Crisis and complications Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ECG criteria for Acute myocardial ischaemia?

A
  • ST segment depression >0.5mm at the J point in >2 contiguous leads
  • T wave inversion
  • Wellen’s T waves (Deeply inverted or biphasic) in V2-4
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2
Q

What is the ECG criteria for acute myocardial infarction?

A
  • ST elevation in 2 contiguous leads
  • > 1mm (all leads other than V2, V3)
  • > 2mm in V2 and V3
  • NSTEMI
  • new ST depression or TWI in 2 contiguous leads
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3
Q

Which leads refer to which part of the heart?

A

Lateral: I, aVL
Anterior V1-V6
Inferior: II, III, aVF

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4
Q

What is the management of acute myocardial ischaemia?

A

Aims: 1. Confirm diagnosis. 2. Optomise myocardial oxygen supply and demand

  1. Confirm diagnosis: Full set of obs, 12 lead ECG, urgent bloods eg trop and Hb

May need serial ECGs

If STEMI -> cath lab
If NSTEMI unstable -> cath lab
If NSTEMI stable, consult cardiology

  1. Optomise myocardial O2 supply and demand
    - Prepare for arrythymias
    - A: Maintain Airway
    - B: supplemental O2
    - C: Treat hypotension, treat anaemia, reduce preload (GTN), aspirin load, short acting beta blockers if tachycardic and can tolerate it
    D - treat Pain (analgesia)

Consult cardiology and surgeon

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5
Q

What is oliguria?

A

<0.5mls/kg/hr or <300-500mls/day

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6
Q

What are risks factors for venous gas embolism?

A
  • Procedures with gas insufflation
  • Procedures with open veins that may be at low pressure eg spinal/neurosurg
  • Unprimed venous lines during rapid infusion
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7
Q

What are signs of venous gas embolism?

A
  • Tachycardia/arrhythmia
  • Decreased BP
  • Sudden etCO2
  • Increased CVP
  • Mill wheel murmur
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8
Q

What is the management of venous gas embolism?

A
  • Inform surgeon and try and stop further entrainment
  • Call for help
  • Operation site below heart
  • 100% FiO2
  • Circulation - > treat BP
  • Aspirate CVC
  • Post op - consider hyperbaric/HDU/ICU/Pt informed/documentation/debriefing
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9
Q

How does venous Co2 gas embolism occur and what is the difference compared to air embolism?

A
  • Direct trocar insertion into a vessell or inadvertent inflation of a solid organ
  • Less severe compared to air due to increased solubility and rapid absorption of CO2
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10
Q

How can you recogonise accidental intra-arterial injeciton?

A
  • Pain and discomfort on injection
  • Expected physiological response to drug not seen
  • Pallor/paraesthesia/hyperaemia of limb distal to injection site
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11
Q

What is the pathophysiology of arterial drug injection injury?

A
  • Arterial spasm due to release of vasoactive substances of direct action of drug
  • Risk of drug precipitation and crystal formation with ischaemia and thrombosis
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12
Q

What are the goals of managing inadvertant intra-arterial injection?

A
  • Identify the drug administered to risk stratify
  • Maintain perfusion distal to site of injury
  • Analgesia
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13
Q

What is the management of inadvertant intra-arterial injection?

A
  • Analgesia: as needed
  • Maintain perfusion: consider anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis, elevate arm to improve venous drainage, keep art line in to monitor perfusion to arm
  • If prior to operation, observe for period of time and monitor for ischaemia
  • If concerns then plastic referral
  • Open disclosure
  • M+M
  • Refer to complication database
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14
Q

What is a useful structure talking about crticial inductions?

A

-Opening statement labelling it as a critical induction
- Outlining priorities
- Management A -> E
- With C - focus on rate/rhythm/afterload/preload/contractility
- Discuss monitoring/access/drugs for circulation
- Defending sinus rhythm important in some conditions -> with esmolol or shock if unstable

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15
Q

What are the ECG changes with RV strain?

A
  • Dominant R wave V1
  • Dominant S wave V6
  • ST changes
  • Right axis deviation
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16
Q

What are the cardiac aims in cardiac tamponade?

A
  • Maintain SR
  • High normal HR - increased filling time won’t help as filling is pressure dependent rather than time
  • Increase preload
  • Maintain normal Afterload
  • Maintain contractility
17
Q

What are neuroprotective mechanisms?

A
  • A - Avoid coughing/straining
  • B - Normal O2 sats, low/normal CO2
  • C - normal BP
  • D - decreased CMRO2 eg thiopentone, anti-epileptics
  • E - Avoid tight neck ties etc, normothermia, head up 30 degrees
  • F - Na high normal, normal glucose
18
Q

What are causes of delayed emergence?

A

Patient:
- metabolic disturbances eg hypo/hyper Na, hypoglycaemia, Mg, Ca
- Hypothermia
- Coingestion of sedating agents
- Pathology: Seizures, stroke

Anaesthetic:
- Residual anaesthetic
- Residual paralysis
- Opioid narcosis
- Benzodiazepine overdose
- Abnormal vitals eg hypotension, hypoxia
- LAST

Surgical:
- Direct surgical injury to blood supply of brain
- Positioning related injury to neck vessels/blood supply

19
Q

What are the priorities in a theatre fire?

A
  1. Identify and communicate crisis
  2. Ensure self, patient and staff safety –> evacuate
  3. contain +/- extinguish fire
20
Q

What is the management of a fire in theatre area (not intraop)?

A
  • Confirm fire
  • Declare crisis
  • Extinguish small flames with water and fire extinguisher, remove flammable material such as drapes
  • R: rescue, listen to fire warden, evacuate pt with prop infusion, laerdel bag, surgical packing, portable monitoring
  • A : Alarm
  • C: Confine , shut theatre doors after evacuation, turn off medical gases
  • E: extinguish flames using fire extinguisher
  • Post review patient for injuries and temporise/complete surgery, review staff for injury
21
Q

What is awareness?

A

Explicit awareness is explicit recall of intraoperative events after completion of general anaesthesia

22
Q

What are risk factors for awareness?

A

Patient:
- younger adults but not children
- Obesity
- Chronic substance use
- Previous awareness

Anaesthetic:
- Difficult airway
- Use of neuromuscular blockers
- Junior anaesthetic provider
- TIVA

Surgical:
- Emergency surgery
- Cardiac, neurosurgery, obstetric
- Evening/night surgery

23
Q

What are the strategies to minimise risk of awareness?

A
  • History - explore details of previous awareness, obtain previous anaesthetic records
  • Vigilance - check equipment and drugs, give repeat bolus in difficult airways, intraop vigiliance with signs of lightening eg tachycardia/BIS changes
  • Anaesthetic technique: benzodiazepine, adequate induction and maintainence doses, depth of anaesthesia monitoring, avoid TIVA, ensure reliable IV access, continous etSevo monitoring, rationalise use of NMB
  • Emergence: avoid lightening plane of anaesthesia prior to reversal, use twitcher, use of suggamadex
24
Q

What are risk factors for PONV?

A

Patient: - age 3-50, female, non smoker, hx motion sickness, hx of PONV

Anaesthetic: long anaesthetic, volatile anaesthetics, N20, large doses of opioids, emetigenic drugs eg ergometrine, general anaesthetic vs regional

Surgical: types of surgery eg inner ear, neurosurgery, bowel surgery, laparoscopic surgery

25
What are strategies to prevent PONV?
Anaesthetic techniques: Regional rather than GA, TIVA, avoid nitrous, use volatile sparing i.e Titrate to BIS, mixed TIVA/gas Pharmacological: Multi-modal anti-emetics (5ht3, steroids, dopamine antagonist, NK-1 antagonist, antihistamines), Multi-modal analegesia (limit pain and opioid related nausea) Other: IV hydration
26
What are causes of awareness?
- Patient: increased anaesthetic requirement (pre op drug use) too unwell for adequate dosing Anaesthetic: - Inadequate anaesthesia: clinician error with dosing on induction or maintainence - Failure of delivery: equipment error (Loss of IV, pump error or programming error) user error with pump i.e distracted, didn't start Surgical: - time pressure or emergency surgery not allowing adequate induction of anaesthesia
27
What are the clinical signs of cardiac tamponade?
Muffled heart sounds Hypotension Raised CVP (swollen neck veins)
28
What are ECG changes of cardiac tamponade?
- Low Voltage QRS, electrical alternans, global ST elevation
29
What are echocardiogram signs of tamponade?
- Visible pericardial effusion - Diastolic collapse of right atrium and ventricle (collapse happens when chambers are at their lowest pressures)
30
What are the types of nerve injuries that can occur?
Neurapraxia: injury to myelin only -> normally full recovery Axonotmesis: Injury to axon and myelin -> variable recovery Neurotmesis: complete transection of nerve -> needs microsurgery
31
What are risk factors for peripheral nerve injuries?
Patient: Obesity, T2DM, smoking, PVD, HTN, pre-op contractures/deformities Anaesthetic: Regional technique without USS, prolonged hypotension/hypoxia/hypothermia Surgical: Surgical inexperience, prolonged tourniquet time, post op haematoma, constrictive post op dressings
32
What is the pathophysiology of peripheral nerve injuries?
- Stretch - Compression - Generalised ischaemia - Metabolic derrangement
33
What is the optimal supine positioning?
- Head neutral -> rotation puts stretch on brachial plexus - Arm abducted <90 degrees - Forearm supinated - Head facing abducted arm
34
What are the changes with head down positioning?
- A: Risk of regurgitation - B : Loss of FRC, atelectasis, V/Q mismatch - C - Intracranial hypertension - D - Raised ICP, raised intra-ocular pressure
35
What are some risks of lithotomy positioning?
- Increased VR from legs -> risk of cardiac overload - Risk of nerve injury from hip flexion (sciatic and obturator nerves) - Risk of nerve injury from direct compression of distal legs eg common/deep perinoeal nerve and saphenous nerve - Calf compression --> risk of DVT
36
What are some risks of lateral positioning?
- V/Q mismatch (dependent lung gets overperfused and under ventilated and vice versa) - Ocular injuries from abrasions - Axillary roll to support the thorax and protect the neurovascular bundle in the axilla from compression (at least 2 fingers breadth gap between it and the axilla) - Padding between legs to prevent pressure from the legs on each other
37
What is the correct way to position supine patients?
- Minimal neck flexion/extension - Face in soft head ring with no pressure on eyes and nose - Shoulder with a little bit of anterior flexion, abducted and externally rotated less than 90 degrees - Elbow padded - No pressure in the axilla - abdomen free from pressure (can cause IVC compression and decreased VR)
38
When should tryptases be taken in a patient with anaphylaxis?
0,1,4,24 hrs