. Low B. Moderate C. High D. None
B
What is simply the angle of two opposite segments of the joint, such as a 90 degree angle at the elbow joint when the lower arm and upper arm make a right angle
Joint angle
Following a acute injury, how long is a person typically in the inflammation stage/ A. 2-3 days B. one week C. two months D. indefinitely
A
What contractions are unique because they are only type where the joint does not move
Isometric
Which is the agonist muscle in a push-up? A. triceps B. deltoids C. perctorals D. latissimus dorsi
C
What contraction occurs when the joint angle changes and the muscle length changes(which is necessary for movement to occur), but the muscle tension is constant
Isotonic
What is the best type of flooring for a strength and conditioning facility? A. carpeting B. poured rubber C. interlocking rubber mats D. wood
B
What contractions require isokentic devices, which provide a constant velocity during weight lifting
Isokentic
Which of the following does not need to be perfomred daily?
A. inspecting mats for cracks
B. putting away equipment that is not in use
C. cleaning the floors
D. dusting ducts and pipes on the ceiling
D
What muscles contract at the same time as the agonist. They are generally smaller muscles that assist with the movement at the joint
Synergist
What percentage of facility members represents an estimate of how many people will use the facility in a two hour period? A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25%
D
What muscle acts as a partial antagonist to limit movement at the joint
Neutralizer
Of the number of people estimated to use a faciltiy in a two hour period, how many represents a daily use estimate> A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. None
B
What muscle provides support at the joint
Stabilizer
A facility should have one cardio machine per how many estimated daily users? A. 5 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
A
What helps an athlete build and maintain muscle, but it is not the primary source of fuel
Protein
Which of the following may be part of a strength and conditioning staff? A. coach B. physician C. athletic administrator D. All of above
D
What is stored as a valuable metabolic fuel for muscles during endurance exercise
Fat
What is the correct ratio of ventilation's/breaths to chest compression during CPR? A. 1:20 B. 1:30 C. 2:30 D. 2:100
C
What is a measure of the amount of energy expended while exercising
Exercise intensity
How long should a trainer assess a person for signs of circulation? A. 5 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 3 minutes
B
What during an exercise session is based on exercise intensity and duration
Total caloric expenditure
When should a trainer perform the first fitness assessment?
A. before doing anything else
B. after a consultation, but before health appraisal
C. after consultation and health appraisal
D. after intro workout
C
What fat is usually solid at room temperture
Saturated
A blood pressure reading of 145mmHg would be considered A. prehypertension B. stage 1 hypertension C. stage 2 hypertension D. none
B
What fat is a type of fat that has undergone the process of hydrogenation, which makes the fat harder at room temperture
Trans-fat
The YMCA bench press test us a measure of: A. muscular endurance B. power endurance C. upper body power D. muscular strength
A
What fat remains liquid at room temperature and is found in fish and vegetable oils
Unsaturated
The T-Test assesses: A. agility B. speed C. quickness D. power
A
What is an amino acid involved in energy metabolism and is alleged to improve performance in short events. It can increase capacity for small bursts of energy, so it helps individuals involved in team sports, sprinting, and body building
Creatine
The ballistic bench press assesses: A. whole body power B. upper body power C. power endurance D. muscular endurance
B
What are used as a primary method in developing explosive power for an athlet
Plyometrics
Anaerobic capacity (power endurance) is assessed with the: A. 40 yard dash B. 120 yard dash C. 300 yard dash D. 100 meter dash
C
What are the three phases of plyometric training?
Eccentric, Amortization, and Concentric
Which aerobic endurance test is generally best for older adults? A. YMCA cycle ergometer test B. 1.5 mile test C. step test D. rockport walking test
D
What are the four types of speed?
Reactive, active, frequency, and complex
This invloves the parts of the body affected by exercise A. neuromuscular anatomy B. biomechanics C. bioenergetics D. none
A
Cardio should be performed in what % range of maximum rate for improved cardio fitness. The target rate is found by subtracting your age from 220
60-85
Type I muscle fibers are also known as what fibers, which are useful for aerobic exercise because they do not tire quickly A. slow twitch B. fast twitch C. fast oxidative D. fast glycolytic
A
What stretching is the process of taking a muscle (passively) to the point of tension and holding it for a minimum of 20 seconds
Static
Type II muscle fibers are also known as what kind of fibers, which get tired quickly, so are not useful for aerobic capacity, but do help with rapid force production, such as needed when sprinting. A. slow twitch B. fast twitch C. fast oxidative D. fast glycolytic
B
What stretching techniques are very popular when looking for short term gains in range of motion. They involve a shortening contraction of opposing muscles while stretching the target muscles. Technique inculde hold relax, contract relax, and contract relax and contract relax antagonist contract stretches.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
Type IIa fibers are also called A. slow twitch B. fast twitch C. fast oxidative glycolytic D. fast glycolytic
C
What stretching is a common method of stretching that improves a persons functional range of motion in a controlled fashion. Typically, a stretch is moved just beyond the comfort zone for 1-2 seconds with 10-12 reps.
Dynamic
Type IIb fibers are also called A. slow twitch B. fast twitch C. fast oxidative glycolytic D. fast glycolytic
D
What stretching is rarely used, if ever, but has the hallmark of quickly moving, jerky movements that force a muscle to respond beyond its normal range of motion
Ballistic
The ........, assumed to serve a protective function, tells the body when too much force is placed on a muscle. A. Golgi Tendon Organ B. nerve synapse C. muscle fiber D. none of above
A
What training is a type of exercise for muscles that works to improve strength, size, and endurance using resistance from free weights, machines, and body weight.
Resistance
What is the flow of energy to biological systems A. neuromuscular B. biomechanics C. bioenergetics D. none of above
C
What training includes explosive exercises with quick muscle contractions, exerting maximum force.
Plyometric
What is the simply the type of physical activity A. volume B. duration C. intensity D. mode
D
What training is used to improve the elasticity of muscles and connective tissue, as well as the range of motion of joints.
Flexibility
What is the difficulty level of physical activity A. volume B. duration C. intensity D. mode
C
What training, also know as cardio, works to improve cardiorespiratory fitness.
Aerobic
What is the amount of time spent exercising and is usually divided into short duration, medium duration, and long duration. A. volume B. duration C. intensity D. mode
B
What training is an intermediate form of aerobic training that involves alternating exercise intensity during training periods.
Interval
What is typically measured as volume-load, which is the amount of weight lifted multiplied by the number of reps A. volume B. duration C. intensity D. mode
A
What is the ability of a muscle to contract repeatedly without rest.
Muscular endurance
What is the length of exercise compared to the length of recovery ratio A. work to rest ratio B. momentum C. exercise intensity D. none of above
A
It is the goal of increasing muscle size.
Hypertrophy
What is the natural movement that happens when someone swings their body, such as when swinging a heavy object A. momentum B. torque C. power D. work
A
What is the ability to lift a very heavy object.
Maximal strength
What is defined as the force needed for rotation. A. momentum B. torque C. power D. work
B
What is a culmination of endurance, strength, and speed.
Power
This is a type of training is considered explosive movements during personal training. A, momentum B. torque C. power D. work
C
This training is the only type of training, besides flexibility, that may be performed daily.
Aerobic endurance
This is the amount of force a muscle must produce to move something. A. momentum B. torque C. power D. work
D
This stretching is a type of flexibility training that involves short holds and movement. An example is holding a stretch for 2-3 seconds, coming out of the stretch, and then going directly into another repetition. It should be done in sets of one to three and with five to ten reps each
Active
What refers to pressure a person places on a supporting surface, generally from a foot or hand. A. torque B. volume C. center of pressure D. power
C
The relationship between muscles, bones, and nerves is called.
Kinetic chain
What contractions are unique because they are the only type where the joint does not move A. isometric B. isotonic C. isokinetic D. None
A
What exercises involve two or more primary joints, such as the elbows or knees, and target at least one large muscle group, such as the quadriceps or pectorals
Core
An.........contraction occurs when the joint angle changes and the muscle length changes (which is necessary for movement to occur), but the muscle tension is constant A. isometric B. isotonic C. isokinetic D. None
B
What exercises affect the spine, either directly or indirectly
Structual
What contractions require isokinetic devices, which provide a constant velocity during weight lifting A. isometric B. isotonic C. isokinetic D. none
C
What exercises are a type of structural exercise that is performed using explosive movements
Power
What exercises are low priority, but should still be done periodically. These exercises primarily work with smaller muscle and typically involve movement at only one primary joint
Assistance
What muscles contract at the same time as the agonist. They are generally smaller muscles that assist with the movement at the joint A. agonist B. antagonist C. synergist D. None
C
What exercises could be any of the above, but they are mainly designed to closely mimic movements that people use in sports.
Sport specific
What helps an athlete build and maintain muscle, but it is not the primary source of fuel. A. carbohydrates B. protein C. fats D. fiber
B
What is a measurement of exercise intensity used primarily is resistance training programs. It usually describes a percent of 1 RM or repetition maximum
Load
This fat is usually solid at room temperature A. unsaturated B. trans C. saturated D. none
C
What is a measurement of exercise intensity that measures the amount of stress placed on muscle, which is most commonly assessed by weight
Resistance
What fat is a type of fat that has undergone the process of hydrogenation, which makes the fat harder at room temperature A. unsaturated B. Trans C. saturated D. none
B
Intensity of aerobic exercise is generally measured by what?
Heart rate
What fat remains liquid at room temperature and is found in fish and vegetable oils A. unsaturated B. trans C. saturated D. none
A
When putting together a resistance training program, personal trainers must consider the total amount of weight used during a workout. This is known as what?
Volume
What phase of plyometric training stretches the agonist muscle. A. eccentric B. amortization C. concentric D. none
A
Reconditioning occurs in which general stages that follow the body’s healing stages?
Inflammation, Repair, Remodeling
What phase of plyometric training is a pause between eccentric and concentric action A. eccentric B. amortization C. concentric D. none
B
Mirrors in a training facility should be positioned at least how many inches above the floor
20
What phase of plyometric training shortens the agonist muscle fibers A. eccentric B. amortization C. concentric D. none
C
Door entryways in a training facility should be flat. If the door threshold is higher than how many inches, a ramp or object accommodating wheelchair access is required
0.5
What speed entails learning how to improve reaction time by training with an outside stimulus A. antagonist B. impulse C. active D. reactive
D
As a rule of thumb for training facilities, there should be one cardio machine for every how many daily users
5
What speed entails improving speed with quick duration activities of six seconds or less A. antagonist B. impulse C. active D. reactive
C
In a training facility, a small, quiet area should be set aside for stretching. How many sq feet of space is ideal
49
Cardio should be performed in the what % range of max rate for improved cardio fitness. A. 70-90 B. 60-85 C. 40-55 D. 35-50
A
As a rule of thumb, allocate how many sq feet per piece of floor equipment in a training facility.
1 to 10
What stretching techniques are very popular when looking for short term gains in range of motion. It involves a shortening contraction of the opposing muscles while stretching the target muscles.
A. static
B. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
C. dynamic
D. ballistic
B
A staff to client ratio of what is acceptable for a secondary school facility
1-15
What stretching is a common method of stretching that improves a person's functional range of motion in a controlled fashion. Typically, a stretch is moved just beyond the comfort zone for 1-2 seconds with 10-12 reps A. static B. PNF C. dynamic D. ballistic
C
A staff to client ratio of what is acceptable for a training facility that serves primarily athletes and adults
1 to 20
What stretching is rarely used, if ever, but has the hallmark of quickly moving, jerky movements that force a muscle to respond beyond its normal range of motion A. static B. PNF C. dynamic D. ballistic
D
Who teaches athletes about rules, techniques, equipment use, resistance training, flexibility training, athletic conditioning, and regulations applicable to a certain sport and also about how to complete everything safely
Coaches
What training is a type of exercise for muscles that works to improve strength, size, and endurance using resistance from free weights, machines, and body weight A. flexibility B. speed and agility C. plyometric D. resistance
D
What concerns are primarily with equipment, supplies, and personnel. It is his/her job to ensure that everyone has necessary credentials and is up to date on his/her continuing education requirements. They coordinate faculty safety, equipment, insurance, and emergency medical plans.
Athletic administrator
What training includes explosive exercises with quick muscle contractions, exerting max force A. flexibility B. speed and agility C. plyometric D. resistance
C
A team ………… recruits and supervises all other health professionals.
Physician
What training is an exercise method to improve sports performance, specifically to make athletes fast and more agile to produce quicker movements in various directions A. flexibility B. speed and agility C. plyometric D. resistance
B
Who assist with equipment maintenance and facility operation. They may provide basic first aid and emergency medical care. Their main job, however, is to learn, so they are limited to healthcare assistance and do not make major decisions.
Student athletic trainers
What training is used to improve the elasticity of muscles and connective tissue, as well as the range of motion of joints A. flexibility B. speed and agility C. plyometric D. resistance
A
No on should ever be allowed to just “look around” a training facility on his/her own without signing what?
Assumption of liability
What training, also known as cardio, works to improve cardiorespiratory fitness A. power B. anaerobic C. aerobic D. none
C
When a client expresses interest in personal training, rules should be followed for the clients safety and trainer and facility protection from legal issues. Clients should sign what form before undergoing/completing a fitness evaluation
Informed consent
What exercise involve two or more primary joints,such as elbows or knee, and target at least one large muscle group, such as the quadriceps or pectorals A. core B. structural C. power D. assistance
A
A strain or a sprain should be treated with the ICE procedure, which stand for what?
Ice, Compression, and Elevation
What exercises affect the spine, either directly or indirectly A. core B. structural C. power D. assistance
B
What does CPR stand for?
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
What exercises are a type of structural exercise that is using explosive movements A. core B. structural C. power D. assistance
C
What is a small device that can determine when defibrillation is required by assessing heart rhythms and, when necessary, delivering a shock to the heart
Automated external defibrillator
What exercise are low priority, but should still be done periodically. These exercises primarily work the smaller muscle groups and typically involve movement at only one primary joint A. core B. structural C. power D. assistance
D
What does ABC of the primary survey stand for?
Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
What exercises could be any of the above, but they are mainly designed to closely mimic movements that people use in sports A. structural B. power C. assistance D. sport specific
D
What is assessed for a baseline number used in resistance training and later to show progress
Muscular strength
What is a measurement of exercise intensity that measures the amount of stress placed on a muscle, which is most commonly assessed by weight A. resistance B. total caloric expenditure C. heart rate D. none
A
What is the most common upper body power assessment
Ballistic bench press
..............during a exercise session is based on exercise intensity and duration A. resistance B. total caloric expenditure C. heart rate D. none
B
These two things are the most common lower body power assessments
Vertical jump and broad jumps
Intensity of aerobic exercise is generally measured by what. A. resistance B. total caloric expenditure C. heart rate D. none
C
What is a simple and effective measure of agility?
T-test
Which of the following is NOT one of the reconditioning stages of the body? A. inflammation stage B. repair stage C. remodeling stage D. rest stage
D
What two components comprise a motor unit?
Muscle fibers and Motor neuron
For the first two or three days following an acute injury, the body is in the what stage of reconditioning A. inflammation B. repair C. remodeling D. rest
A
True or False: A Golgi tendon organ sends impulses to the antagonist muscle to relax and to the agonist muscle to activate.
False
In the second stage of reconditioning, the what stage, the body works to repair damaged tissue for up to two months A. inflammation B. repair C. remodeling D. rest
B
What is the most basic energy system?
The Phosphogen Energy System
In the final stage of reconditioning, the what stage, collagen fibers replace damaged tissue A. inflammation B. repair C. remodeling D. rest
C
Which two hormones stimulate protein synthesis?
Testosterone and Growth Hormone
To estimate how many machines a training facility needs, calculate 25% of the members to approximate how many people will be using the facility within a two hour period. What sum is a good estimate of daily users. A. 1/6 B. 1/4 C. 1/3 D. 1/2
C
True or False: the equation for work is force multiplied by distance
True
As a rule of thumb for training facilities, there should be one cardio machine for every how many daily users A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15
A
The practice of increasing the total number of red blood cells in the blood to improve an athletes performance is known as what.
Blood doping
In a training facility, a small, quiet area should be set aside for stretching. What square foot space is ideal A. 35 B. 49 C. 55 D. 70
B
What is a technique where, initially, glycogen stores are depleted by performing strenuous exercise, and then replenished by consuming a high carb diet for a few days before competition, while performing only light exercise or no exercise
Carbohydrate Loading
As a rule of thumb, allocate how many square feet per piece of floor equipment in a training facility. A. 10-15 B. 20-30 C. 25-50 D. 40-60
C
In 2010, USDA food pyramid concept was replaced with what?
MyPlate
A staff to client ratio of what is acceptable for a training facility that serves primarily athletes and adults. A. 1-5 B. 1-10 C. 1-15 D. 1-20
D
Tea amount of oxygen consumed during exercise and the most precise measure of intensity is known as what/
VO2
What are teachers, sometimes even faculty member. They teach athletes about rules, techniques, equipment use, resistance training, flexibility, conditioning, and regulations applicable to a certain sport and also about how to complete everything safely. A, coaches B. athletic administrators C. trainers D. none
A
What are the two major steroids used to enhance performance.
Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone
Who is concerned primarily with equipment, supplies, and personnel. It is their job to ensure that everyone has necessary credentials and is up to date on his/her continuing education requirements. They coordinate faculty safety, equipment, insurance, and emergency medical plans. A. coaches B. athletic trainers C. trainers D. none
B
True or False: The same principles of proper body alignment, positioning, and body motion of free weight exercise technique can also be applied to resistance training technique.
True
No one should ever be allowed to just "look around" a training facility on his/her own without signing an A. assumption of liability B. informed consent C. general waiver D. none
A
True of False: Cardio exercises improve muscular endurance and aerobic endurance.
False
When a client expresses interest in persona; training, rules should be followed for the client's safety and trainer and facility protection from legal issues. Clients should sign what before undergoing/completing a fitness evaluation. A. assumption of liability B. informed consent C. general waiver D. none
B
Another name for plyometric training is what?
Jump training
What is a legal proceeding in a court of law A. due process B. trial C. litigation D. none
C
How long should an aerobic workout last?
20-60 minutes
What survey follows the ABCs: airway, breathing, and circulation A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. none
A
What is the formula for calculating maximum heart rate?
220 minus persons age
One of the vital signs a fitness professional may measure in an assessment is A. heart rate B. blood pressure C. Both A and B D. none
C
What two type of muscles are considered in muscle balance?
Agonist and Antagonist
What blood pressure is the amount of pressure in the left ventricle of the heart A. systolic B. diastolic C. anabolic D. none
A
What does 1RM stand for and what does it mean?
One rep max is the most resistance a person can lift one time with correct exercise form for a certain exercise
The average reading of systolic blood pressure is what mmHg. A. 80 B. 120 C. 140 D. 160
B
True or False: The bottom edge of mirrors and windows should be positioned at least 20 inches above the floor
True
What blood pressure is the peripheral resistance to blood flow during periods of relaxation. A. systolic B. diastolic C. anabolic D. none
B
The ideal ceiling height is between what feet?
12-14 feet
The average reading of diastolic blood pressure is what mmHg. A. 80 B. 90 C. 100 D. 120
A
What are the ABCs of first aid
Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
Trainers use submaximal tests to estimate a clients VO2 max as an indicator of what. A. aerobic capacity B. anaerobic capacity C. cardiovascular endurance D. none
C
CPR stands for what?
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
What test evaluate power endurance. A. aerobic capacity B. anaerobic capacity C. cardiovascular endurance D. none
B
True or False: An AED can be used on a person with a wet chest.
False
What is a measure of how fast the levels of sugar or glucose in blood are raised after ingesting a specific type of food. A. glycemic index B. body composition C. body mass index D. none
A
A person with a pulse, but who is not breathing needs what?
Rescue Breathing
What refers to the amount of fat compared to fat free mass, also called lean body mass, in a person, such as bones, body fluid, and muscle. A. glycemic index B. body composition C. body mass index D. none
B
True or False: The secondary survey is appropriate for an unresponsive person.
False
Any external influence used to improve athletic performance is known as an A. anabolic steriod B. ergogenic aid C. muscle enhancer D. none
B
A fitness assessment identifies a clients what and what?
Strengths and Weaknesses
What refers to the practice of increasing the total number of red blood cells in the blood to improve an athletes performance, specifically, an athletes aerobic capacity and endurance. A. carbohydrate loading B. blood doping C. both A and B D. neither A nor B
B
A normal resting heart rate falls between what and what beats per minute.
60-80
What factors are the category judging an agility programs effectiveness where an athlete is more effective when he/she can interpret various circumstances and anticipate movement as a result. His/her ability to see visual cues and respond accordingly in a quick manner is difficult to train. A. anthropometric B. physical C. technical D. perceptual/decision making
D
An average blood pressure reading is what mmHg?
120/80
What factors are the category judging an agility programs effectiveness where proper skill development and technique is learned and then translated to individual sports or movement patterns. By training things like proper body positioning, foot placement, stride adjustments, and body sequencing, technical and skill based training can help an athlete transfer these skills to a specific sport or activity. A. anthropometric B. physical C. technical D. perceptual/decision making
C
What is the most common test for assessing lower body muscular strength?
Leg Press Test
What factors are the category judging an agility programs effectiveness where following a sequence or foundation of development can help an athlete excel. All athletes need strength, power, and a solid fitness foundation to move onto more focused agility and speed development. A. anthropometric B. physical C. technical D. perceptual/decision making
B
Two tests are common for assessing lower body power.
Vertical Jump and Broad Jump
What factors are the category judging an agility program effectiveness where the overrall size of an athlete can affect his/her ability to be agile in different athletic movements. This includes limb length, stride length, and flexibility as contributing factors. A. anthropometric B. physical C. technical D. perceptual/decision making
A
Which of the eight skinfold sites is different for men or women?
Chest
What movements are a type of kinetic chain movement that occur when the joint moving farthest from the center of the body moves freely, as opposed to when the farthest, or distal, joint remains in a fixed position. A. open chain B. closed chain C. partial chain D. free chain
A
True or False: A certified balance beam scale is the most accurate equipment/tool for measuring weight.
True
What movements are a type of kinetic chain movement that occur when the distal joint does not move, such as when the hands remain on the ground during a push up. A. open chain B. closed chain C. partial chain D. free chain
B
An overhead press squat assessment can be used to evaluate what two things.
Postural alignment and muscle balance
The 300 yard dash is one of the most popular measures of what A. agility B. flexibility C. speed D. anaerobic capacity
D
What is an ergogenic aid? Give examples of 2 ergogenic aids used to enhance performance
Any external influence used to improve athletic performance is known as an ergogenic aid. It can be in the form of a dietary supplement or a pharmacological aid. Two examples of ergogenic aids are carb loading and blood doping.
The 40 yard dash is an excellent of what assessment tool A. agility B. flexibility C. speed D. anaerobic capacity
C
What is blood doping, and what are its adverse effects?
Refers to the practice of increasing the total number of red blood cells in the blood to improve an athletes performance, specifically, an athletes aerobic capacity (VO2 max) and endurance.
Trainers can use the sit and reach test to assess progress in A. agility B. flexibility C. speed D. anaerobic capacity
B
What are some adverse effects of blood doping?
Can increase the risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, heart disease, HIV, Hep B, Hep C
What is the testing sequence?
Non-Fatiguing(height, weight, f;flexibility, skinfold)
Agility(T-test, pro agility)
Max power and strength(1RM, power clean)
Sprint(40 yards)
Local Muscle Endurance(Partial curl up)
Fatiguing Anaerobic Capacity(400m, 300yd shuttle)
Aerobic Capacity(1.5 mile, 12 mile run)
What is an example of a max muscular strength test (Low Speed Strength)?
1RM Bench and Squat
What is an example of max muscular power test (High Speed Strength)?
1RM Power Clean, Standing Long Jump, Vertical Jump, Margaria-Kalamen Test
What is an example of anaerobic capacity test?
300 Yard Shuttle
What is an example of an local muscular endurance test?
Partial curl up, push up, YMCA Bench Press Test
What is an example of an aerobic capacity test?
1.5 mile and 12 minute run
What is an example of an agility test?
T-Test, Hexagon, Pro agility
What is an example of a speed test?
40 yard sprint
What is a flexibility test?
sit and reach
What is the steps of program design
Needs Analysis Exercise Selection Training Frequency Exercise Order Training Load and Reps Volume Rest Periods
What is the load and rep assignment for strength?
Load %1RM - greater then 85
Goal Rep - less then 6
Sets - 2-6
What is the load and rep assignment for power single effort?
Load %1RM - 80-90
Goal Rep - 1-2
Sets - 3-5
What is the load and rep assignment for multiple effort?
Load %1RM - 75-85
Goal Rep - 3-5
Sets - 3-5
What is the load and rep assignment for hypertrophy?
Load %1RM - 67-85
Goal Rep - 6-12
Sets - 3-6
What is the load and rep assignment for muscular endurance?
Load %1RM - less then 67
Goal Rep - greater then 12
Sets - 2-3
What are the three cycles for program design from largest to smallest?
Macrocycle, Mesocycle, Microcycle
What is the intensity and volume for Hypertrophy and Endurance?
Low to Moderate Intensity 50%-75% 1RM
High to Moderate Volume
3-6 sets
10-20 reps
What is the intensity and volume for Basic Strength?
High Intensity 80%-90% 1RM
Moderate Volume
3-5 sets
4-8 reps
What is the intensity and volume for Strength and Power?
High Intensity 87%-95% 1RM
Low Volume
3-5 sets
2-5 reps
What is the intensity and volume for Peaking?
Very High Intensity greater then 93% 1RM
Very Low Volume
1-3 sets
1-3 reps
What is the intensity and volume for Maintenance?
Moderate Intensity 80%-85% 1RM
Moderate Volume
2-3 sets
6-8 reps
How many grams of Carbs does it take to prevent Ketosis?
50-100 grams
What is the intake of Carbs for aerobic training?
8-10g/kg or around 600-750 grams
What is the intake of Carbs for non-aerobic training?
5-6g/kg
What are the signs of Bulimia?
Eating secretively, disappearing after meals, appearing nervous or agitated that prevents being alone, losing or gaining weight in extreme amounts, smell or remnants of vomit, and disappearance of large amount of food.
What are the signs of Anorexia?
Comments of being fat, dramatic weight loss, weight below ideal competitive weight, preoccupation of food,, calories, and weight.
How does the Hold-Relax sequence work for PNF stretching?
Begins with passive stretch held for 10 seconds thn continue pass comfort for 30 seconds
How does the Contract-Relax sequence work for PNF stretching?
Begins with passive stretch, then a concentric hip extensor
