critical illness Flashcards

1
Q

how long should patients fast for elective surgery?

A

non clear liquids/ food 6 hours
clear liquids 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when do patients require laxatives before colonoscopy?

A

day before colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how should TPN be administered?

A

central vein (eg subclavian) as strongly phlebitic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what change may be seen on the full blood count as a long-term result of COPD?

A

polycythaemia- increased haematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are signs of moderate acute asthma

A

PEFR 50-75% best or predicted
Speech normal
RR < 25 / min
Pulse < 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are signs of severe acute asthma

A

PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Can’t complete sentences
RR > 25/min
Pulse > 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are signs of life threatening acute asthma

A

PEFR < 33% best or predicted
Oxygen sats < 92%
‘Normal’ pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort
Bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension
Exhaustion, confusion or coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the management of acute asthma

A

A - air, 02
S - sabutamol
T = ipaTropium bromide (severe or life threatening)
H = hydrocortisone
M = magnesium sulphate
A - Aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

causes of upper zone pul fibrosis

A

C- Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

causes of lower zone pul fibrosis

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE, RA
drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate
asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

criteria for discharge following acute asthma

A

been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for 12-24 hours
inhaler technique checked and recorded
PEF >75% of best or predicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Resus Council UK define anaphylaxis as:

A

the sudden onset and rapid progression of symptoms
Airway and/or Breathing and/or Circulation problems- requires adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

site of injection IM adrenaline?

A

anterolateral aspect of middle thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when is insertion of chest drain contraindicated?

A

INR > 1.3
Platelet count < 75
Pulmonary bullae
Pleural adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what ph are NG tubes safe to use?

A

<5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are shockable rhythms?

A

ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VF/pulseless VT)

17
Q

what are non shockable rhythms?

A

asystole/pulseless-electrical activity (asystole/PEA)

18
Q

when should nitrates be used with caution in ACS?

A

hypotension

19
Q

what metabolic picture does OD in aspirin cause?

A

resp alkalosis (hyperventilation) then met acidosis ( metabolite salicylic acid)

20
Q

2 side effects of gentamicin

A

nephrotoxic, ototoxic

21
Q

when do you give IV magnesium?

A

<0.4, tetany, arrhythmias or seizures

22
Q

what can lithium toxicity be precipitated by?

A

dehydration
renal failure
drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACE i/ARB, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

23
Q

criteria for liver transplant following paracetamol OD

A

Arterial pH < 7.3, 24 hours after ingestion

or all of the following:
prothrombin time > 100 seconds
creatinine > 300 µmol/l
grade III or IV encephalopathy