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ERJ 175 KV > Cq 2022 KV > Flashcards

Cq 2022 KV Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the emergency parking brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

To check the brake wear indicators.

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure if you check the brake wear indicators?

A

No.

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3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walk around?

A

Activation of system one and system two electric hydraulic pumps.

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4
Q

On external inspection, you notice at the air data smart probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

Turn the ADSP heater switch to on and remove frozen contaminants.

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5
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADSPs during the preflight. (4)

A
  1. Outside air temperature is at or below freezing and water, ice, or snow is present or suspected.
  2. On the first flight of the day with temperatures below -18°C.
  3. Smart probes frozen.
  4. Erroneous airspeed indications present on the PFD with any or all of the following messages displayed on EICAS. AFCS fault, AT FAIL, AP FAIL, FD FAIL, YD fail, APPR2 not available, any other ADS messages displayed on the EICAS.
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6
Q

Use the pictorial walk around, describe the preflight action for the nose landing gear.

A

Wheels and tires, condition, clear of ice. Up lock hook, unlocked. Down lock springs, condition. Strut, wheel well, doors, condition and no leaks. Ground locking pin, removed. Landing and taxi lights, condition, clean and undamaged.

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7
Q

What unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the Sopm external preflight of the RAT.

A

Rat, rat safety lock pin, removed

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8
Q

What does the oxygen discharge indicator look like and it’s normal condition?

A

Green disc.

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9
Q

What is the properpreflight action of the engine inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T 12 sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear.

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10
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the fan blades according to the SOPM?

A

Check for damage blades and ensure fan is free to rotate, check for damage on spinner.

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11
Q

Are there nacelle strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

Yes

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12
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?

A

Three.

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13
Q

Describe the main landing gear inspection.

A

Wheels and tires, condition. Up lock hook, unlocked. Down lock springs, condition. Strut, wheel wells, condition and no leaks. Ground locking pin, removed. Brake wear indicators, check.

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14
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges? Where is that located?

A

CDL, AFM.

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15
Q

Give at least two atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather preflight inspection. (6 total)

A
  1. Outside air temperature is 5°C or less.
  2. Wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less. 3. Conditions conducive to icing exist. 4. RON and may have frozen contaminants.
  3. Through flight with residual ice from inbound flight.
  4. Cold soaked ice suspected in the fuel tank.
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16
Q

What checklist must be complete prior to starting the deice/anti ice process?

A

The before start checklist.

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17
Q

What is used in lieu of normal procedures checklist from the start of the deice/anti ice process through the before takeoff checklist?

A

ERJ 175 deice/anti-ice checklist.

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18
Q

What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off.

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19
Q

Are there different deice procedures for engines off versus engines running?

A

Yes.

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20
Q

Are the deice/anti-ice communication elements required? Where are they found?

A

Yes. Communication elements table.

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21
Q

List two required communications elements from the communication elements table.

A

1) type of fluid be used. 2) percentage of fluid. 3) time of beginning of final deice step. 4) deicing complete.

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22
Q

When does the hold over Time begin?

A

Final application of fluid commences.

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23
Q

What does the HOT represent?

A

A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for the varying precipitation intensities.

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24
Q

In a HOT table what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier versus lighter precipitation.

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25
Q

What should a crew use to determine precipitation intensities in order to accurately establish a HOT?

A

Official weather observations. Tables from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensities listed in the official observations.

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26
Q

Can the HOT be used as the sole determinant that aircraft critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants.

A

No. Several pre-take off checks may be required to determine the condition of the aircraft prior to take off.

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27
Q

What are two factors that influence the effectiveness of deicing/anti-icing fluid? (4 total)

A

1) Change in precipitation type, intensity, and moisture content.
2) Change in ambient and aircraft skin temperature.
3) Position of aircraft relative to the exhaust or prop wash of other aircraft. 4) Change in wind direction or velocity.

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28
Q

Can parking in the proximity of another aircraft jet wash blow the deice/anti-ice fluid off the wings rendering the HOT invalid or the fluid ineffective?

A

Yes.

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29
Q

List two precipitation types that HOTS do not exist for (4 total)

A

Heavy snow. Ice pellets. Moderate and heavy freezing rain. Hail.

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30
Q

When is a pre-takeoff check conducted?

A

Within the hold over time and just prior to takeoff.

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31
Q

What is checked as part of the pre-takeoff check?

A

The representative surface from a vintage point in the aircraft that the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

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32
Q

What should the crew do if they are unable to determine that the representative surface is free from frozen contaminants?

A

The aircraft must be de-iced again.

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33
Q

When is a pre-take off contamination check conducted?

A

After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or in heavy snow to ensure the wings, controls surface and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants.

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34
Q

Can the pre-takeoff contamination check be performed if the de-ice process was initiated at a location other than the wings, say the tail perhaps?

A

No.

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35
Q

Is there ever a case where the aircraft can depart with frozen contaminants on any of the critical surfaces?

A

No.

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36
Q

What altitude would the crew initiate the right turn to a heading of 240?

A

Climb straight ahead to 1000 feet a FE then commence turn to heading as listed.

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37
Q

How long should a crew fly this heading?

A

Fly this path to safely attain an altitude and position where radar vectors can be provided or a minimum in route or approach altitude.

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38
Q

How does a simple special engine failure take off path differ from the above standard engine failure?

A

A turn to a NavaiD or HDG is required prior to 1000 feet.

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39
Q

In the event of an engine failure at V1, what speed does the above procedure have you fly?

A

Engine failure climb speed V2

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40
Q

Why is nothing listed under VIA?

A

Procedure is runway heading initially, engine failure heading is only listed if different than runway alignment.

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41
Q

What is the engine failure turn point for 19L in KSFO?

A

End of the runway or .0 9 DME from the SFO VOR.

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42
Q

When reaching the OAKVOR in the above procedure, what should the crew do?

A

Hold on the in bound course, standard hold

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43
Q

Can a crew legally depart KSFO runway 19L if the OAKVOR is out of service?

A

Yes, an alternate procedure of heading 050 is listed.

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44
Q

In the FOMs Landing performance hierarchy, when reported, what should be used to determine Landing performance?

A

Rwy CC VALUES

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45
Q

When CCs Are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Contaminant type and breaking action reports.

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46
Q

If RwyCC values for the same runway ARE different, 5/4/3, which RWYCC value is used when performing a landing assessment?

A

Three. The most restrictive.

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47
Q

Are Rwy cc by directional?

A

Yes, runways are evaluated to include displaced threshold and are measured equally in either direction.

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48
Q

Use the flight release METAR and plan landing weights. What is the heaviest achievable landing weight? What is the MIN LDG DIDT-FLAPS 5- NO THR REV CREDIT?

A
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49
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Takeoff and landing performance assessment.

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50
Q

What is RCAM?

A

Runway condition assessment matrix is the tool used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via field condition, FICON. The RCAM maps contamination type and depth to a runway condition code. RWYCC.

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51
Q

What percentage of the runway surface needs to be covered for the runway to be contaminated?

A

Greater than 25%.

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52
Q

What does the RWYCC represent?

A

The breaking action, B a, expected for a particular contaminant level.

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53
Q

What are RWYCC used for?

A

To determine landing distance. Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant. Use to determine operating limitation such as crosswind limits with low runway friction.

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54
Q

A RWYCC value of zero represents what type of BA?

A

NIL, And results in immediate runway closure.

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55
Q

How long can a FICON NOTAM BE IN EFFECT?

A

24 hours and may not reflect actual condition and breaking action.

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56
Q

What should a pilot do when they believe a NOTAM Does not accurately reflect current conditions?

A

Consult the dispatcher, airport, or ATC to ascertain current runway information.

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57
Q

When powering up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure?

A

22.5 V, if voltage is between 21 v and 20 V.

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58
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?

A

After verifying there are no fire protection fail(?) messages. 30 seconds after EICAS is energized.

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59
Q

Can take off/landing occur with the fuel imbalance EICAS message?

A

Yes, as long as it’s less than 794 pounds.

60
Q

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37°

61
Q

What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts one and two?

A

90 seconds.

62
Q

Minimum time between starts one and two?

A

10 seconds

63
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

For in-flight starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds, motoring plus start time.

64
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

Positive N1 by 50% N2.

65
Q

A taxi way is N0TAM’d closed to aircraft with wingspan over 100 feet. What is the wingspan of the ERJ 175?

A

Wingspan of 93 feet and 11 inches.

66
Q

For takeoff, what is the maximum break temperature

A

Must be green

67
Q

What is the maximum tail wind component allowed for takeoff

A

15

68
Q

Are static take offs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 25 kn. Why

A

No, due to Engine compressor stall possibility.

69
Q

After takeoff, when can the auto pilot be engaged

A

400 feet AFE.

70
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable

A

100 feet.

71
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?

A

Vb 270/.76m whichever’s lower. Target speed.

72
Q

An IDG fails in flight, and the QRH instructs you to start the APU. What is the maximum start altitude.

A

30,000 feet.

73
Q

Minimum outside air temperature for APU start in operation?

A

-54°C.

74
Q

Maximum APU operation attitude after start

A

33,000 feet

75
Q

What is maximum cross wind crew limit for a dry runway

A

38 kts

76
Q

Wet, maximum crosswind?

A

31 kn.

77
Q

What is the maximum gear extension/retraction/operation speed?

A

VLOEXT/RET= 250 kts

78
Q

If flying a CAT II Approach what flap setting is required?

A

Flap five is mandatory.

79
Q

What is the maximum wiper speed?

A

V wiper ops max 259

80
Q

True or false. We can use RNAV (GPS) LP Minima.

A

False.

81
Q

When approaching flaps full, what is the go around flaps setting

A

Flaps 4

82
Q

Can you attempt a go around after deployment of the thrust reverser’s

A

No

83
Q

True or false. Precision approaches are recommended, when available

A

True

84
Q

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of the approach and landing when the auto flight system is engage? Why

A

Yes, the Pilot must be prepared to manually land or initiate a go around any time it is

85
Q

Is it permissible to turn the landing lights off while on an approach in IMC if they pose a distraction

A

Yes

86
Q

Is it recommended that the pilot monitoring call out any observed deviations while on approach

A

No it is mandatory

87
Q

What is the pilot flying’s verbal response after immediately correcting a deviation on approach to landing

A

Correcting

88
Q

What is the pilot monitoring’s deviation call out with a decent rate greater than 1000 feet per minute on approach to landing?

A

SINK RATE

89
Q

What magnitude of deviation from glidepath requires a call out by the pilot monitoring? What is a SOPM call out?

A

Greater than 1 dot, GLIDE PATH.

90
Q

When are speed deviation callouts required on approach to landing? What is the call out?

A

Target -5, or any speed less than VREF, whichever is higher, “SPEED”

91
Q

On an approach, what bank angle would be considered a deviation? What is the pilot monitoring call out

A

Greater than 25° bank, bank.

92
Q

What is the responsibility of the pilot monitoring if the EGPWS fails to make callouts automatically

A

Perform expected call out.

93
Q

Is it critical to safe operation that Pilot meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude.

A

1000 feet

94
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed over target on approach at 1000 feet? What were the part monitoring call out if the pilot flying exceed the speed

A

+15 kn, speed.

95
Q

What is the latest position on the approach to plan for landing gear down? Is there a planed speed at this position as well

A

By 1,500 feet or the FAF whichever occurs first. Yes 180 KIAS.

96
Q

What speed is mandatory by 500 feet on approach to landing? What thrust setting?

A

Airspeed with in the bug, thrust above idle.

97
Q

If any of the plane parameters are not met on approach to landing at or below 500 feet AGL, what is the pilot monitoring required to do

A

Direct a go round.

98
Q

 And when would you declare minimum fuel? What does a minimum fuel declaration communicate to ATC?

A

Fuel status has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, the P I C cannot accept any undo delay. This advisory does not reflect an emergency situation.

99
Q

When would you declare an emergency for fuel? How does the emergency affect your ATC handling?

A

While in flight, when determined the remaining fuel supply results in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel, emergency aircraft have priority above all others

100
Q

On the whiteboard place the crew in a hold unintentipated threat prior to the TOD. Give the crew a fuel quantity, the progress bar showing landing with release fuel intact prior to programming the hold, ask the following. How long can you hold?

A
101
Q

Determine fuel requirements for an unplanned diversion using FMS data. Use previous whiteboard example. The destination airport is closed no approach or missed approach due to extreme weather and the filed alternate is traffic saturated and is no longer excepting arrivals.

A
102
Q

Make appropriate diversion decision when fuel remaining is insufficient to safely complete the flight. What is the plan landing fuel for today’s flight? What can cause the SMS length your calculations to be in accurate?

A

Arrivals long down and legs. Wrong when we loaded in the FMS. Flying below the final altitude or above the plant TASS programmed in a progress pages. Wensloff don’t match the forecast/SMS inputs. EFC in whole page, different than actual hold exit time.

103
Q

You’re sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do? How do you verify that this action was effective?

A

Associated battery off. Verify using QRC, followed by QRH.

104
Q

You’re starting an engine and you noticed that the ITT is rapidly rising toward the ITT red line. What temperature is red line, and what do you do?

A

815°C. Affected engine start stop selector stop. Perform QRH.

105
Q

On taxi on the runway, the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do

A

Steer disc switch press. Steer the airplane using differential breaking and rudder.

106
Q

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit fills with smoke. What do you do? Where is this procedure located in the QRH, what section?

A

Oxygen mask……Don, emergency. Emergency crew communication established. Pressurization dump….push in. QRH S1–2.

107
Q

You’re flying cruise at flight level 350 when you hear the triple chime and see “cabin altitude high” on the EICAS. What do you do

A

Oxygen masks Don 100%. Crew communication establish

108
Q

You’re flying along and the auto pilot disconnects and the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of nose down control pressure. What do you do

A

A/P trim disc button press and hold. Pitch trim system one and system two cut out buttons push in

109
Q

You’re flying at cruise with the auto pilot disconnects after taking the flight controls you realize the aileron controls are jammed. What do you do?

A

Aileron disconnect handle…pull. Perform QRC, QRH.

110
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the auto pilot disconnects and the airplane starts pitching and banking to the right. You see on the EICAS that the yaw trim is deflected to the right. what do you do? What if it was the aileron trim?

A

ROLL OR YAW TRIM RUNAWAY

A/P trim disc button… press and hold. Same for aileron.

111
Q

The majority of commercial aviation accidents have been caused by what

A

Human factors, usually relating to breakdown in communicatind

112
Q

What four principal CRM skills is Skywest choosing to focus on

A

Communication, workload management, situational awareness, saturation management

113
Q

What’s three of the five CRM issues that are included in nearly every Skywest ASAP report.

A

1) Unable to manage distractions, and ability to recognize task saturation level.
2) Nonspecific WANT briefings that exclude key arrival procedure elements and go around/missed approach planning.
3) Briefing excludes key components preventing Crew from having a shared mental model. Especially during visual approaches I E when to configure, to turn base, etc.
4) Not holding other crewmembers accountable to the SOPM.
5) Passively allowing non-standard practices which often lead to issues.

114
Q

The FOM list four tools to mitigate distraction, explain two of them

A

1) Recognize a state Becoming distracted, verbalize the concern, and request help to reduce tasks actuation and increase awareness.
2) Use task prioritization to determine what can be delayed for a later time during a lower workload period.
3) Use good planning during low workload.’s to coordinate efficient efforts during high workload periods. 4) First officers maintain a state of readiness to assume delegate responsibilities, instructed by the captain

115
Q

Does the FOM require briefings to include anticipated distractions along with a plan of how to manage this threat? If so, who’s responsibility is it? I wonder if your evaluator will be listening for your plan to mitigate distractions during the LOE?

A

Yes. The captain is responsible debrief anticipated distractions. Yes your evaluator will be putting special emphasis on your mitigation strategies

116
Q

What is tunneling and how does it contribute to the loss of situational awareness?

A

Under stress, a pilot may focus on a single flight deck indicator and not notice other indications also relevant to the situation.

117
Q

What CRM skill is severely diminished during tunneling?

A
118
Q

what crm Skill is severely damaged during tunneling?

A

Situational awareness. Vigilance in problem identification lapses and ability to detect and manage threats is reduced

119
Q

What common error do pilots make during high work load situation in regard to personal ability

A

Overestimate personal ability to manage the workload and level of saturation. They may not even recognize the level of saturation.

120
Q

Name four common cues of task saturation observed through ASAP, LOSA, and FOQA. (7)

A
  1. Missed checklist items or entire checklist.
  2. Missed callouts.
  3. Missed ATC read backs.
  4. Misconfiguration changes.
  5. Abbreviated or omitted WANT briefings.
  6. Little or no communication.
  7. Lack of FMA correlation to intended mode.
121
Q

How many of the CRM issues that are included in nearly every Skywest ASAP report seen above are a potential result of task saturation?

A

Four out of five.

122
Q

Name the saturation condition that best describes when some errors or threats are ignored or undetected, task completion is marginal, situational awareness is come promised and flightpath management is deteriorating.

A

Yellow.

123
Q

What action should be Employed when is Pilot realizes they are in the yellow

A

Verbalize the condition. Follow the threat an error application model TEAM. Choose an appropriate level of automation, assess the criticality of the threat, and communicate a plan of action to return to a green level of saturation.

124
Q

What key component must be included in visual approach execution when the 10-7 contains EGPWS warning information?

A

Pilots follow the track and descent profile of an instrument approach procedure when conducting a visual approach at night.

125
Q

Can above mentioned be joined inside the final approach fix?

A

No join via vectors outside of the FAF/FAP or via IAF.

126
Q

OTS stands for what? What color is the information bar for OTS flights?

A

Out of service, red.

127
Q

If a discrepancy is written up in FlightView while in route, which airport would be selected, the departure or arrival airport?

A

Select the station where the maintenance process would be completed, in this case the destination.

128
Q

Does an entry into flight view eliminate the need to call in the discrepancy?

A

Yes so be sure the description is clear, concise, and sufficiently detailed.

129
Q

Is submitted discrepancy should immediately change the aircraft status to OTS. If the flight bar doesn’t turn red immediately what should you do?

A

Check your connectivity.

130
Q

If ACARS is inoperative can a weight and balance be calculated? Can this be used for departure?

A

Yes using the flight view manifest Apple it. This can be used for departure.

131
Q

Can the manifest applet be used if aerodata is unavailable or if there is no connectivity?

A

Yes.

132
Q

What additional requirement does acrew have when completing an off-line manifest prior to departure?

A

Off-line manifest requires a phone call to dispatcher prior to block out.

133
Q

Where can instructions for completing a manifest using the appleit be found?

A

FlightView user guide under the EFB iPad tile.

134
Q

Can takeoff numbers be accessed via ACARS if the aircraft is OTS?

A

Yes be careful this is not an indication that you are back in service

135
Q

Have you ever read the flight view users guide?

A
136
Q

The PIC reports mechanical irregularities to maintenance how?

A

 Via flight view, no phone call required unless there is no connectivity.

137
Q

When a mechanical irregularity is discovered after blocked out prior to takeoff. A flight is authorized to continue under what conditions

A

1) Maintenance irregularity, QRH procedure appropriate for situation, not an in-flight procedure. Pic will report this at the Flight completion.
2) Maintenance directed reset procedure or deferral. PIC reports immediately to maintenance and maintenance determines the action.

138
Q

When the PDC says climb via SID and the SIDS top altitude is flight level 230 but your filed altitude is 17,000, what altitude do you set the altitude alerter?

A

17,000 feet as this is the clearance limit.

139
Q

What does the SOPM require crews to do prior to the departure briefing with regard to the flight plan/FMS?

A

Both pilots visually cross check the flight plan by sequencing through each waypoint on the MFD PLAN PAGE. Simultaneously both Pilot verify waypoint names, sequence, speed restrictions, crossing altitudes inappropriate discontinuities through the TOD.

140
Q

Is it acceptable to accomplish the above individually?

A

No it must be accomplished simultaneously. Keeps both pilots accountable and confirms compliance with the SOPM.

141
Q

I wonder if this will be a point of emphasis on your CQ LOE.

A

Yes, definitely, along with checklist discipline, including starting over when a checklist is interrupted.

142
Q

Did the checklist need to be started over from the beginning when interrupted?

A

Yes.

143
Q

What altitude above touchdown zone requires the aircraft to be in final any configuration with the before landing check is complete, within +15 and -5 of the VAP, as well as on lateral and vertical profiles?

A

1000 feet height above touchdown.

144
Q

Considering above question, is it OK to continue as long as everything is done and stable by 500 feet height above touchdown

A

No, the pilot monitoring will direct a go around if any of the planned parameters are not met by announcing unstable go round.

145
Q

Reviewing the 10-7 charts for safety alerts is an optional part approach planning

A

No, including the WANT briefing a medication strategy for threats contributing to a high energy descent and/or unstable approach. SOPM stabilized approach criteria.

ERJ 175 KV (6 decks)

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