CRAM SHEET 2

Question 1

How often must you re-register aircraft commercially at $5 per UAV?
A. Every year
B. Every 24 months
C. Every 3 years

Answer 1

C. Every 3 years
Explanation: Unmanned aircraft flown not as model aircraft must be registered individually by the owner, and each registration costs $5. Registrants must supply their name, address, and email address, in addition to the make, model, and serial number (if available) for each UAS they want to fly. Each registration is good for a period of three years.

Question 2

Many medications affect the body in ways contrary to safety. Which set of regulations covers the rules regarding medications for pilots?

A. American Medical Association (AMA)
B. Airplane Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA)
C. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)

Answer 2

C. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)

Explanation: This question might feel like a bit of a curveball, but the purpose of it is to test your knowledge of what the FAA’s Code of Federal Regulations has jurisdiction over, in this case the rules regarding medications for pilots.

Question 3

You have questions about the possible effects of flying while using over-the-counter medications. Which resource would you want to consult?

A. Pilot Operating Handbook
B. Aeronautical Information Manual
C. Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

Answer 3

C. Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

Explanation: If you want more information on the possible effects on flying of using over the counter medications, you’ll want to look in the Aeromedical Factors chapter of the Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge.

Question 4

What’s the minimum altitude / lowest elevation of the area depicted by the blue line labeled V71?

A. 700 ft. AGL
B. 1,200 ft. AGL
C. 3,500 ft. AGL

Answer 4

B. 1,200 ft. AGL

Explanation: The blue lines are Victor Airways. On a Sectional Chart, these show up as thick, faded blue lines that run between either two VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) stations, or a VOR and a VOR intersection. Victor Airways are identified by a number, similar to an interstate highway. Victor Airways are always designated as Class E airspace and extend from a base of 1,200 ft. AGL up to 18,000 ft. MSL. That’s why the minimum altitude / lowest elevation as asked in this question will be 1,200 ft. AGL.

Question 5

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

A. Showery precipitation
B. Turbulent air
C. Poor surface visibility

Answer 5

C. Poor surface visibility

Explanation: When an air mass passes over a colder surface, convective currents do not form. Instead, you get a stable air mass that tends to display the following characteristics: stratiform clouds, smooth air, fair-to-poor visibility in haze and smoke, and continuous precipitation.

Question 6

At night, drone pilots and other crew members should use off-center viewing, where you’re _____.

A. looking directly at an object, but for no more than 2-3 seconds at a time
B. looking directly at an object with both eyes, alternating opening and closing your right and left eyes every 2-3 seconds
C. not looking directly at an object. You’ re looking 10? above, below, or to either side of the object

Answer 6

C. not looking directly at an object. You’re looking 10? above, below, or to either side of the object

Explanation: With off-center viewing, you’re not looking directly at an object. You’re looking 10°above, below, or to either side of the object. In this manner, the peripheral vision can maintain contact with an object. It’s kind of like looking up at the stars at night. You can actually see the star more clearly if you don’t look directly at it!

Question 7

What may be used to assist compliance with Part 107 sUAS see-and-avoid requirements?

A. First-person view camera
B. Remote PIC diligence
C. Binoculars

Answer 7

B. Remote PIC diligence
Explanation: To comply with See and Avoid requirements, a Remote PIC cannot use a first-person view camera or binoculars to assist. Only a Remote PIC’s diligence, or own natural unaided eyesight efforts (glasses and contacts are OK) can be used.

Question 8

The Part 107 regulations apply to

A. Recreational unmanned aircraft operations
B. Both civil and public unmanned aircraft operations
C. Civil unmanned aircraft operations

Answer 8

C. Civil unmanned aircraft operations
Explanation: Part 107 explicitly regulates commercial (or civil) sUAS activities. While public agencies like police and fire departments can operate under the Part 107 regulatory framework, the regulations themselves were developed and apply to commercial (or civil) sUAS activities.

Question 9

In which incident would a Remote PIC report an accident?
A. $600 in damage to a fence that has a fair market value of $200
B. $700 in damage to a car that has a fair market value of $14,000
C. The $1,200 UA is totaled

Answer 9

B. $700 in damage to a car that has a fair market value of $14,000

Explanation: As a Remote PIC, you are required to report a qualifying accident to the FAA within 10 days. This is really important. According to the FAA, an accident is defined as: At least serious injury to any person. By serious, they mean injuries like a loss of consciousness, a skin laceration that requires suturing, a broken bone, or head trauma. Damage to any property (other than the small UA) if the cost is greater than $500 to either repair or to replace the property, whichever number is lower. If either of these two conditions is met, the accident report must be made within 10 calendar days of the operation that created the injury or damage. It can either be submitted electronically at https://faadronezone.faa.gov/, by calling your FAA Regional Operations Center (ROC) or by calling or visiting your nearest jurisdictional Flight Standards District Office (FSDO).

Question 10

(Refer to Figure 25, area 4.) What is the floor of Class B airspace at Ft. Worth Alliance (AFW) airport?
A. At the surface
B. 3000 ft. MSL
C. 4000 ft. MSL

Answer 10

C. 4000 ft. MSL

Explanation: This is one of the most complicated Sectional Chart excerpts you’ll encounter. It’s crowded and difficult to interpret. Take your time to first identify where Ft. Worth Alliance (AFW) airport is located. In this closed off part of Class B airspace, indicated by the blue solid lines, we see a fraction that says 110/40, meaning that this part of Class B controlled airspace doesn’t start until 4,000 ft. MSL.

Question 11

What is the ATIS frequency at Corpus Christi Intl airport, and what is ATIS used for?

A. 119.4, and ATIS is a nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which may provide airport information at public use airports where there’s no tower or FSS
B. 126.8, and ATIS is a continuous broadcast of recorded aeronautical information in busier airports
C. 122.95, and ATIS is a continuous broadcast of recorded aeronautical information in busier airports

Answer 11

B. 126.8, and ATIS is a continuous broadcast of recorded aeronautical information in busier airports (Correct)

Explanation: ATIS broadcasts, which are typically broadcast over a discrete very high frequency (VHF) radio frequency, contain essential information, such as weather information, active runways, available approaches, NOTAM, and any other information required by the pilots. Pilots listen to ATIS broadcast information before contacting the local air traffic controller, in order to reduce the controllers’ workload and to prepare their flight. After locating the Corpus Christi Intl airport (CRP) icon on the chart, look for the airport information text next to the icon. Remember that in the testing supplement legend, you’re actually being told exactly where a lot of information is on the Sectional Chart. In this case, if we want to find the ATIS frequency, we can consult the legend. Looking back at Figure 69, the ATIS frequency at Corpus Christi Intl airport (CRP) is 126.8.

Question 12

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

A. weight, thrust, power, and drag.
B. pitch, roll, yaw, and thrust.
C. thrust, drag, weight (gravity), and lift.

Answer 12

C. thrust, drag, weight (gravity), and lift. (Correct)

Explanation: Assuming straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, there are four forces that act upon your aircraft at any given time during flight: thrust (power), drag (Friction), weight (gravity), and lift.

Question 13

What conditions are necessary for a thunderstorm to form?
A. Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover
B. High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions
C. High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds

Answer 13

B. High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions

Explanation: Thunderstorms are produced by cumulonimbus clouds. They form when there is: High Humidity - sufficient water vapor or moisture (Did you know that “nimbus” means rain?); Unstable Conditions - An unstable lapse rate (the lapse rate describes the rate of change of the temperature as the air increases in altitude); and Lifting Force - An initial upward boost to start the process (heat)

Question 14

Density altitude is defined by

A. humidity and braking friction forces.
B. headwind and landing weight.
C. pressure altitude and ambient temperature.

Answer 14

C. pressure altitude and ambient temperature.

Explanation: Density altitude is the altitude relative to the standard atmosphere conditions at which the air density would be equal to the indicated air density at the place of observation. Those standard conditions include pressure altitude and ambient temperature.

Question 15

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

A. lower than pressure altitude.
B. higher than pressure altitude.
C. equal to pressure altitude.

Answer 15

B. higher than pressure altitude.

Explanation: At sea level, standard air temperature is 15º C (59º F), and standard air pressure is 29.92” Hg, or inches of mercury (1013 millibars). At these standard conditions, density altitude and pressure altitude will be equal to each other. If the outside air temperature is warmer than standard air temperature, then the density altitude will be higher than pressure altitude.

Question 16

You see a manned aircraft in the distance while flying your drone at night. On the left, you’re seeing a red light. On the right, you’re seeing a green light. Which direction is the aircraft headed?

A. it depends how bright the lights are
B. its heading towards you
C. its heading away from you

Answer 16

C. its heading away from you

Explanation: Manned aircraft have a red light on the left wing and a green light on the right wing, the rear of the aircraft features a white light. If the red light is on your left, the aircraft is headed away from you.

Question 17

While monitoring the Cooperstown CTAF you hear an aircraft announce that they are midfield left downwind to RWY13. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway?

A. The aircraft is East.
B. The aircraft is South.
C. The aircraft is West.

Answer 17

A. The aircraft is East.

Explanation: You don’t need to reference the chart to answer this question. It’s a red herring and meant to throw you off. Runway 13 is positioned toward 130 degrees, or southeast. This means airplanes will be taking off and landing toward the southeast. In a normal left-hand traffic pattern, if a plane is midfield left downwind RWY 13, it means that the plane is flying parallel to the runway, in the opposite direction (downwind) of the runway, so in this case 310 degrees, or northwest. If the plane is “left downwind” it means that the runway is to the plane’s left. So knowing all of this, if you chart / sketch it out, the plane is to the east of the runway.

Question 18

An aircraft announces, “left downwind for runway one six”. This means that the aircraft is on a heading of

A. 80 degrees.
B. 160 degrees.
C. 340 degrees.

Answer 18

C. 340 degrees.

Explanation: Runway 16 is positioned toward 160 degrees, meaning that when airplanes are taking off or landing, they’re doing so at a heading of 160 degrees. In a normal left-hand traffic

Question 19

What may be used to assist compliance with being able to maintain situational awareness as a remote PIC?

A. First-person view camera
B. Remote PIC diligence
C. Binoculars (Your Answer)(Correct)

Answer 19

C. Binoculars

Explanation: To comply with See and Avoid requirements, a Remote PIC cannot use a first-person view camera or binoculars to assist. Only a Remote PIC’s diligence, or own natural unaided eyesight efforts (glasses and contacts are OK) can be used. Binoculars CAN be used to assist with basic situational awareness, though.

Question 20

Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

A. Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
B. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.
C. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.

Answer 20

C. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.

Explanation: Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision-Making process, relies on situational awareness, problem recognition and good judgment to reduce the risks associated with each flight.

Question 21

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester Flight Service is

A. McAlester Flight Service Station, Hawk Six Six Six Charlie Bravo, Receiving Ardmore Vortac, Over.’
B. McAlester Station, Hawk Six Six Six Cee Bee, Receiving Ardmore Vortac, Over.’
C. McAlester Radio, Hawk November Six Six Six Charlie Bravo, Receiving Ardmore Vortac, Over.’

Answer 21

C. McAlester Radio, Hawk November Six Six Six Charlie Bravo, Receiving Ardmore Vortac, Over.

Explanation: Remember that there are different types of facilities, and that each facility will be addressed a little differently over the radio. In this case, Flight Service is always referred to as Radio, so that’s why the correct answer choice needs to start with McAlester Radio. Another giveaway here is that the N in the N-number of N666CB will be pronounced November.

Question 22

According to 14 CFR Part 107, an sUAS is a unmanned aircraft system weighing:

A. 55 lbs or less
B. Less than 55 lbs
C. 55kg or less

Answer 22

B. Less than 55 lbs

Explanation: As defined in the Part 107 regulations, a ‘small’ unmanned aircraft is one weighing less than 55 pounds, including everything that is onboard or otherwise attached to the aircraft. When an unmanned aircraft weighs 55 pounds or greater, it is no longer classified as ‘small.

Question 23

When operating an aircraft, the Remote PIC is responsible for using
A. weight and balance data from the manufacturer.
B. the most current weight and balance data.
C. the weight and balance data of the last monthly inspection.

Answer 23

B. the most current weight and balance data.

Explanation: Before any flight, the remote PIC should verify that the aircraft is correctly loaded by determining the aircraft’s weight and balance (W&B) condition. It goes without saying that you don’t want to exceed any of the W&B limitations as described by your UA manufacturer. Although a maximum gross takeoff weight may be specified in your UA flight manual, your unmanned aircraft may not always be able to safely take off with this load under all conditions.

Question 24

What should you expect if you see lenticular clouds over a mountain?

A. Light to moderate precipitation
B. The beginning of a thunderstorm
C. Strong turbulence

Answer 24

C. Strong turbulence

Explanation: If you see lenticular clouds, expect turbulence. Wind can be blowing quite strong through lenticular clouds. If you see nimbus clouds, expect precipitation.

Question 25

What is the standard air temperature and pressure at sea level?
A. 15º C 29.92” Hg
B. 59º C 1013 millibars
C. 17º C 1013 millibars

Answer 25

A. 15º C 29.92” Hg

Explanation: At sea level, standard air temperature is 15º C (59º F), and standard air pressure is 29.92” Hg, or inches of mercury (1013 millibars). At these standard conditions, density altitude

Question 26

At night, drone pilots and other crew members should use off-center viewing, where you’re _____.

A. looking directly at an object, but for no more than 2-3 seconds at a time
B. looking directly at an object with both eyes, alternating opening and closing your right and left eyes every 2-3 seconds
C. not looking directly at an object. You’re looking 10? above, below, or to either side of the object

Answer 26

C. not looking directly at an object. You’re looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object

Explanation: With off-center viewing, you’re not looking directly at an object. You’re looking 10°above, below, or to either side of the object. In this manner, the peripheral vision can maintain contact with an object. It’s kind of like looking up at the stars at night. You can actually see the star more clearly if you don’t look directly at it!

Question 27

At night, your eyes don’t work as well when staring directly at an object. Your ____ are concentrated in the center of the retina. And because they only work well in bright light, you have a blind spot in the center of the field of vision.

A. rods
B. cones
C. fovea

Answer 27

B. cones

Explanation: Cones are responsible for color vision and are concentrated highest in the fovea, an area in the back of the retina right in the center of the field of vision. Cones and their associated nerves work better in high light levels, but not in dim light.

Question 28

The correct phonetic for R08TN is
A. ROMEO 0 8 TANGO NOVEMBER
B. ROMEO ZERO AIT TANGO NOVEMBER
C. ROMEO ZERO AIT TANGO NANCY

Answer 28

B. ROMEO ZERO AIT TANGO NOVEMBER

Explanation: Make sure to review the phonetic alphabet! There’s only one right answer to questions like this. In this case, it’s important to know that “N” is pronounced NOVEMBER over the radio.

Question 29

If you lose visual line of sight (VLOS) of your small UAV and don’t regain it, what should you do?

A. Contact the local FAA district office and report it
B. Wait until you see it again and land it
C. Follow pre-determined operating procedures for losing VLOS

Answer 29

C. Follow pre-determined operating procedures for losing VLOS

Explanation: A key part of emergency operations planning is understanding everything that can go wrong during a flight in general and then planning for the specifics of a particular flight mission. If you lose VLOS and cannot regain it, you should have a pre-determined operating procedure. Does your system have a Return-to-Home button? Do you know how it’s programmed, how to trigger it and how to take back control manually if you’re able to regain VLOS? This is the kind of thought process the FAA wants you to go through when approaching risk mitigation and emergency procedures.

Question 30

For operations conducted in Category 1, 2, and 4, sustained flight over an open air assembly is restricted to small unmanned aircraft that

A. Are operated at FAA-recognized identification areas (FRIAs)
B. Weigh more than 55 pounds
C. Meet Part 89 Remote ID requirements

Answer 30

C. Meet Part 89 Remote ID requirements

Explanation: “Sustained flight” over an open-air assembly in Category 1, 2, or 4 does not include a brief, one-time flight over a portion of the assembled gathering. Remote pilots are prohibited from operating aircraft in Category 1, 2, or 4 in sustained flight over an open-air assembly unless the operation meets requirements of Part 89.110 or 89.115(a).

Question 31

How should a remote pilot apply for a Certificate of Waiver (CoW)?

A. Through the local Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)
B. By submitting Form 8050-1
C. By going to faadronezone.faa.gov and following the instructions

Answer 31

C. By going to faadronezone.faa.gov and following the instructions
Explanation: To apply for a Waiver (CoW), you’ll want to go to https://faadronezone.faa.gov, register for your Part 107 account and follow the instructions. The application must contain a complete description of the proposed operation and a justification, including supporting data and documentation (as necessary) that establishes that the proposed operation can safely be conducted under the terms of a CoW.

Question 32

What airspace is Tomlinson airport in?

A. Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 400 feet AGL; Class E airspace – 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
B. Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace – 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. (Correct)
C. Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL. (Your Answer)(Incorrect)

Answer 32

B. Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace – 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

Explanation: Yes, Tomlinson sits in Restricted Area R-5401, but don’t let that throw you off. Remember that sometimes, Restricted Areas don’t start until thousands of feet above the surface. You should check the border of the Sectional Chart for that information. Tomlinson airport also sits in Class G airspace. The thing to remember in this question is that while the airport sits in Class G airspace, how high does that Class G airspace go up to? Where does it turn into Class E airspace? Remember that unless it is marked otherwise, Class E airspace usually starts at 1,200 ft. AGL.

Question 33

You’ve been asked to fly your drone over a stadium that holds more than 45,000 people. It’s 50 minutes before the professional sporting event that you’ve been asked to get footage of will begin. Are you allowed to fly?

A. Yes — as long as you’re in Class G uncontrolled airspace.
B. Yes — as long as you don’t fly directly over other people.
C. No, because of the standing Stadium TFR.

Answer 33

C. No, because of the standing Stadium TFR.

Explanation: A Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is a restriction on an area of airspace due to the movement of government VIPs, special events, natural disasters, or other unusual events. An ongoing / standing TFR that is relevant to drone pilots is the so-called “Stadium TFR.” This prohibits flights at or below 3,000 ft. AGL within a 3 NM radius of any stadium with a seating capacity of 30,000 or more when there’s a major league baseball game, NFL game, NCAA Division I football game, or major motor speedway event. This TFR takes effect from one hour before the scheduled event time until one hour after the event concludes.

Question 34

The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal (Victor) Airway over Magee Airport are
A. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. (Correct)
B. 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
C. 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

Answer 34

A. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

Explanation: Victor Airways are always designated as Class E airspace and extend from a base of 1,200 ft. AGL up to 18,000 ft. MSL.

Question 35

What’s the minimum altitude you can fly in the quadrangle surrounding Buckeye Airport (BXK) in order to clear all obstacles in that quadrangle?

A. 3,400 ft. AGL
B. 3,500 ft. AGL
C. 3,500 ft. MSL

Answer 35

C. 3,500 ft. MSL

Explanation: The Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) represents the minimum altitude that you can fly in a given quadrangle and still be able to clear all obstacles in that quadrangle, including terrain and obstructions. In Figure 75, looking at the quadrangle surrounding Buckeye Airport
(BXK), we see a big number 3, and a little number 5. The large number represents thousands of feet MSL. The small number represents hundreds of feet MSL. So that’s where we are getting 3,500 ft. MSL.

Question 36

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the
A. lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
B. lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.
C. lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.

Answer 36

A. lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

Explanation: Density altitude is the altitude relative to the standard atmosphere conditions at which the air density would be equal to the indicated air density at the place of observation. Those standard conditions include pressure altitude and ambient temperature.

Question 37

To prevent autokinesis, avoid _____.
A. fixating on one source of light
B. visual scanning
C. red filtered light sources

Answer 37

A. fixating on one source of light
Explanation: Fixating on one light source creates a phantom effect where lighted objects appear to move. To avoid this, focus the eyes on objects at varying distances and avoid fixating on one source of light for more than 8-10 seconds.

Question 38

What is the standard air temperature and pressure at sea level?
A) 15º C 29.92” Hg
B) 59º C 1013 millibars
C) 17º C 1013 millibars

Answer 38

A) 15º C 29.92” Hg
At sea level, standard air temperature is 15º C (59º F), and standard air pressure is 29.92” Hg, or inches of mercury (1013 millibars).

Question 39

What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?

A) Propeller efficiency is increased.
B) Propeller efficiency is decreased.
C) Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.

Answer 39

B) Propeller efficiency is decreased.
When density altitude is high, the air is less dense, and your propellers become less efficient in thin air. As your density altitude increases, the performance of your aircraft decreases.

Question 40

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

A) lower than pressure altitude.
B) higher than pressure altitude.
C) equal to pressure altitude.

Answer 40

B) higher than pressure altitude.

At sea level, standard air temperature is 15º C (59º F), and standard air pressure is 29.92” Hg, or inches of mercury (1013 millibars).

At these standard conditions, density altitude and pressure altitude will be equal to each other. If the outside air temperature is warmer than standard air temperature, then the density altitude will be higher than pressure altitude.

Question 41

When is pressure altitude equal to density altitude?

A) When the temperature and dew point are beginning to converge
B) When advection fog is present
C) On a standard day (15º C and 29.92” Hg)

Answer 41

C) On a standard day (15º C and 29.92” Hg)

At sea level, standard air temperature is 15º C (59º F), and standard air pressure is 29.92” Hg, or inches of mercury (1013 millibars).

At these standard conditions, density altitude and pressure altitude will be equal to each other.

Question 42

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
A) When moist, unstable air crosses a mountain barrier
B) Following frontal passage when cumulus clouds form
C) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

Answer 42

C) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

Wind shear is commonly associated with passing frontal systems, thunderstorms, and temperature inversions with strong upper level winds (greater than 25 knots).

Question 43

Moisture is added to air by

A) sublimation and condensation.
B) evaporation and condensation.
C) evaporation and sublimation.

Answer 43

C) evaporation and sublimation.

As water changes from one state to another, an exchange of heat takes place. These changes occur through the processes of evaporation, sublimation, condensation, deposition, melting, and freezing. However, evaporation and sublimation are the only ways water vapor is added into the atmosphere.

Question 44

What is “dewpoint”?

A) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
B) The temperature at which dew will always form.
C) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

Answer 44

C) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

The dew point, given in degrees, is the temperature at which the air can hold no more moisture, so it’s at 100% humidity. As moist, unstable air rises, clouds often form at the altitude where temperature and dew point reach the same value. At this point, the air is completely saturated, and moisture begins to condense out of the air in the form of fog, dew, frost, clouds, rain, hail, or snow.

Question 45

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A) relative humidity reaches 100 percent.
B) water vapor condenses.
C) water vapor is present.

Answer 45

B) water vapor condenses.

Fog typically occurs when the temperature of air near the ground is cooled to the air’s dew point. Remember, the dew point is the temperature at which the air will have 100% humidity – it’s fully saturated with water vapor. At this point, the water vapor in the air condenses and becomes visible in the form of fog.

Question 46

Advection fog will most likely form when

A) an air mass moves inland from the coast.
B) a light breeze blows colder air out to sea.
C) there’s a warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.

Answer 46

A) an air mass moves inland from the coast.

Advection fog is common in coastal areas 1) where sea breezes can blow moist air over cooler land masses, and 2) when air masses move inland from the coast. Think about the beautiful and foggy winter beaches of northern California, Oregon, or Washington.

Wind is required for advection fog to occur. Winds of up to 15 knots allow the fog to form and intensify; above a speed of 15 knots, the fog usually lifts and forms low stratus clouds. This type of fog can persist for days.

Question 47

Radiation fog will most likely form when

A) there is warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
B) moist, tropical air moves over cold, offshore water.
C) cold air moves over much warmer water.

Answer 47

A) there is warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

Radiation fog typically forms in low-lying areas like a mountain valley. Radiation fog happens when the surrounding air reaches its dew point, and the ground cools rapidly due to terrestrial radiation. It’ll form on clear nights, with relatively little to no wind present.

Question 48

Frost is most likely to form on a UAV’s wings or propellers:

A) when the temperature of the wing or propeller’s surface is below the dew point of the surrounding air
B) when the dewpoint is lower than 0° C.
C) when the temperature of the wing or propeller’s surface is below the dew point of the surrounding air AND the dew point is lower than 0° C.

Answer 48

C) when the temperature of the wing or propeller’s surface is below the dew point of the surrounding air AND the dew point is lower than 0° C.

When it comes to your unmanned aircraft, frost is most likely to form when the dew point is lower than 0° C, and when the temperature of your propellers’ or wings’ surface is below the dew point.

Question 49

The temperature and dew point are each forecasted to be 10°C. What weather should you expect?

A) Strong wind
B) Freezing rain
C) Fog or low clouds

Answer 49

C) Fog or low clouds

Fog typically occurs when the temperature of air near the ground is cooled to the air’s dew point. Remember, the dew point is the temperature at which the air will have 100% humidity – it’s fully saturated with water vapor. At this point, the water vapor in the air condenses and becomes visible in the form of fog.

Question 50

METAR REPORT CODES

Answer 50

BKN = broken
OVC = overcast
BR = mist
SH = showers
RA = rain

Question 51

What conditions are necessary for a thunderstorm to form?

A) Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover
B) High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions
C) High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds

Answer 51

B) High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions

Thunderstorms are produced by cumulonimbus clouds.

They form when there is:

High Humidity - sufficient water vapor or moisture (Did you know that “nimbus” means rain?);
Unstable Conditions - An unstable lapse rate (the lapse rate describes the rate of change of the temperature as the air increases in altitude); and
Lifting Force - An initial upward boost to start the process (heat)

Question 52

Which thunderstorm lifecycle stage is mostly characterized by downdrafts?

A) Cumulus
B) Dissipating
C) Mature

Answer 52

B) Dissipating

n the third and final stage of a thunderstorm, once the vertical motion near the top of the cloud slows down, the top of the cloud spreads out and takes on an anvil-like shape. At this point, the storm enters the dissipating stage. This is when the downdrafts spread out and replace the updrafts needed to sustain the storm.

Question 53

What feature is typically associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A) Continuous updraft
B) Frequent lightning
C) Roll cloud

Answer 53

A) Continuous updraft

Thunderstorms begins with the cumulus stage, in which lifting action of the air begins. If sufficient moisture and instability are present, the clouds continue to increase in vertical height. Vertical development always means wind shear and turbulence, which is almost always more than an sUAS can handle.

Continuous, strong updrafts prohibit moisture from falling. The updraft region grows larger than the individual thermals feeding the storm.

Question 54

What should you expect if you see nimbus clouds?

A) Precipitation
B) Strong turbulence
C) The beginning of a thunderstorm

Answer 54

A) Precipitation

If you see nimbus clouds, expect precipitation. If you see lenticular clouds, expect turbulence. Wind can be blowing quite strong through lenticular clouds.

Question 55

Ceiling conditions (cloud base) can be calculated from:

A) the temperature and the dew point
B) the temperature and the barometric pressure
C) the barometric pressure and the dew point

Answer 55

A) the temperature and the dew point

In aviation, a ceiling is the lowest layer of clouds reported as being broken or overcast, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration like fog or haze. Current ceiling information is calculated by the temperature and the dew point and is reported by the aviation routine weather report (METAR) and automated weather stations of various types.

Question 56

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

A) Turbulence and showery precipitation.
B) Poor visibility and smooth air.
C) Haze and smoke.

Answer 56

A) Turbulence and showery precipitation.

When an air mass passes over a warmer surface, that air mass is warmed from below. And this causes convective currents to form, which causes the air to rise. When the air rises, this creates an unstable air mass with good surface visibility. This moist, unstable air has good visibility, but it also causes turbulence, cumulus clouds, and showers.

Question 57

What are the characteristics of stable air?

A) Good visibility and steady precipitation.
B) Poor visibility and steady precipitation.
C) Poor visibility and intermittent precipitation.

Answer 57

B) Poor visibility and steady precipitation.

When an air mass passes over a colder surface, convective currents do not form. Instead, you get a stable air mass that tends to display the following characteristics: stratiform clouds, smooth air, fair-to-poor visibility in haze and smoke, and continuous precipitation.

Question 58

What is a characteristic of stable air?

A) Cumulus clouds
B) Stratiform clouds
C) Unlimited visibility

Answer 58

B) Stratiform clouds

When an air mass passes over a colder surface, convective currents do not form. Instead, you get a stable air mass that tends to display the following characteristics: stratiform clouds, smooth air, fair-to-poor visibility in haze and smoke, and continuous precipitation.

Question 59

Which of the following is the first step of the DECIDE Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?

A) Detect
B) Identify
C) Evaluate

Answer 59

A) Detect
Use the DECIDE model to help you continually evaluate each operation for hazards and to analyze risk:

Detect – the fact that a change has occurred
Estimate – the need to react to or counter the change
Choose – a desirable outcome for the flight or situation
Identify – actions to control the change successfully
Do – take the necessary actions
Evaluate – the effects of the action to react to or counter the initial change

Question 60

Part 89 Remote Identification (Remote ID) requirements

A) Only apply to unmanned aircraft that weigh less than 0.55 lbs
B) Apply to all unmanned aircraft operating under Part 107
C) Do not apply to unmanned aircraft

Answer 60

B) Apply to all unmanned aircraft operating under Part 107

Beginning in the fall of 2023, most small unmanned aircraft registered or required to be registered for Part 107 operations must comply with remote identification requirements.

Question 61

When operated under Part 107, a UA that weighs less than 0.55 pounds must comply with Remote ID requirements.

A) True
B) Only if the UA is flown in an FRIA
C) False

Answer 61

A) True

A UA that weighs less than 0.55 pounds is exempt from Remote ID requirements UNLESS it is operated under Part 107, in which case it must be registered regardless of weight.

Question 62

The use of the following technology is prohibited under Part 107 unless authorized by the FAA:

A) Air Traffic Control (ATC) transponders
B) ATC transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out
C) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out

Answer 62

B) ATC transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out

Due to the projected number of unmanned aircraft operations, the use of ADS-B out and ATC transponders would saturate the available frequencies and significantly hinder the safety of manned aircraft and therefore the FAA has prohibited their use on unmanned aircraft.

Question 63

A series of judgmental errors which can lead to a human factors-related accident is sometimes referred to as the

A) error chain.
B) course of action.
C) DECIDE model.

Answer 63

A) error chain.

When a series of judgmental errors leads to a human factors-related accident, this is sometimes referred to as the error (or accident) chain, and it’s our goal to ensure we’re doing everything we can to prevent this from happening. To prevent this final “link” in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider Risk Management. Once appropriate risk controls are developed and implemented, then the operation can begin.

Question 64

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a

A) systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.
B) decision making process which relies on good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight.
C) mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

Answer 64

A) systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.

Aeronautical Decision-Making (ADM) is a systematic mental approach to consistently determine the best course of action in a given situation. A remote pilot-in-command uses a number of resources to safely operate an unmanned aerial system – human resources like visual observers or other folks manipulating the controls, hardware, flight software, and other information. The Remote PIC needs to be able to manage each of these resources effectively.

When a pilot follows good decision-making practices, the inherent risk in a flight is reduced or even eliminated. The ADM framework can help to identify hazards and to classify the potential threat that these hazards could pose in an operation.

Question 65

What is the definition of CTAF?
A) The frequency you tune into to get information from Aeronautical Advisory Stations (UNICOM).
B) The standard radio frequency that the majority of towered airports use in the U.S.
C) The air-to-air communication system for pilots to communicate with each other.

Answer 65

C) The air-to-air communication system for pilots to communicate with each other.

The key to monitoring manned aircraft communications near an airport without an operating control tower is selecting the right radio frequency. The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) is what you’ll want to tune into. It’s a frequency designated for pilots to communicate with each other directly, air-to-air, while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower.

Question 66

What frequency is used at a non-towered airport when UNICOM isn’t available?

A) 122.9
B) 122.7
C) 122.8

Answer 66

A) 122.9

When there’s a non-towered airport and UNICOM isn’t available, a pilot will use the 122.9 frequency to communicate.

Question 67

To ensure that the unmanned aircraft center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading instructions specified in the

A) Pilot’s Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual.
B) Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
C) Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.

Answer 67

A) Pilot’s Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual.

To ensure that the unmanned aircraft center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading instructions specified in the Pilot’s Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual.

Question 68

If an unmanned airplane weighs 33 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A) 34 pounds
B) 47 pounds
C) 38 pounds

Answer 68

C) 38 pounds

Looking at the Load Factor Chart, we see that with a 30° banked turn, the load factor is 1.154. Therefore, if we take the existing weight of the airplane (33 pounds) and multiply it by the Load Factor of 1.154, we get 38 pounds, which is the weight the airplane structure would be required to support during that turn.

Question 69

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

A) Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
B) Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.
C) Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.

Answer 69

A) Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

When a UA is in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. Everything is in equilibrium.

Question 70

What effect does an uphill terrain slope have on launch performance of a fixed-wing sUAS?

A) Increases launch distance
B) Increases launch speed
C) Decreases launch distance

Answer 70

A) Increases launch distance

When you have an uphill terrain slope and you’re launching a fixed-wing aircraft on that slope, you’ll need to increase your launch distance to get the aircraft up into the air.

Question 71

When operating an aircraft, the Remote PIC is responsible for using

A) weight and balance data from the manufacturer.
B) the most current weight and balance data.
C) the weight and balance data of the last monthly inspection.

Answer 71

B) the most current weight and balance data.

Before any flight, the remote PIC should verify that the aircraft is correctly loaded by determining the aircraft’s weight and balance (W&B) condition. It goes without saying that you don’t want to exceed any of the W&B limitations as described by your UA manufacturer.

Although a maximum gross takeoff weight may be specified in your UA flight manual, your unmanned aircraft may not always be able to safely take off with this load under all conditions.

Question 72

The use of the following technology is prohibited under Part 107 unless authorized by the FAA:

A) Air Traffic Control (ATC) transponders
B) ATC transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out
C) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out

Answer 72

B) ATC transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) out

Due to the projected number of unmanned aircraft operations, the use of ADS-B out and ATC transponders would saturate the available frequencies and significantly hinder the safety of manned aircraft and therefore the FAA has prohibited their use on unmanned aircraft.

Question 73

Class B airspace is generally airspace starting at the surface up to about

Answer 73

surface up to 10,000 feet MSL solid blue lines

Question 74

Class C airspace is generally airspace from the surface up to

Answer 74

surface up to 4,000 feet with solid magenta lines

Question 75

Class D airspace is generally airspace from

Answer 75

the surface up to 2,500 feet

Question 76

Class E airspace lower limits what are they?

Answer 76

The surface, 700 feet, and 1,200.