Criminal law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What three things are necessary for an omission to be an act?

A

(1) There is a specific duty to act imposed by law;
(2) The defendant has knowledge of the facts giving rise to the duty to act; and
(3) It is reasonably possible to perform the duty

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2
Q

What are the ways a legal duty to act can arise?

A

(1) By statute
(2) By contract
(3) Relationship between the parties
(4) Voluntary assumption of care by defendant for the victim
(5) Creation of peril for the victim by the defendant

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3
Q

When is “possession” an act?

A

Defendant has control of the item for long enough period to have an opportunity to terminate the possession. This need not be exclusive to one person.

Defendant must be aware of possession, but need not be aware of its illegality. But, must know identity of item possessed. No conscious avoidance.

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4
Q

What are the specific intent crimes?

A

Solicitation, Attempt, Conspiracy, Forgery, Assault, Burglary, Robbery, Larceny, First Degree Murder, Embezzlement, False Pretenses

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5
Q

What is a strict liability crime?

A

Any defense that negates intent cannot be a defense because these are NO intent crimes.

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6
Q

Mental states under the Model Penal Code

A

Purposely: when it is his conscious objective to engage in certain conduct or cause a certain result.

Knowingly: when he is aware that his conduct will very likely cause the result.

Recklessly: when he consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk.

Negligently: when he fails to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk.

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7
Q

What are the requirements for accomplice liability?

A

Intent that the crime be committed and aiding and abetting that crime. Aiding and abetting means anyone who aids, advises, or encourages the principal in the commission of the crime.

Accomplices are liable for the crime itself and for all other foreseeable crimes.

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8
Q

How can an accomplice withdraw?

A

If the person repudiates the encouragement. If giving assistance to the principal, the person must do everything possible to neutralize the assistance, such as attempting to retrieve materials. An alternate means of withdrawing is to contact the police.

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9
Q

What is solicitation?

A

Solicitation consists of inciting, counseling, advising, urging, or commanding another to commit a crime, with the intent that the person solicited commit the crime. It is not necessary that the person solicited respond affirmatively.

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10
Q

What is conspiracy?

A

Requires: (1) an agreement between two or more persons; (2) an intent to enter into the agreement; and (3) an intent by at least two persons to achieve the objective of the agreement.

A majority of states now require an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.

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11
Q

What can co-conspirators be held liable for?

A

Each co-conspirator is liable for all the crimes of co-conspirators if those crimes were committed in furtherance of the conspiracy and were foreseeable.

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12
Q

What effect does withdrawal have on a defendant’s liability for conspiracy?

A

Withdrawal, even if it is adequate, can never relieve the defendant from liability for the conspiracy itself. the defendant can withdraw from liability for the other conspirators’ subsequent crimes, but not the conspiracy.

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13
Q

How does one withdraw from a conspiracy?

A

By performing an affirmative act giving notification to other conspirators of your intent to withdraw. Notice must be given in time for the members to abandon their plans. Must also try to neutralize any assistance given.

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14
Q

What is the difference between the unilateral (MCP) approach to conspiracy and the bilateral approach?

A

The unilateral approach requires that only one party have genuine criminal intent. Accordingly, a defendant can be convicted of conspiracy if he conspires with one person only and that person is a police officer working undercover. The bilateral approach requires at least two guilty minds. This means that if one person is feigning agreement, the other party cannot be convicted of conspiracy.

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15
Q

What is attempt?

A

Attempt is an ACT, done with intent to a commit a crime, that falls short of completing the crime.

Defendant must intend to perform an act and obtain a result that, if achieved, would constitute a crime.

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16
Q

What is the act requirement for attempt?

A

It must be an overt act in furtherance of the crime. It must be a substantial step in furtherance of the commission of the crime; thus, mere preparation cannot ground liability for attempt.

Old view was “proximity test” – act must be “dangerously close” to successful completion of the crime.

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17
Q

Is abandonment a defense to attempt?

A

Abandonment is not a defense at common law. If defendant had the intent and committed an overt act, she is guilty of attempt despite the fact that she changed her mind and abandoned the plan before the intended crime was completed.

The MPC allows for this defense only if it is FULLY VOLUNTARY and a complete renunciation of criminal purpose.

18
Q

What is criminal battery?

A

Battery is an unlawful application of force to the person of another resulting in either bodily injury or an offensive touching.

Need not be intentional, and the force need not be applied directly.

19
Q

What is criminal assault?

A

Assault is either (i) an attempt to commit a battery or (ii) the intentional creation – other than by mere words – of a reasonable apprehension in the mind of the victim of imminent bodily harm. If there has been an actual touching of the victim, the crime can only be battery, not assault.

20
Q

What is aggravated assault?

A

Aggravated is assault plus either (1) the use of a deadly or dangerous weapon; or (2) with the intent to rape, maim, or murder.

21
Q

What is murder?

A

Murder is the unlawful killing of another human being with malice aforethought. Malice aforethought exists if:

(a) intent to kill; or
(b) intent to inflict a great bodily harm; or
(c) intent to commit a felony; or
(d) reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life.

Defendant’s conduct must be the cause in fact of victim’s death.

Proximate cause – defendant is responsible for all results that occur as a natural and probable consequence of his conduct, even if he didn’t anticipate the exact manner in which they would occur.

22
Q

What are the three forms of murder traditionally constituting first degree murder?

A

Premeditated murder (victim human, defendant acted with intent or knowledge that his conduct would cause death)

Felony murder – any murder committed during course of a (inherently dangerous) felony – deaths must be foreseeable

Homicide of a police officer – defendant must know the victim is a law enforcement officer AND victim must be acting in the line of duty

23
Q

What is traditionally second degree murder?

A

Depraved heart murder – a killing done with reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to the value of human life; or

Murders that are not classified as first-degree murders

24
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

Voluntary manslaughter is a killing that would be murder BUT FOR the existence of adequate provocation. Provocation is adequate only if:

(1) It was provocation that would arouse sudden and intense passion in the mind of an ordinary person, causing him to lose self control;
(2) The defendant was in fact provoked;
(3) There was not sufficient time between provocation and killing for passions of a reasonable person to cool; and
(4) The defendant in fact did not cool off between provocation and the killing.

25
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

A killing is involuntary manslaughter if it was committed with criminal negligence (or by recklessness under the MPC), or, in some states, during the commission of an unlawful act (misdemeanor or felony not included within felony murder rule). Foreseeability of death also may be a requirement.

26
Q

What is the “Year and a Day Rule”?

A

Traditionally, for a defendant to be liable for homicide, the death of the victim must occur within one year and one day from infliction of the injury or wound. Most states that have reviewed this rule have abolished it.

27
Q

What is False Imprisonment?

A

False imprisonment consists of the unlawful confinement of a person without his valid consent. The MPC requires that the confinement must interfere substantially with the victim’s liberty.

28
Q

What is Kidnapping?

A

Unlawful confinement of a person that involves either (i) some movement of the victim, or (ii) concealment of the victim in a “secret” place.

29
Q

What is rape?

A

Traditionally, rape is the unlawful carnal knowledge of a woman by a man, not her husband, without her effective consent. The slightest penetration is sufficient. Lack of effective consent exists where:

(1) Intercourse is accomplished by actual force;
(2) Intercourse accomplished by threats of great and immediate bodily harm;
(3) Victim is incapable of consenting due to unconsciousness, intoxication, or mental condition;
(4) Victim is fraudulently caused to believe that the act is not intercourse.

30
Q

What is statutory rape?

A

This is carnal knowledge of a person under the age of consent; it is not necessary to show lack of consent.

31
Q

What is larceny?

A

The trespassory (without consent or consent induced by fraud) taking and carrying away of personal property of another with the intent to permanently deprive.

32
Q

What is necessary for “intent to permanently deprive?”

A

An intent to create a substantial risk of loss, or an intent to sell or pledge the goods to the owner, is sufficient for larceny. This intent must be present WHEN THE PROPERTY IS TAKEN. NOT satisfied if person believes the property to be his own.

33
Q

What is a continuing trespass?

A

If the defendant wrongfully takes property without the intent to permanently deprive, and later decides to keep the property, she is guilty of larceny when she decides to keep it. HOWEVER, if the original taking was not wrongful and she later decides to keep it, it is not larceny.

34
Q

What is embezzlement?

A

Embezzlement is the fraudulent conversion of personal property of another by a person in lawful possession of that property.

If defendant intends to restore the exact property taken, it is NOT embezzlement. But, if defendant intends to restore similar or substantially similar identical property, it is embezzlement (even if money).

35
Q

What is false pretenses?

A

The offense of false pretenses is obtaining title to person property of another by an intentional false statement of a past or existing fact with intent to defraud the other.

Victim must actually be deceived by, or act in reliance on, the misrepresentation, and this must be a major factor (or sole cause) of the victim passing title to defendant.

36
Q

What is robbery?

A

Robbery consists of a taking or personal property of another from the other person’s person or presence by force or threats of immediate death or physical injury with the intent to permanently deprive him of it.

For defendant to be guilty of robbery, the victim must give up her personal property BECAUSE she feels threatened. If she gives it up for any other reason, it is not robbery. It may be attempted robbery, however.

37
Q

What is extortion?

A

Extortion is knowingly seeking to obtain property or services by means of a future threat. This is different from robbery in that you don’t have to take anything from the person or his presence to be extortion and the threats are of future harm, not imminent harm.

38
Q

What is Receipt of Stolen Property?

A

Receipt of Stolen Property consists of receiving possession and control of stolen personal property, known to have been obtained in a manner constituting a criminal offense, by another person, with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of his interest in it.

39
Q

What is Burglary?

A

Burglary is the breaking and entering of a dwelling of another at night with the intent to commit a felony therein.

Intent to commit a felony must exist at the time of the breaking/entering.

Many modern statutes remove the technicalities of burglary (doesn’t have to be at nighttime, no actual “breaking” required, etc.)

40
Q

What is required for the “breaking” element of burglary?

A

Can be actual (involving force) or constructive. It is not actual breaking to come uninvited through a wide open window or door. If wide open, there is no breaking. BUT, if someone pushes open an interior door to the bedroom or living room, then a breaking exists. A constructive breaking is a breaking by fraud or threat.

Entry occurs when ANY part of the body crosses into the house.

41
Q

What is arson?

A

Arson is the malicious (intentional or with reckless disregard) burning of the dwelling of another.

Charring is sufficient. Scorching is insufficient.