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Criminal Law & Procedure - MBE Flashcards

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1
Q

***Elements of a Crime

A

Prosecution must prove ALL elements of a crime beyond a reasonable doubt:

1) Physical Act (actus reus);
2) Mental State (mens rea;
3) Causation (both actual and proximate cause);
AND
4) Concurrence (mental state and physical act occur at the same time).

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2
Q

**Physical Act

A

(actus reus) of the D must be voluntary

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3
Q

**Omission

A

is generally NOT criminal unless:

1) D had a legal duty to act;
2) D had knowledge of facts concerning the duty to act; AND
3) It was reasonably possible for D to act.

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4
Q

**Duty to Act

A
  • Contractual duty, party-child relationship, duty taken on voluntarily, statute creates a duty, OR when D creates the danger.
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5
Q

***Causation

A

Requires both:

1) Actual Causation; AND
2) Proximate Cause.

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6
Q

***Actual Causation

A

Present when the result/injury would not have occurred “but for” the D’s conduct.

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7
Q

***Proximate Cause

A
  • Injury must be foreseeable from D’s act (it was natural probable consequence).
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8
Q

***Superseding Intervening Cuse

A
  • A third-party’s act will break the chain of causation if the act was:
    1) Independent; AND
    2) Not foreseeable - it’s so out-of-the-ordinary that it’s not fair to hold D liable for the crime.
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9
Q

***Mental States

A

The intent element of a crime (mens rea).

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10
Q

***Common Law Mental States

A
  • Specific Intent - intent or desire to engage in the conduct or cause a certain result.
  • General Intent - awareness of acting in a certain way.
  • Malice - reckless disregard of a known risk that harm may occur.
  • Strict Liability - no mental state required; only the act is required.
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11
Q

***PURPOSEFULLY

Model Penal Code - Mental State

A
  • Conscious object to engage in conduct or cause a certain result.
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12
Q

***KNOWINGLY

Model Penal Code - Mental State

A

Aware that conduct is of a particular nature or will cause a certain result.

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13
Q

***RECKLESSLY

Model Penal Code - Mental State

A

Consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk and act is a GROSS DEVIATION from how a reasonable person would act.

  • OR when a persona creates such a risk, but is unaware of it solely by reason of voluntary intoxication.
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14
Q

***CRIMINAL NEGLIGENCE

Model Penal Code - Mental State

A
  • Should have been aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk and that failure is a gross deviation from the standard of care.
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15
Q

***WILLFUL BLINDNESS STANDARD
(majority of states)
Model Penal Code - Mental State

A
  • A person is deemed to act KNOWINGLY when he is:
    a) aware that certain facts are highly probable; OR
    b) Intentionally ignorant to certain facts.

*Knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.

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16
Q

***Murder

Common Law and 2nd Degree Murder

A
  • Murder is the:
    (1) unlawful killing,
    (2) of a person,
    (3) with malice aforethought.
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17
Q

***Malice Aforethought

A

(a) Intent to kill,
(b) intent to inflict great bodily harm,
(c) reckless disregard of an extreme risk to human life (depraved-heart murder), OR
(d) intent to commit an inherently dangerous felony (felony murder rule).

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18
Q

Common Law - 1st Degree Murder

A

The killing was deliberate AND premeditated.

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19
Q

***Model Penal Code MURDER

A

Killing of a person committed:
(a) purposefully or knowingly;
OR
(b) reckless under circumstances manifesting an extreme indifference to the value of human life.

  • Felony Murder Rule –> Recklessness is presumed for robbery, rape, arson, burglary and kidnapping.
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20
Q

***Voluntary Manslaughter

A
  • Intentional killing of a person with adequate provocation.

Adequate provocation =
(1) D was provoked (sudden and intense passion causing a loss of control;
(2) a reasonable person would have been provoked;
(3) not enough time to cool off;
AND
(4) D in fact did not cool off.

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21
Q

*** Involuntary Manslaughter

A

Unintentional Killing of a person committed:
a) recklessly;
b) under the misdemeanor-murder rule;
c) during a non-dangerous felony;
OR
d) with criminal negligence (in some states).

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22
Q

***Model Penal Code - Manslaughter

A

Killing of a person committed:

a) recklessly; OR
b) committed under the influence of extreme mental or emotional disturbance for which there is a reasonable explanation or excuse.

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23
Q

***Theft Crimes

A
  • Larceny
  • Larceny by Trick
  • False Pretenses
  • Embezzlement
  • Receiving Stolen Property
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24
Q

***Larceny

A

(1) Trespassory taking,
(2) and carrying away,
(3) of the personal property of another,
(4) with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property (intent must exist at the time of taking).

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25
Q

***Larceny by Trick

A
  • Obtain possession (not title) of the personal property of another by trick or deception.
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26
Q

***False Pretenses

A

(1) Obtain title,
(2) to personal property of another,
(3) through an intentional false statement of material fact,
(4) with intent to defraud.

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27
Q

***Embezzlement

A

(1) fraudulent or wrongful,
(2) conversion,
(3) of personal property of another,
(4) by a person with lawful possession of property.

  • Intent to PERMANENTLY DEPRIVE the lawful owner of the property is required.
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28
Q

***Receiving Stolen Property

A
  • when a person:
    (1) receives possession of stolen property,
    (2) who knows the property is stolen when receiving it,
    (3) with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property.
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29
Q

**Robbery

A

is the:

(1) trespassory taking and carrying away,
(2) of the personal property of another,
(3) in their presence,
(4) by the use of force or threat of immediate physical harm,
(5) with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property.

  • Armed Robbery = above elements + the use of a dangerous weapon.
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30
Q

***Burglary

A

Is the:

(1) breaking and entering,
(2) of a dwelling,
(3) of another,
(4) at night,
(5) for the purpose of committing a felony inside.

  • Most jurisdictions extent burglary to include breaking into any structure at any time.
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31
Q

**Rape - Common Law

A

Rape is the:

(1) unlawful sexual intercourse,
(2) of a woman by a man (not her husband),
(3) without her consent.

  • Modern definition –> includes marital rape (in most states) and makes gender irrelevant.
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32
Q

**Rape - Model Penal Code

A

A male who has sex with a female (not his wife) is guilty of rape if:
(a) he compels her by force/threat of imminent death, serious bodily injury, extreme pain, or kidnapping;
(b) he secretly drugs her;
(c) female is unconscious;
OR
(d) female is less than 10 years old.

  • Deviate Sexual Intercourse –> has same elements as above, but is gender neutral.
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33
Q

***Statutory Rape

A

Is the:

(1) unlawful sexual intercourse,
(2) with a person,
(3) under the age of consent (as defined by statute).

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34
Q

**Battery

A

Is the:

(1) unlawful application of force,
(2) directly or indirectly upon another person or their close personal belongings,
(3) resulting in injury or offensive contact.

  • Battery is a general intent crime.
  • Intent to cause injury is NOT required.
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35
Q

**Assault

A

Either:
(a) an attempted battery,
OR
(b) the intentional creation of a reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm to a person.

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36
Q

**Kidnapping

A

Is the:

(1) confining, restraining, or moving of a person,
(2) without authority of law.

Model Penal Code
Abducting another person:
(a) for ransom;
(b) to facilitate a felony;
(c) to inflict bodily injury or terrorize;
OR
(d) to interfere with a govt/political function.

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37
Q

**False Imprisonment

A

Is the:

(1) unlawful,
(2) confinement of a person,
(3) against their will,
(4) with knowledge that the restriction is unlawful.

Model Penal Code:
When D knowingly restrains a person unlawfully so as to substantially interfere with the person’s liberty.

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38
Q

**Arson

A

Is the:

(1) malicious,
(2) burning,
(3) of a dwelling,
(4) of another.

*Majority of States –> includes damages (i) caused by explosives, and (ii) to other types of buildings and vehicles.

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39
Q

**Criminal Possession

A

The unlawful possession of an item according to statute (i.e. weapon, drugs).

  • To be found guilty, usually need both:
    (1) knowledge of the possession;
    AND
    (2) knowledge of what the item is.
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40
Q

**Attempt

A

When a person:
(1) had specific intent to commit a crime,
AND
(2) took an overt act sufficiently beyond mere preparation (most states and MPC = a substantial step; minority of states = proximate or dangerously proximate).

  • Attempt merges with the underlying crime.
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41
Q

**Abandonment/Withdrawal Defense:

A

-Most States –> NOT. a defense once D has taken a substantial step toward the crime (conduct beyond mere preparation).

  • Minority States and MPC –> Abandonment BEFORE the completion of the crime is an affirmative defense if:
    1) D voluntarily renounces his criminal purpose;
    AND
    2) Completely abandons the effort to commit the crime or otherwise prevents its commission.
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42
Q

**Conspiracy

A

Is a specific intent crime, and requires:
1) An express/implied AGREEMENT BETWEEN 2 OR MORE PERSONS;
2) INTENTt to enter into an agreement;
3) INTENT TO PURSUE an unlawful objective (common law = all parties; MPC and modern trend = only require one party’s intent);
AND
4) Commission of an OVERT ACT in furtherance of the unlawful objective (any act taken by a co-conspirator is sufficient).

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43
Q

**A conspirator is liable for the conspiracy, PLUS…

A

…all foreseeable crimes committed by co-conspirators in furtherance of the unlawful objective.

WITHDRAWAL is NOT a defense for the conspiracy, but it is a defense for crimes committed by co-conspirators after the withdrawal.

44
Q

**Solicitation

A

Elements:
1) D requests another person to commit a crime (or join in the commission of a crime);
2) With specific intent that the crime be committed;
AND
3) The other person receives the request.

*Solicitation merges with the substantive crime.

Renunciation - is an affirmative defense if Defendant:
1) voluntarily and completely renounces,
AND
2) Prevents the commission of the crime.

45
Q

**Accomplice Liability

A

An accomplice is one who:
1) Aids, abets, or facilitates the commission of the crime;
AND
2) Has dual intent (intent to assist the primary party, AND intent that the crime be committed).

An accomplice is liable for all crimes he committed AND all foreseeable crimes committed by the primary party.
- Merely being present or knowing a crime will result DOES NOT create
accomplice liability.
- Cannot be convicted if D is a member of a class protected by the
Criminal Law.
- Minority of states DO NOT allow accomplice liability for involuntary
manslaughter.

46
Q

**Withdrawal

A

Is a defense if D withdraws BEFORE the crimes becomes unstoppable, and requires:

1) repudiating (refuse) the encouragement given; and
2) neutralizing any assistance.

47
Q

**Duress

A

Is an affirmative defense, and excuses D’s conduct if it was the result of:
1) a threat of imminent death or serious bodily injury,
2) to the D or another,
AND
3) D reasonably believed he was unable to avoid the harm by non-criminal conduct.

*Most states –> duress defense is NOT available for intentional killings.

48
Q

***Insanity

A

D must have a mental disease or defect, PLUS:

– M’Naghten Test –> D is (a) unable to know the wrongfulness of his conduct, OR (b) unable to understand the nature and quality of his acts.

– MPC TEST –> D was (a) unable to appreciate the criminality of his conduct, OR (b) unable to conform his actions to the law.

– Irresistible Impulse Test –> D’s mental illness made him (a) unable to control his actions, OR (b) unable to conform his actions to the law.

– Durham Test –> D’s unlawful conduct was the product of mental illness.

**most states use the M’Naghten or MPC test.

49
Q

**Self-Defense

A

Is a complete defense to a crime.

Non-Deadly Force –> justified when:

(1) D reasonably believes,
(2) that he’s in imminent danger of being harmed.

Deadly Force –> justified when:
(1) D kills based on a reasonable belief,
(2) that he was in imminent danger of being killed (or suffering great bodily injury),
AND
(3) the use of deadly force was necessary.

50
Q

**Self-defense - Minority states

A

D has a DUTY TO RETREAT before deadly force may be used.

 - BUT, D has no duty to retreat when:
 (a) no opportunity to retreat,
 (b) he could not retreat safely; OR
 (c) if attacked in his own home.
51
Q

**Self-defense - aggressor

A

An aggressor may only use force in self-defense if:
(a) he withdraws and communicates it;
OR
(b) the other person escalates the fight with deadly force and withdrawal is not possible.

52
Q

**Imperfect Self-Defense

A

Mitigates murder to voluntary manslaughter when:

(1) D kills based on a good faith belief of self-defense,
(2) BUT such belief was unreasonable.

53
Q

**Voluntary Intoxication

A

Ingesting an intoxicating substance by D’s own free will.

- ONLY a defense to specific intent crimes.

54
Q

**Involuntary Intoxication

A

Ingesting an intoxicating substance without knowledge or by force.

  • Is a defense to ALL crimes –> use same test for an insanity defense.
55
Q

**Mistake of Fact

A

Is a defense if it negates the mental state required for the crime.

56
Q

**Mistake of Law

A

generally NOT a defense.

57
Q

**Govt Action

A

4th Amend. grants a person protection from unlawful GOVERNMENT searches and seizures.
- Acts by private individuals are NOT protected.

58
Q

**Standing

A

Is required to challenge a search. Person MUST have a reasonable expectation of privacy regarding the place or item searched.

 - Reasonable expectation of privacy = that which they own or possess (applies to overnight guest spaces).
59
Q

**Sup Ct has held NO privacy rights for:

A

(1) paint scrapings taken from a car,
(2) bank account records;
(3) anything visible from public airspace;
(4) garbage left on the curb;
(5) the sound of one’s voice;
(6) odors;
(7) handwriting; AND
(8) anything that can be seen in or across areas outside one’s home.

60
Q

**Arrests

A

To be proper, a police office MUST have PROBABLE CAUSE –> trustworthy facts or knowledge, (2) sufficient to warrant a reasonable person to believe, (3) that the person committed a crime.

 - Officer DOES NOT need firsthand knowledge (it may be based on 
   informant's information).
 - An arrest in/at someone's home requires a warrant (unless exigent 
   circumstances).
61
Q

**Request for Information

A

Allowed anytime except on “whim or caprice.”

62
Q

**Stop and Inquire

A

Police must have (1) a reasonable articulable suspicion, (2) that criminal activity is afoot.

 - Allows a brief detention for questioning.
63
Q

**Stop and Frisk

A 
Police must have:
(1) a reasonable articulable suspicion,
(2) that criminal activity is afoot,
AND
(3) that the person has a weapon.
 - Plain Feel Doctrine --> during the frisk, police may only seize items reasonably believed to be contraband or a weapon.
64
Q

**Reasonable Suspicion

A

Quantum of knowledge sufficient to induce an ordinarily prudent and cautious person to believe that criminal activity is at hand.

65
Q

**Seizure

A

When a reasonable person would have believed that he was NOT free to leave.

66
Q

***Warrant Requirement

A

A warrant is required for all searches and seizures UNLESS and exception applies

67
Q

***Valid search warrant requires:

A

1) PROBABLE CAUSE- reliable info that evidence of illegality will be found;
2) It must state with PARTICULARITY the place and items to be searched/seized;
AND
3) Be issued by a NEUTRAL AND DETACHED MAGISTRATE.

Evidence obtained without a valid warrant is excluded UNLESS it falls under an exception.

68
Q

**Exceptions to Warrant Requirement

A

1) Plain View Doctrine
2) Exigent Circumstances
3) Automobile Exception
4) Search Incident to Arrest
5) Consent
6) Inventory Search
7) Stop & Frisk
8) Special Need

69
Q

** Plain View Doctrine - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Police may seize items if:
1) observed in PLAIN VIEW (with any of the 5 senses),
2) from a place LAWFULLY PERMITTED TO BE,
AND
3) PROBABLE CAUSE exists to believe the items are evidence of a crime or contraband.

70
Q

**Exigent Circumstances - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Allows a warrantless search if:
a) evidence is EVANESCENT (it will dissipate or disappear);
b) it’s necessary to prevent the IMMINENT DESTRUCTION OF EVIDENCE;
c) the police are in HOT PURSUIT OF A FELON and evidence is in plain view;
OR
d) the EMERGENCY AID EXCEPTION applies.

71
Q

** Automobile Exception - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Allows a warrantless search if probable cause exists that CONTRABAND/EVIDENCE OF A CRIME will be found in the vehicle.

  • Police can search entire vehicle, PLUS packages, luggage containers that may reasonably contain the items for which there is probable cause.
  • In order to search after a traffic stop –> police need probable cause PRIOR to the search.
72
Q

** Search Incident to Arrest - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Police may search a suspect’s person + “wingspan”

 - If arrested in an automobile --> wingspan includes the passenger's compartment and any containers found in the car (if reason to believe it contains contraband).
73
Q

**Consent - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Must be given FREELY, VOLUNTARILY, AND INTELLIGENTLY.

 - A third-person with authority MAY consent.
 - If 2 or more people share authority --> any one of them may consent, but police cannot search private areas (that only the non-consenting person has authority to give [i.e. private bedroom]).
74
Q

** Inventory Search - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Allows a warrantless search when a person is INCARCERATED OR for an IMPOUNDED VEHICLE

 - Inventory search must be: 
   (1) reasonable, 
   AND
   (2) conducted pursuant to established police agency procedures (that 
   are designed to meet the legitimate objectives of the search while 
   limiting the discretion of the officer in the field).
75
Q

** Stop and Frisk - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A 
Police must have:
(1) a reasonable articulable suspicion,
(2) that criminal activity is afoot,
AND
(3) that the person has a weapon.
 - Plain View Doctrine --> during the frisk, police may only seize items reasonably believed to be contraband or a weapon.
76
Q

** Special Need - Exception to Warrant Requirement

A

Applies in very limited circumstances

77
Q

** A Confession may be excluded…

A

…at trial under the 5th, 6th, and/or 14th Amendments of the U.S. Constitution.

78
Q

**Due Process Clause (14th Amend).

A

It’s a violation of D’s rights if a confession is the product of POLICE COERCION THAT OVERBEARS THE SUSPECT’S FREE WILL.

 - Police MAY used coercive conduct (i.e. lying), as long as it doesn't overcome D's free will.
79
Q

***Privilege Against Self-Incrimination (5th Amend).

A

Protects the right to not incriminate oneself.

80
Q

***Miranda Rights

A

Attach when a suspect is in a CUSTODIAL INTERROGATION.

 - Police must give Miranda warnings ->
 (1) right to remain silent,
 (2) anything said can be used against suspect in court,
 (3) right to talk to an attorney and have one present when they are 
     questioned, 
 AND
 (4) if cannot afford and attorney, one will be provided.

*Statements made in violation of a suspect’s Miranda rights are subject to the Exclusionary Rule.

81
Q

***Custodial Interrogation:

A
  • Custody = the person reasonably believes they are NOT free to leave.
  • Interrogation = police knew (or should have known) they were likely to elicit an incriminating response.
82
Q

***Statements/Acts Protected

A
  • Only protects statements and acts that are COMMUNICATIVE OR TESTIMONIAL IN NATURE.
  • Crying is NOT a testimonial communication.
  • Miranda rights DO NOT apply to spontaneous statements.
83
Q

***Public Safety Exception

A
  • a limited interrogation without Miranda warnings IS ALLOWED when police ask questions reasonably prompted by a public safety concern OR safety of the officer (i.e. to secure a weapon).
84
Q

***Invoking Miranda Rights

A

It must be CLEAR AND UNAMBIGUOUS

  • Once invoked, police must stop ANY questioning. Additionally, D’s silence CANNOT be commented on at trial.
85
Q

***Police may reinitiate questioning if:

A

1) Suspect is re-advised of his Miranda rights;
2) Has provided a knowing and intelligent waive;
AND
3) Either (a) counsel is present; (b) suspect initiates communication;
OR (c) 14-days have passed since the suspect was released from custody.

86
Q

***Waiver of Rights

A

a valid waiver must be made knowingly, intelligently, AND voluntarily.

  • D must understand the nature of the right being waived and the consequence for waiving it.
  • Police failure to provide outside info DOES NOT invalidate a waiver (unless the info was essential to d’s ability to waive rights).
87
Q

**Right to Counsel (6th A)

A

The accused has the right to counsel in ALL criminal prosecutions (except State misdemeanor prosecutions that do not carry a risk of jail time).

88
Q

**Right to Counsel (6th A) attaches once…

A

…formal adversarial judicial proceedings are commenced (formal charge, preliminary hearing, indictment, arraignment).

  • Once rights attach, a suspect CANNOT be questioned without a lawyer, and anything said is inadmissible (unless a valid waiver occurs).
  • This right is offense-specific.
89
Q

**Waiver of Rights

A
  • Same as waiver under 5th Amendment
90
Q

***Right to counsel (5th A)

SEE RULE IN “RIGHT TO COUNSEL (6TH A).

A
  • Attaches when a suspect is in a custodial interrogation (Miranda rights).
  • Suspect has the right to consult with an attorney and have one present during questioning.
91
Q

**Effective Assistance of Counsel (6th A).

A

D has the right to effective assistance of counsel.

  • Includes the effective aid in preparation AND trial of a criminal case.
92
Q

** Ineffective Assistance of Counsel

A

D must show:

1) Counsel’s performance was deficient,
AND
2) But for the deficiency, the result would be different.

*If shown, the verdict MUST be reversed, and D is entitled to a new trial.

93
Q

**Line-Ups and Police-Arranged Identification Procedures

A

Due Process Clause (14th Amend) –> violated when a line-up is (1) unnecessarily suggestive, (2) resulting in a substantial likelihood of misidentification.

 - If violated --> identification is inadmissible at trial.
94
Q

**Independent Source Rule

A

An in-court identification is admissible at trial (even if a line-up is tainted) when it’s:
1) based on a witness’s previous knowledge;
2) trustworthy;
AND
3) based on a previous transaction (i.e. the crime).

95
Q

** Right to Counsel (6th A)

Line-Ups and Police-Arranged Identification Procedures

A

A person has the right to counsel at a post-charge line-up.

 - No right to counsel under 6th A at pre-trial charge line-up or photo-identification.
96
Q

**Miranda Rights (5th A)

Line-Ups and Police-Arranged Identification Procedures

A

Pre-trial identifications (line-ups, photo identifications), blood tests, fingerprints, and voice identifications are NOT protected by the 5th Amendment.

  • A suspect in custody cannot refuse to participate in a line-up.
97
Q

***Exclusionary Rule

A

Evidence obtained in violation of D’s 4th, 5th, or 6th Amendment rights is INADMISSIBLE at trial.

  • All derivative evidence is also inadmissible under the fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine.
98
Q

***Exclusionary Rule Exceptions

Exclusionary Rule DOES NOT apply if:

A

a) Police had an INDEPENDENT SOURCE for the secondary evidence;
b) Discovery of evidence was INEVITABLE regardless of the illegality;
c) Through the ATTENUATION DOCTRINE –> when D’s free will is restored through passage of time or intervening events;
OR
d) Police RELIED IN GOOD FAITH on a defective warrant.

99
Q
  • **Limitations on Miranda Violations

- Exclusionary Rule

A

In addition to the above, the following limitations apply to Miranda violations:

  • Limitation #1 –> Not required to suppress the PHYSICAL EVIDENCE FOUND because of D’s statements (as long as statement was voluntary).
  • Limitation #2 –> SUBSEQUENT STATEMENTS MADE AFTER MIRANDA WARNINGS are admissible UNLESS a previous was obtained through the use of inherently coercive police tactics offensive to Due Process.
  • Limitation #3 –> Statements in violation of Miranda may be USED TO IMPEACH D ON CROSS-EXAMINATION.
100
Q

**Right to Jury Trial

A

6th Amend. guarantees a criminal defendant the right to a jury trial for offenses where IMPRISONMENT IS GREATER THAN 6 MONTHS.

 - Minimum of 6 jurors is required, and a verdict normally must be 
   unanimous
 - Any fact (other than a prior conviction) that increases the maximum 
   penalty for a crime MUST be submitted to a jury and proven beyond a 
   reasonable doubt.
101
Q

**Competence to Stand Trial

A

D is competent to stand trial if he has:
1) a SUFFICIENT PRESENT ABILITY TO CONSULT WITH HIS LAWYER (able to assist in preparing a defense)
AND
2) A RATIONAL AND FACTUAL UNDERSTANDING OF PROCEEDINGS.

*D cannot be tried if deemed incompetent (but competence can be reassessed at a later date).

102
Q

**Double Jeopardy

A

Prevents a D from being prosecuted twice for the “same offense.”

  • Under Blockburger Test –> two crimes are NOT the “same offense” if EACH CRIME REQUIRES PROOF OF A FACT WHICH THE OTHER DOES NOT.
  • A FINAL JUDGMENT ON A LESSER OFFENSE bars prosecution of a greater offense on the same facts UNLESS the greater offense:
    (a) did not exist at the time of trial,
    OR
    (b) was not discovered despite due diligence.
103
Q

**Jeopardy Attaches

A

When a jury is impaneled and sworn.

Exceptions:
(1) hung jury,
(2) manifest necessity exists to end the trial,
OR
(3) trial is terminated at D’s request and it’s not an acquittal on the merits.

104
Q

***Burden of Proof

A

Prosecution MUST prove every element of a crime BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT.

  • Burden of proof CANNOT be shifted to D.
  • Making D prove affirmative defenses is allowed.
105
Q

***Presumption for Jury Instructions - 2 Types

A

1) Rebuttable Presumption ( one that may be disputed or overcome by additional evidence) –> violates the Due Process Clause if it shifts the burden of proof to D.
2) Irrebuttable Presumption (one that cannot be disputed or overcome) –> is a per se violation of the Due Process clause.

106
Q

***Sufficiency of Evidence

A
  • A court MUST enter a Judgment of Acquittal if the EVIDENCE IS INSUFFICIENT TO SUSTAIN A CONVICTION (when a reasonable jury would not find that each element was proven beyond a reasonable doubt).
    • D may move for a Judgment of Acquittal either:
      (a) at the close of its case-in-chief;
      (b) after the close of all evidence.
107
Q

**Harmless Error Rule

A
  • Even if evidence is improperly admitted at trial, a guilty verdict will stand if the Prosecution can prove that the ERROR WAS HARMLESS (that D would have been convicted anyway).

Bar (8 decks)

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