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EPPP > Cram Deck! > Flashcards

Cram Deck! Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 founders of different family therapies?

A

1) Bowen - Extended Family Systems Therapy (Differentiation, triangles, genograms)
2) Minuchin - Structural Family Therapy (Rigid triads, joining, unbalancing, structural maps)
3) Haley - Strategic Family Therapy (Paradoxical therapy, bx precedes attitudes, communication is control)
4) Selvini-Palozzi - Milan Systemic Family Therapy (Circular, inflexible, maladaptive introjects)

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2
Q

What has research shown to be the 4 most curative group therapy factors?

A

1) Interpersonal input
2) Catharsis
3) Self-understanding
4) Cohesiveness

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3
Q

How does theory of mind develop (4)?

A

1) Ages 2 - 3 - Awareness of separation beinghoods
2) Ages 4 - 5 - Inaccuracy and action
3) Ages 5+ - Backstabbing and perspective-taking
4) Early adolescents - Dialectical thinking

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4
Q

What are Atikson et al.’s stages of Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model?

A

CDRIII
1) Conformity: Preference for majority
2) Dissonance: Marked confusion and conflict
3) Resistance & Immersion: Actively rejects majority, embraces minority
4) Introspection: Uncertainty about rigidity and conflicting desires
5) Integrative Awareness

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5
Q

What are Cross’s stages in the Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model?

A

PEIEI
1) Pre-Encounter: Adopt a majority identity and/or internalize racism
2) Encounter: Awareness and interest in developing a Black ID
3) Immersion-Emersion: Immersion - idealization, rage, guilt, Emersion - rejection of Whiteness and internalization of Black ID
4) Internalization: A pro-Black identity, bicultural identity, or a multicultural identity

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6
Q

What are Helm’s stages in the White Racial Identity Development Model?

A

CDRPIA
1) Contact: Has little awareness
2) Disintegration: Increasing awareness, emotional conflict, paternalistic, retreat
3) Reintegration: White supremacy
4) Pseudo-Independence: Doubt, interest in intellectual exploration
5) Immersion-Emersion: Deeper understanding of racism and oppression.
6) Autonomy: Internalized nonracist White identity

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7
Q

What are Troiden’s 4 stages in the Homosexual (Gay/Lesbian) Identity Development Model?

A

1) Sensitization/Feeling Different
2) Self-Recognition/Identity Confusion
3) Identity Assumption
4) Commitment/Identity Integration

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8
Q

What are Erikson’s 8 stages of psychosocial development?

A

BAIIIIGE
1) Basic Trust vs. Mistrust (infancy)
2) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (toddlerhood)
3) Initiative vs. Guilt (early childhood)
4) Industry vs. Inferiority (school age)
5) Identity vs. Role Confusion (adolescence)
6) Intimacy vs. Isolation (young adulthood)
7) Generativity vs. Stagnation (middle adulthood)
8) Ego Integrity vs. Despair (maturation/old age)

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9
Q

What 4 key techniques are used to study newborn perception?

A

1) High-amplitude sucking for 1 - 4 months
2) Reaching for 3+ months
3) Head turning for 5.5 - 12 months
4) Heart and respiration rate for all ages

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10
Q

When can infants distinguish vowels, consonants, and sounds from their native language (3)?

A

1) Vowels - a few days after birth
2) Consonants - 2 - 3 months old
3) Narrowed - 9 - 14 months

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11
Q

What are the 3 motor milestones for ages 4 - 6 months?

A

1) Rolls from abdomen to back
2) Sits and reach
3) Stand with help

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12
Q

What are the 2 motor milestones for ages 7 - 9 months?

A

1) Sits alone without support
2) Begins crawling

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13
Q

What are the 2 motor milestones for ages 9 - 12 months?

A

1) Pulls self up and stands alone
2) Takes first steps alone but walks with help

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14
Q

What are the 4 motor milestones for ages 13 - 15 months?

A

1) Walks alone with a wide-based gait
2) Crawls up stairs
3) Scribbles
4) Uses cups well

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15
Q

What are the 3 motor milestones for ages 16 - 18 months?

A

1) Runs clumsily
2) Walks up stairs with help
3) Can use a spoon

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16
Q

What are the 3 motor milestones by 24 months?

A

1) Kicks ball
2) Turns pages of a book
3) 50% are daytime potty trained

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17
Q

What are the 3 motor milestones by 36 months?

A

1) Rides tricycle (tricycle for year 3)
2) Dresses and undresses self
3) Completely toilet trained

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18
Q

When do teeth first begin appearing?

A

Ages 5 - 9 months

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19
Q

What are the 4 memory strategy milestones?

A

1) Preschoolers use strategies accidentally and ineffectively
2) Young grade schoolers use them better but get distracted and don’t generalize
3) 9 or 10 children purposefully use strategies (rehearsal, organization, elaboration)
4) Adolescence, strategies are used more effectively

Metacognition and metamemory begin during older childhood too.

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20
Q

What is object permanence and when does it develop?

A

Object permanent is the ability to know that objects continue to exist even when they can’t be perceived
1) Develops during Piaget’s sensorimotor stage at ~8 months old
2) Research shows it develops ages 4 - 7 months old

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21
Q

What are the 9 stages of language development?

A

1) Crying (birth)
2) Cooing (starting 2 months)
3) Babbling (starting 4 months)
4) Echolalia and jargon (9 months)
5) First word (10 - 15 months)
6) Telegraphic speech (1.5 - 2 years)
7) Vocabulary growth (1.5 - 3 years)
8) Grammatically correct (2.5 - 5 years)
9) Metalinguistic awareness (6 - 7 years)

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22
Q

What are the 3 stages of understanding death and when do they occur?

A

1) 2 - 5 years: Thinks death is temporary/reversible
2) 5 - 9 years: Understands irreversibility but thinks they can escape death
3) By age 10: Recognize nonfunctionally, irreversibility, and universality

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23
Q

What are the 7 career theorists and their associated career theory?

A

1) Holland - personality
2) Brousseau & Driver - career-concept
3) Super - self-concept
4) Roe - basic needs
5) Tiedeman & O’Hara - ego identity dev
6) Dawis & Lofquist - values
7) Krumboltz - social learning

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24
Q

What are Hershey and Blanchard’s 4 types of situational leadership styles?

A

1) Telling - high task, low relationship (very task oriented leader who doesn’t care about the relationship so they just tell people what to do, best for low maturity)
2) Selling - high task and relationship (very task and relationship oriented leader so they persuade cooperation, helps foster motivation)
3) Participating - low task, high relationship (mostly cares about the relationship so will participate along side employees even if it costs them task efficiency, helps foster confidence)
4) Delegating - low task and relationship (doesn’t care about the tasks or relationships so is hands off, needs high maturity)

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25
Q

What are the 5 most common complaints processed that results in revocation of licensure?

A

1) Loss of licensure in another jurisdiction
2) Sexual misconduct with an adult
3) Child custody violation
4) Nonsexual dual relationship
5) Insurance or fee violations

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26
Q

How is a reliability coefficient interpreted?

A

Straight across .4 = 40%

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27
Q

What is alogia?

A

Diminished speech output

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28
Q

What 3 structures are included in the hindbrain?

A

1) Medulla oblongata
2) Pons
3) Cerebellum

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29
Q

What 2 disorders are associated with the reticular activating system?

A

ADHD and schizophrenia

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30
Q

What is dysarthia?

A

Difficulty speaking due to weak speech muscles

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31
Q

What is apraxia?

A

Inability to perform practiced, purposeful, skilled movements due to brain processing problems

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32
Q

What is akathisia vs akinesia?

A

Akathisia - cruel restlessness
Akinesia - reduction in spontaneous movement

33
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Inability to move with coordination due to coordinated muscle movement problems.

34
Q

What are the 2 functions of the posterior parietal cortex?

A

1) Planned movement
2) Proprioception

*Damage means you couldn’t find objects in space but you could describe their appearance

35
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

An autoimmune disorder that attacks ACh receptors in neuromuscular junctions resulting in weakness of skeletal muscles

36
Q

What does the suprachiasmatic nucleus do (2)?

A

1) Organizes circadian rhythms
2) Tells pineal gland when to make/release melatonin

37
Q

What does the Papez’s circuit do and what 4 structures make it up?

A

Papez’s emotional circuit (PEC) - Mediates the experience and expression of emotion via CHAM
1) Cingulate gyrus
2) Hippocampus
3) Anterior nuclei of the thalamus
4) Mammillary bodies

38
Q

What are efferent and afferent axons?

A

Efferent - Outgoing axons with ventral motor fibers
Afferent - Incoming axons with dorsal sensory fibers

39
Q

What 5 structures make up the limbic system?

A

HATCH
1) Hypothalamus
2) Amygdala
3) Thalamus
4) Cingulate cortex
5) Hippocampus

40
Q

What 2 hormones does the pituitary gland primarily produce?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and somatropin (growth) hormone

41
Q

What is localized amnesia?

A

The inability to recall all events related to a specific period of time

42
Q

What is selective amnesia?

A

The inability to recall some aspects of events during a specific period of time

43
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (3)?

A

Rapid onset of motor, mental, and ANS sxs (e.g., muscle rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered consciousness)

44
Q

What are the 3 extrapyramidal effects?

A

1) Parkinsonism
2) Akathisia (cruel restlessness)
3) Dystonia (muscle spasms in the head/neck)

45
Q

What are the 4 functions of the basal ganglia?

A

1) Sensorimotor learning
2) Stereotyped, species-specific motoric expressions of emotions (e.g., smiling when happy and running when afraid)
3) Planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement
4) Regulating motor actions

46
Q

What are the 2 functions of the hippocampus?

A

1) Processing spatial, visual (when paired with other structures), and verbal information
2) Consolidating declarative memories

47
Q

What are the functions of the temporal lobes?

A

Encoding, retrieval, and storage of long-term declarative memories

*Electrical stimulation can elicit forgotten complex, vivid memories

48
Q

What are the 2 functions of the substantia nigra?

A

Midbrain dopaminergic nucleus modulates:
1) Motor movement
2) Rewards

49
Q

What 4 structures are in the midbrain?

A

1) Superior/inferior colliculi
2) Substantia nigra
3) Reticular formation
4) Reticular activating system

50
Q

What is systematized amnesia?

A

An inability to recall memories related to a certain category of information (e.g., memories related to the individual’s spouse)

51
Q

What are the 4 conventional antipsychotics?

A

Chlorophyll filled Thor’s hands (CFTH)
1) Chlorpromazine
2) Fluphenazine
3) Thiothixene
4) Haloperidol

*Zine family

52
Q

What are the 4 atypical antipsychotics?

A

CORQ is a quirky bunch of drugs (atypical antipsychotics)
1) Clozapine
2) Olanzapine
3) Respirdone
4) Quetiapine

*Pine family

53
Q

What are the 5 tricyclic antidepressants?

A

CADIN takes tricyclics
1) Clomipramine
2) Amitriptyline
3) Doxepin
4) Imipramine
5) Nortriptyline

*Ipramine/triptyline family

54
Q

What are the 4 SSRIs?

A

Flags fly passed servicemen
1) Fluoxetine
2) Fluvoxamine
3) Paroxetine
4) Sertraline

*oxe/oxa

55
Q

What are the 3 MAOIs?

A

Phenny is trans
1) Phenelzine
2) Isocarboxazid
3) Tranylcypromine

56
Q

What are the 6 anxiolytics (benzodiazepines)?

A

Dianna always tries lovely channel oxfords

1) Diazepam
2) Alprazolam
3) Triazolam
4) Lorazepam
5) Chlordiazepoxide
6) Oxazepam

*Pam/lam family

57
Q

What are acetylcholine’s 3 functions in the central nervous system?

A

1) REM sleep
2) Regulation of the sleep-wake cycle
3) Learning/memory

58
Q

What are the 3 main side effects of conventional antipsychotics?

A

1) Anticholinergic effects
2) Extrapyramidal effects
3) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

59
Q

What are the 4 functions of dopamine (a catecholamine)?

A

Dopamine is associated with personality, mood, memory, and sleep.

1) Schizophrenia - Elevated or oversensitivity to dopamine
2) Tourette’s - Elevated or oversensitivity to dopamine in the caudate nucleus
3) Parkinson’s - Degeneration of dopamine receptors in substantia nigra
4) Drug reinforcement - Dopamine reinforces stimulant, opiate, alcohol, and nicotine use by elevating dopamine in the mesolimbic system (areas in the midbrain and limbic system)

60
Q

What are the functions of norepinephrine?

A

Norepinephrine plays an important role in mood, attention, dreaming, learning, and certain autonomic functions (like blood pressure)

61
Q

What are the 2 primary functions of serotonin and 3 pathological implications?

A

Serotonin usually exerts an inhibitory effect and has been implicated in mood, hunger, temperature regulation, sexual activity, arousal, sleep, aggression, and migraine headache.

1) Elevated serotonin = Schizophrenia, ASD, and food restriction w/ Anorexia
2) Low levels = Aggression, depression, suicide, Bulimia Nervosa, PTSD, OCD
3) Serotonin & dopamine = Social phobia

62
Q

What are the functions of GABA?

A

GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter and plays a role in eating, seizure, anxiety disorders, motor control, vision, and sleep.

1) Low levels = Anxiety disorders
2) Huntington’s = Degeneration of GABA cells in the basal ganglia

63
Q

What are the functions of glutamate?

A

Glutamate is excitatory and plays a role in learning/memory via long-term potentiation.
Excessive glutamate (excitotoxicity) produces seizures, stroke-related brain damage, Huntington’s, Alzheimer’s, and other neurodegenerative disorders

64
Q

What are atypical (novel) antipsychotics used to treat?

A

1) Schizophrenia and other disorders with psychotic symptoms
2) Bipolar that is not responsive to mood stabilizers
3) Depression and suicidality
4) Drug addictions
5) Hostility
6) Motor symptoms associated with Huntington’s, Parkinson’s, etc.

65
Q

What are the main side effects of atypical antipsychotics?

A

1) Anticholinergic effects
2) Lowered seizure threshold
3) Sedation
4) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
5) Agranulocytosis

  • They are less likely than conventional antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal effects
66
Q

What are tricyclics used to treat?

A

Tricyclics are particularly useful for treating depression with vegetative and somatic symptoms (e.g., decreased appetite, weight loss, sleep disturbances, psychomotor retardation, and anhedonia). Tricyclics can also be used to treat:
1) Panic disorder
2) Agoraphobia
3) Bulimia
4) OCD
5) Enuresis (especially imipramine)
6) Neuropathic pain (especially amitriptyline and nortriptyline)

67
Q

How do tricyclics work?

A

Tricyclics block the reuptake of norepinephrine, serotonin, and/or dopamine

68
Q

What are SSRIs used to treat (5)?

A

1) Depression (particularly melancholic depression)
2) OCD
3) Bulimia
4) Panic disorder
5) PTSD

69
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome involves neurological effects (headache, nystagmus, tremor, dizziness, unsteady gait), changes in mental state (irritability, confusion, delirium), cardiac arrhythmia, coma, and death

70
Q

What are MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors) used to treat?

A

Non-endogenous and atypical depressions that involve anxiety, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and interpersonal sensitivity

71
Q

How do MAOIs work?

A

MAOIs upregulates dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is involved in deactivating dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin

72
Q

What are the 3 anticonvulsants?

A

Carter values Claire

1) Carbamazepine
2) Valproate
3) Clonazepam

73
Q

What are the main side effects of anticonvulsants?

A

1) Dizziness
2) Ataxia
3) Visual disturbances
4) Anorexia
5) Nausea
6) Rash
7) Agranulocytosis
8) Aplastic anemia

Carbamazepine is contraindicated for people with abnormalities in cardiac conduction.

74
Q

How do barbiturates work?

A

Barbiturates exert their effects by interrupting impulses to the RAS

Side effects: REM rebound and nightmares

75
Q

What are benzodiazepines used for?

A

1) Anxiety
2) Sleep disturbances
3) Seizures
4) Cerebral palsy
5) Disorders involving muscle spasms
6) Alcohol withdrawal

76
Q

What is azapirone and what is it used to treat?

A

Azapirone (buspirone) is the first anxiolytic that reduces anxiety without sedation or addiction, likely because it must be taken for several weeks before it is effective.

77
Q

How does naltrexone work?

A

Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist and blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol

78
Q

What are the side effects of disulfiram?

A

1) Drowsiness
2) Depression
3) Disorientation
4) Headache
5) Restlessness
6) Impotence
7) Blood dyscrasias

EPPP (8 decks)

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