2020 MY KV Flashcards

Question 1

Q

External Walk Around

Why does the Emergency/Parking Brake need to be in prior to starting the external inspection? (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

Emergency/Parking Brake…ON

Determine there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to activate the Emergency/Parking Brake to check the Brake Wear Indicators.

For the brake wear indicators to be accurate, make sure that the hydraulic system has sufficient pressure and at the parking brake is on. The emergency parking brake is on hydraulic system one.

Question 2

Q

External Walk Around

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the Brake Wear Indicators? (AOM Vol. 2 Landing Gear and Brakes)

Answer

A

AOM Vol. 2 Landing Gear and Brakes. 14-13-05, 14-13-20, 14-13-20.

No, because some of it’s pressure could have been depleted. Check the hydraulic pressure to ensure it is green.

For the parking brake to be fully on, the accumulator has to be green.

Green equals sufficient pressure in the system.

Amber equals the emergency parking brake does not have sufficient pressure.

The emergency parking brake is on hydraulic system one.

“powered by hydraulic systems 1 and systems 2, the emergency/parking brake has pressure accumulators isolated from both normal hydraulic systems. The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide six full-brake applications”

Question 3

Q

External Walk Around

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walk around? (AOM Vol. 2 Hydraulic)

Answer

A

AOM Vol. 2 Hydraulic

Turn the switches Hydraulic system one and two ON, on the hydraulic panel from it’s position of AUTO and Set the parking break.

The emergency parking brake is on hydraulic system one.

activation of sys 1 AND 2 electric hydraulic pumps.

Question 4

Q

External Walk Around

On the external inspection, you notice that the air data proves are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot? (Ref. SOPM Ch. 4)

Answer

A

turn ADSP Heater ON to remove frozen contaminants.

Turn on ADSP probe heaters when outside air temperature is at or below freezing and water, ice or snow a present or suspected.

AIR DATA SMART PROBE (ADSP) HEATER-

When a parked aircraft has been exposed to freezing conditions, moisture can freeze inside the ADSPs and create an undesired indication on the ground, usually during the first power-up of the day. When airspeed indication is present in the PFDs, any or all of the following messages from the AFCS system may be displayed on the EICAS:
AFCS FAULT, AT FAULT, AP FAULT, FD FAIL, YD FAULT, APPR 2 NOT AVAIL. Air Data Systems (ADS) may be displayed on the EICAS also.:

On the first flight of the day, with temperatures below -18C (0F), or when the smart probes are frozen, accomplish the following procedure after AC POWER is established to the aircraft:

ADSP Heater Switch……ON
Flight Control PBIT………ACCOMPLISH
Verify the click on the Flight Control Synoptic page resets to 50 hours after the Flight Control PBIT is complete.

Question 5

Q

External Walk Around

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADSPs during the preflight? (Ref. SOPM CH. 4)

Answer

A

Below -18 Celsius on the first flight of the day.

Smart probes are frozen or contaminated.

Erroneous airspeed or incorrect info on the PFD.

Below 0°C with visible moisture.

Messages on EICAS telling you there’s an issue with the probes:
AFCS FAULT, AT FAULT, AP FAULT, FD FAIL, YD FAULT, APPR 2 NOT AVAIL. Air Data Systems (ADS) may be displayed on the EICAS also.

Question 6

Q

External Walk Around

Use the pictorial walk around- Describe the preflight action outlines in SOPM for the Nose Landing Gear. (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

NOSE LANDING GEAR
Wheel Chocks…..IN
Wheels and Tires…CONDITION, Clear of ice
Up Lock Hook….UNLOCKED downlock
Springs….CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Well/Doors…CONDITION/NO LEAKS
Ground locking pin……REMOVED
Landing and Taxi Lights….CONDITION, clean and undamaged

Question 7

Q

External Walk Around

What unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage?

Answer

A

The RAT (Ram air turbine) Is in the right Ford fuselage. It is deployed when AC power is not being supplied. After eight seconds:
It powers the AC essential bus, DC essential bus, standby essential bus. Minimum of 130 knots for the RAT to supply sufficient power. Rat can produce 15 kilo volts AC and 400 Hz.

Question 8

Q

External Walk Around

Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT. (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

RAT safety lock pin removed in the right is securely stowed.

RIGHT FORWARD FUSELAGE

Right Smart Probes/TAT Sensor/Ice Detector………..CHECK, Verify condition to ensure there are no instructions, covers, or damage. Free of ice and residual deice/anti-ice fluid when aircraft was deuces prior to preflight.

RAT Safety Lock Pin….REMOVED
FWD Service Door……………CHECK, when not I use visibly secured
Oxygen Discharge Indicator…..GREEN DISC
FWD Cargo Door…………….CHECK, when not in use visibly secured

Question 9

Q

External Walk Around

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM? (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

Check for damaged fan blades. Ensure the fan is free to rotate. Check for damage on spinner.

ENGINE 1 LH SIDE
All Protective Covers….REMOVE
Inlet….CONDITION, check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T12 Sensor and the FADEC Cooling Inlet is clear. Clear of ice and snow.
Fan Blades….CHECK, check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate, check for damage in spinner.
LH Nacelle Stake….CONDITION
Anti-ice Pressure Relief Door….CLOSED AND LATCHED
LH Fan Cowl Doors… CONDITION AND LATCHED
LH Trust Reverser…. CONDITION AND LATCHED
Core Pressure Relief Door….CLOSED
Turbine Exhaust….CLEAR AND NO LEAKS

After engine shutdown, the scavenge is no longer effective. A small amount of oil may leak through the aft sumo drain and pool in the engine chevron nozzle.
When the puddle size exceeds 4 inches contact maintenance

ENGINE 2 RH SIDE
RH Thrust Reverser….CONDITION AND LATCHED
RH Fan Cowl Doors…. CONDITION AND LATCHED
FADEC Cooling Vent…. CLEAR
RH Nacelle Strake…. CONDITION
Oil Fill Access Door….CLOSED

Question 10

Q

External Walk Around

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM? (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

Fan Blades….CHECK, check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate, check for damage in spinner.

Question 11

Q

External Walk Around

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine? (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

Yes,Each engine has two nacelle strakes. One on the left side and one on the right side.

LH Nacelle Stake….CONDITION

RH Nacelle Strake…. CONDITION

Question 12

Q

External Preflight

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing? (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

3 per side, but SOPM only has you check 2. Make sure they are pushed in and no leaks.

Right side:

Right Wing Leading Edge Surfaces….FREE OF FROST, ICE, OR SNOW
Wing Leading Edges….CONDITION
Refueling Compartment Door…. SECURED

Magnetic Level Indicators….PUSHED IN AND NO LEAKS, Verify RH2 and RH3 magnetic level indicators are ____

Access Doors and Panels….SECURED
Pressure Relief Valve….CHECK
Wing Vents….NO OBSTRUCTION
Navigation and Strobe Lights….CONDITION, clean and undamaged

Question 13

Q

External Preflight

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection according to the SOPM. (SOPM Preflight)

Answer

A

RIGHT LANDING GEAR
Right Main Gear....CHECK, clear of ice and unobstructed 
Wheels and Tires....CONDITION
Up Lock Hook....UNLOCKED
Down Lock Springs....CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Wells....CONDITION AND NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin....REMOVED
Brake Wear Indicators....CHECK

LEFT LANDING GEAR
Left Main Gear....CHECK, clear of ice and unobstructed 
Wheels and Tires....CONDITION
Up Lock Hook....UNLOCKED
Down Lock Springs....CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Wells....CONDITION AND NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin....REMOVED
Brake Wear Indicators....CHECK

Question 14

Q

External Preflight

How many brake wear indicators?

Answer

A

4 per side.

Question 15

Q

External Preflight

How many static dischargers are on the aileron? winglet? Rudder? Elevator? Vertical stabilizer? what document would you refer to regarding missing starting dischargers? (SOPM Preflight, CDL)

Answer

A

Each Aileron. 3 static dischargers
Each Winglet. 6 static dischargers
Rudder. 4 static dischargers.
Each elevator. 4 static dischargers.
Vertical stabilizer. 1 static dischargers.
Nose wheel. 1 static discharge her.

A grand total of 32 static dischargers.

CDL is in the back of AFM, EFB p 435

61-00 Static Dischargers- A maximum of 8 static dischargers May be missing with no penalty. At least the following dischargers are required to be installed. A) 5 on each winglet b) 2 on each aileron c) 3 on each elevator d) 4 on rudder/vertical stabilizer

Question 16

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

You’re sitting at the gate when BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do? How do you verify that the action was effective? Verify using WRC (SOPM Attachment 2), followed by (QRH EAP 5-1)

Answer

A

BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP

Associated battery…Off

Look at the QRC and verify you did the memory item correctly. Then go to QRH EAP 5-1 procedure. Do not start the APU. Verify the procedures affective on the electric synoptic page. Verify the battery temperature is going down.

EFB page: 124 on QRH, QRH EAP 5-1
After the QRC items are completed. QRH states: NOTE: DO NOT START APU. END.

Look at the electrical synoptic page- green operating line goes white. BATTERY OFF on EICAS.

Question 17

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

You’re starting an engine and notice that the ITT is rapidly risks f toward the ITT redline. What temperature is redline, and what do you do? (AIM1 CH2-40, SOPM CH2) (AOM 2-40) (QRH NAP 1-6)

Answer

A

Red line is 815°C. Do the memory item:
Engine abnormal start. Affected engine start/stop selector to stop.

Look at the QRC and verify that you did the memory item correctly. Then do QRH NAP 1-7.This will guide you to Drive motor the engine to cool down the ITT.

Engine temperature redline: AOM1 CH2-40. ITT: Max for start is 815C.

ENGINE ABNORMAL START
Affected Engine Start/Stop Selector….STOP

EFB: Page 75 on WRH. NAO 1-7.
After the QRC items are completed. QRH states:

Engine dry motoring considered?

Yes. Affected engine: ignition knob off, start/stop selector…start then run. Wait 30 seconds. Start/Stop selector…stop. Ignition knob auto.

No. If applicable: Transponder TA ONLY. One engine inoperative approach and landing (NAP 1-42) Procedure accomplish.

END

Question 18

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

On taxi to the runway, the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do? (STEERING RUNAWAY memory item) (SOPM ATTACHEMEBT 2) (QRH1-16)

Answer

A

STEERING RUNAWAY MEMORY ITEM

Do you remember the item:

Steer DISC Switch…PRESS
Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder.

Look at QRC and verified the memory item correctly.

Do QRH 1-16. NAP QRH 1-16. This is a non-annunciated procedure. It tells you to use differential breaking in water to steer the airplane.

Question 19

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling with smoke. What do you do? (SMOKE EVACUALTION memory item) Wher is this procedure located j the QRH, what section? (SOPM ATTACHMENT 2) (QRH S1-2)

Answer

A

Oxygen masks…Don, Emer
Crew Communication… Establish
Pressurization Dump….Push In

You find this: QRH EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PROCEDURES S1-1-TOC. Table of Contents. EFB p 57. SMIME EVACUATION S1-3. EFB PAGE 61.

Question 20

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the triple chime and see CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS. What do you do? (SOMP Attachment 2) (QRH 2-1)

Answer

A

CABIN ALTITUDE HI

Do you the memory item:

Oxygen masks….Don, 100%
Crew Communication…Establish

Look at the QRC and verified at the memory item correctly.

Then do you QRH EAP 2-1 Procedure. The cabin pressurization altitude will be RED. This procedure guide you to do an emergency descent.

QRH EMERGENCY AND ABNORMNAL PROCEDURES. Index by EICAS message. EAP0-1. EFB 125.

CABIN ALTITUDE HI QRH EAP 2-1. EFB p141.
EICAS: cabin altitude in red. Aural warning CABIN.

Oxygen masks....Don, 100%
Crew Communication...Establish
Altitude....10,000 ft or MEA, whichever is higher
Thrust Reversers...idle
Speed brake lever....full open
Airspeed....max/appropriate 
Transponder....7700
ATC...notify
Cabin altitude....monitor

CABIN ALTITUDE REACHES 14,500?
YES- masks deploy selector….OVRD
NO- at 10,000 ft or MEA, whichever is higher…. DUMP button PUSH IN

END.

Question 21

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconnects and the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of las down control oresssure. What do you do? (PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY) (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH NAP 1-15)

Answer

A

Do the memory item:

A/P DISC button…..Press and hold
Pitch trim SYS 1 &2 cutout buttons…push in

Look at the QRC and verify it in the memory item correctly.

Then do you QRH NAP 1-15 procedure. This procedure goes is it determine which HS- ACE is causing the problem.

QEH NAP 1-15. EFB P91.

After the above is complete:

A/P DISC button….release

WARNING: DO NOT OPEN THE SPEED BRAKE

PREPARE TO OVERCOME UNWANTED PITCH CHANGE:

Pitch trim SYS 1 cutout buttons…push OUT
Pitch trim switch….actuate

PITCH TRIM NORMAL?
YES- Note: Manual trim command through pitch trim switches is available at least one functional HA-ACE channel. With one HS-ACE channel available expect the following differences on the pitch trim indication on the the EICAS: Pitch trim readout display showing amber slashes, pitch trim scaled without the solid green pointer. END.

NO- Pitch trim SYS 1 cutout buttons…. PUSH IN. Pitch trim SYS 2 cutout buttons…push OUT.
NOTE: manual trim command through OITCH TRIM switches is available at least one functional HS-ACE channel.
With one HS-ACE channel available expect the following differences on the pitch trim indicating in the EICAS: OITCH trim readout display showing amber slashes, pitch trim scale without the solid green pointer.

Question 22

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Where is the battery temperature? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page(s) when troubleshooting a problem. (27.1 NG IAS Pilot Guide CH. 7-56)

Answer

A

On the synoptic page. Important to look at synoptic pages to diagnose issues correctly.

Question 23

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What CAUTION message will populate when the Associated Battery is selected off? (AOM CH 4-05-45)

Answer

A

AOM 2 q4-05-45, EFB p419.

BATT 1 OFF OR BATT 2 OFF. Amber Caution message.

Associated battery is isolated from network. I.e.
“BATT 1 OFF” Is used when only battery one is off. BATT 1 (2) OFF- QRH EAP 5-7.

BATT 1-2 OFF. Red warning message.

“BATT 1-2 OFF”Is used when both batteries are off. BATT 1-2 OFF QRH EAP 5-1.

Question 24

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start. (SOPM CH 4, ENGINE ABNORMAL START INDICATION)

Answer

A

SOPM p 123, Operating procedures.

a) No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 starts to increase.
b) During engine start with a tailwind, when a positive increase of N1 is. It indicated before starter cutout (50% N2). In this case, the airplane is repositioned prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
c) no its indication within 30 seconds ds after initiation of fuel flow.
d) ITT exceeds start limit (815C-HOT)
e) oil pressure stabilized below the engine limits
f) N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
g) an intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction occurs before started disengagement

SOPM 2, EFB p 29. GROUND START: when it is necessary to perform an engine start with a tailwind monitor N1 indication. When there is no positive increase is N1 indication before starter cutout (50% N2) the engine start must be manually aborted.

Question 25

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA-Demonstrate.

(QRH EAP 2-1)

Answer

A

Yes, We will do an emergency descent. We will descend down to 10,000 feet Or the MEA which ever is higher. You can find the MEA on the EFB Jeppesen low IFR enroute map. Ask ATC for MEA as you are declaring emergency.

Question 26

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What action does the SOPM require when the cabin altitude reaches 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

(SOPM Chapter 5.1.8, QRH EAP 2-1)

Answer

A

manually drop the masks… set MASKS DEPLOY selector knob to OVRD immediately.

Question 27

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent? (SOPM CH 5.1.8)

Answer

A

SOPM CH 5.1.8, EFB p 287.

FLCH mode is the recommended vertical mode due to airspeed and altitude protection, as well as low crew workload. Descend straight ahead or I rusticate a turn with maximum of 30 degree bank. It is recommended to start the turn before commencing the emergency descent. When the cabin reaches 14,599 ft or above, set the MASKS DEPLOY selector knob the OVRD immediately. During descent, perform the QEC. The flight profile must be monitored and TERRAIN set on MFD. at 1,000 ft to MEA or 10,000 ASL, close the speed brakes and reduce to an appropriate speed.

Question 28

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Is the PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY addressed in the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located?

Answer

A

YES. PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY MEMORY ITEM/QRC. QRH NAP 1-15)

Question 29

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a Pitch trim runaways? (QRH NAP 1-15)

Answer

A

Continuous turns helps to alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies. QRH NAP 1–15.

Question 30

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

When powering up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure? (AIM 1 3-05, SOOM CH4. Safety and Power Up)

Answer

A

SOPM CH2, efb p 28.

Min battery voltage: 22.5

Between 21 V and 22.5 V requires the recharge procedure in the SOPM.

Below 21 V will require a call to maintenance.

One or more battery voltages is less than 22.5 V:

Step 1: Determine lower battery voltage.
If battery voltage is between 21.0 and 22.5 volts…THEN recharge the batteries prior to takeoff, through any AC source (including engines during taxi) for:

Battery temp >=0C- 35 MIN
Battery temp >= -5C and <0C- 35 MIN
Battery temp >= -10C and

Question 31

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wake before APU start?

(AOM 3-95, SOPM CH 4 Safety and Power Up, (SOPM CH 2 APU limits)

Answer

A

SOMP CH2, efb p 30.

Wait 30 seconds after EICAS is energized to start the APU.

Verify there are no fire protection FAIL messages displayed on the EICAS before starting the APU.

Also ensure that there are no messages that prevent you from starting the APU. Example: APU FAIL :Amber Caution message.
APU FIRE DET FAIL: amber caution message.
APU FUEL SOV FAIL: amber caution message.

Question 32

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Can takeoff/landing occur with the “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message?

SOPM Ch 2 fuel

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2 EFB o 29

NOTE: it is permissible to takeoff and land with a FUEL IMBALANCE message as long as the fuel imbalance does not exceed 794 lbs.

Question 33

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

SOPM ch 2 fuel

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2 EFB p 29.

-37C

Question 34

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What us the starter cranking limit for start attempts 1 & 2

SOPM ch 2 engines power plant

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2, EFB p 26

GROUND

1&2: 90 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF.
3&5: 90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF.

FLIGHT

1&2: 120 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF.
3&5: 120 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF

NOTE: for ground starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 90 seconds (motoring plus start time)

NOTE: for flight starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds (motoring plus start time)

Question 35

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Minimum time between starts 1&2? How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

Answer

A

Soom ch 2, EFB 26.

SOPM ch 2, EFB p 26

GROUND

1&2: 90 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF.
3&5: 90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF.

FLIGHT

1&2: 120 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF.
3&5: 120 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF

NOTE: for ground starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 90 seconds (motoring plus start time)

NOTE: for flight starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds (motoring plus start time)

Question 36

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

During an engine stat, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2, EFB p 22.

N1 comes alive at 50% N2.

Question 37

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed for aircraft with a wingspan over 100’. What is the wingspan is the Erj 175?

Answer

A

SOPM ch2, EFB p 22

93 feet 11 inches

Question 38

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the max tailwind for takeoff?

Answer

A

SOPM ch2, efb p 23.

15 kts.

Question 39

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 30 kts?

Answer

A

SOPM 2, EFB p 26

NOTE: Due to engine compressor stall possibility, static takeoff is not recommended with crosswind component greater than 25 kts.

Question 40

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

Answer

A

SOPM ch2, efb p 22.

100 feet

Question 41

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is is a target or maximum speed?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2, EFB pb25

VB- 250 kts below 10,000 feet
Vb- 260/.76 (whichever is lower)above 10,000

If turbulence is encountered do not exceed the turbulent air penetration speed. This is a target speed. Vb is used to provide an optimum margin but between low and high speed buffet boundaries. FAR 25.335.

Question 42

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

An IDG fails in flight, and the QEH instructs you to start the APU. What is the maximum start altitude?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2, EFB p 30

Max APU START: 30,000 ft.

APU electrical generator use 33,000 feet.
APU engine start 21,000 feet.
APU bleed use 15,000 feet.

Question 43

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

If flying a CAT II approach, what flap settings g is required?

Answer

A

SOPM ch2

Flaps 5

Question 44

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the maximum wiper speed?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2 EFB o 25

250 kts. This is a Skywest limitation not an embraer limitation.

Question 45

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

true/false: do not attempt a fog Aron d after deploy emend of the thrust reversers?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2 EFB 31

TRUE

Question 46

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

True/false: we can use Rnav (GPS) minima?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 2 EFB p 33.

FALSE. RNAV (GPS) LO minima are not authorized.

Question 47

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of the approach and landing when the auto flight system is engaged? Why?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4, EFB 202

Guard the controls and throttle throughout all phases of approach, landing and rollout when the auto flight system is engaged. Be prepared to manually land or initiate a go around anytime it is considered necessary. Also we must be ready to take control if the automation is malfunctioning or not working properly.

Question 48

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Is it permissible to turn the Landing light off while on an approach in IMC If they pose a distraction?

Answer

A

SOPM ch4 EFB 202

Use of the external lights while in IMC May cause a distraction. The external log hit a may be turned off if conditions dictate and turned back on as required.

Question 49

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?

Answer

A

Soon ch 4 EFB 303

It is not recommended, it is mandatory. The PM is responsible for monitoring all phases of approach and must call out any observed discrepancies or deviations. The PF will respond with “CORRECTING”

Question 50

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the PM’s deviation call out with a descent rate> 1,000 fr/min on approach to landing?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4, EFB 203

“SINK RATE”

Question 51

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What magnitude of deviation from glide path requires a call out by PN? What is the SOPM call out?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB 303

Localizer and/or glide path deviation greater than one dot.

“LOCALIZER”

“GLIDEPATH”

Question 52

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

When are speed deviation call outs required on Approach to landing? What is the call out?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB 203

ABOVE: target speed + 10 KIAS. BELOW: target speed - 5 KIAS, or any speed less than Vref, whichever is higher.

Pilot monitoring says “SPEED”

Question 53

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What bank angle would be considered a deviation? What is the PM call out?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB 203

Bank angle in excess of 25 degrees.

“BANK”

Question 54

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the responsibility of the PM of the EGOWS fails to make call outs automatically?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4, EFB 203

EGPWS call outs not performed automatically by the airplane- OM performs the expected call outs. Ie “ONE THOUSAND” and 80’ to minimums…”APPROACHING MINIMUMS”…”MINIMUMS”

Question 55

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

It is critic to a safe operation. That pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB 202

By 1500 feet AGL or the FAF (which ever occurs later). Landing gear down. Airspeed no greater than 180 kts.

-1000 feet AGL or FAF (Which ever occurs later): Final landing configuration. Airspeed within +15 kts and -5 kts of target airspeed. On lateral profile. On vertical profile with minor bracketing maneuvers. Before landing checklist complete.

By 500 feet AGL. Air speed within the speed bug. Thrust setting above idle.

Question 56

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the maximum speed allowed above target approach at 1,000 ft? What would the Pm call out is the PF exceeds this speed?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB 203

Target speed + 15kts and -5 kts, “SPEED”

Question 57

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What is the latest position on the approach to plan for landing gear down? Is there a a planed speed stand this position as well?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB p 206

By 1,500 FT AGL/RA or FAF, whichever occurs later: landing gear down, airspeed no greater than 180 KIAS.

At 1,000 ft agl/RA: final landing configuration, BEFORE LANDING CHECKLIST complete, airspeed within +15 and -5 kt of target airspeed, on lateral profile, or vertical profile or correcting with minor bracketing maneuvers.

Question 58

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

What speed is mandatory by 500’ on approach to landing? What thrust setting?

Answer

A

Soom ch 4 EFB 207

By 500 ft AGL: Airspeed indication established with the confines of the speed bug, thrust setting above idle,

Question 59

Q

RECITE AIRCRAFT MEMORY ITEMS

If any of the planned parameters are. It met in the approach to landing at or below 500’ AGL what is the PM required to do?

Answer

A

SOPM ch 4 EFB 207

Reject: at or below 500 ft:AGL:RA Except for a momentary airspeed and descent rate deviations, the PM will direct a go around if any of the planned parameters are not met by announcing

“UNSTABLE, GO AROUND”

followed by the out of tolerance parameter

Ie “AIRSPEED”

Question 60

Q

PERFORM FUEL PLANNING-
REFERENCE KDEN - KABQ RELEASE

What does minimum fuel for takeoff include?

Answer

A

FAR 121.635. Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

Minimum fuel for takeoff includes enroute burn,
Go around/alternate (most distant), holding and reserve fuel.

MINTO fuel is: Enroute burn + go around + alternate + holding + reserve.

Question 61

Q

PERFORM FUEL PLANNING-
REFERENCE KDEN - KABQ RELEASE

What is the specific go around fuel value for the ERJ?

Answer

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

GA:ALT- each aircraft type has a specific go around fuel
ERJ 175– 700 lbs

Question 62

Q

PERFORM FUEL PLANNING-
REFERENCE KDEN - KABQ RELEASE

When an alternate is planned, the standard go around fuel is added to what fuel category in the dispatch release?

Answer

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

when no alternate is planned, the standard go around fuel specific to aircraft type is listed in “GA/ALT” section of fuel summary
When am alternate is planned, the standard go around fuel is added to the fuel required to fly to the most distant alternate and listed in the “GA/ALT” section of the fuel summary

Standard GA+ ALT fuel= GA/ALT

Question 63

Q

PERFORM FUEL PLANNING-
REFERENCE KDEN - KABQ RELEASE

Can go around fuel be reduced to meet weight restriction?

Answer

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

NO.

Note: go around fuel always included in MINTO and CAN NOT BE REDUCED.

Question 64

Q

PERFORM FUEL PLANNING-
REFERENCE KDEN - KABQ RELEASE

Planned fuel reserve is calculated at what speed and altitude?

Answer

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

Planned Reserve Fuel calculated at 45 minutes at 15,000 feet and a cruise speed of 250 KIAS. Planned reserve fuel is never less than these minimum values, erj175 is 2,450 lbs

2450 pounds is about 45 minutes of fuel.

Answer 65

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

45 minutes

Answer 66

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB p 10

Planned hold fuel calculated at planned landing weight and 10,000 feet above destination airport

15 minutes of holding fuel is about 650 pounds. 43 pounds per minute.

Answer 67

A

This indicates the average temperature deviation was 0° or ISA.

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB 11

Average wing and ISA deviation s used in planning. “0” on the club column indicated at the TOC was reached before the first point in the actual flight plan. Wind and temperature values were planned for but not printed on the release. If the AVG TMO DEV for CRZ is blank, this indicated the a wage temperature deviation is 0 or ISA

Answer 68

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB 13

Yes. Scheduled and estimated times of departure and arrival. Scheduled and planned blocked times.

STD schedule time departure. STA scheduled time of arrival. ETD estimated time of departure. ETA estimated time of arrival. These times are listed on the release just after the MEL section. They can be found in the computer flight plan section of the release.

Answer 69

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB 14

The MWL on thousands of feet, MWL is also the height of the tropopause (base)

Look at MWL on release for height of Tropopause. The temperature and wind very greatly in the vicinity of the tropopause affecting efficiency, comfort, and safety of Flight. Maximum winds generally occur at levels near the tropopause. The strong winds create narrow zones of wind shear which often generate hazardous turbulence. The tropopause is a thin layer forming the boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere. Height of the tropopause varies from about 65,000 feet over the equator to 20,000 feet or lower over the poles.

Answer 70

A

Dispatch Release guide explanation EFB 14

F/FLOW - Fuel flow per hour

Answer 71

A

FOM ch 5 EFB 93

ADIMWIT
Alternate. 
Departure and destination. 
IFR or VFR. 
Minto. 
MEL or CDL. 
Weather. 
ID of aircraft/tail number. 
Trip number or flight number.

The dispatch release must contain, or have attached to it, at least the following information

identification number of aircraft
trip flight number
departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports
statement of type of operation (IFR/VFR)
minimum fuel supply and..
weather reports, forecasts or combinations thereof: for the destination, intermediate and alternate airports that are the latest available at the time the dispatch release is accepted by the PIC and dispatcher. The dispatch release may include any additional weather reports or forecast the PIC or dispatcher considers necessary or desirable.
open MEL and/or CDL items on the DMI log as outlined in Chapter 6 Airworthiness.

Answer 72

A

FOM CH 5 EFB p

Call the dispatcher, have it amended and resent or if a paper release scratch out the name and AMEND it with acknowledgment from the dispatcher. Any authorized person that Amanda dispatch release records that amendment. On a paperless the PIC by striking through the entries at no longer apply and entering new information adjacent to the old entries. The dispatcher amend the release by typing a new/additional information in the remarks section of the release. When possible requested, a new paper copy/or electronica amended releases sent.

Answer 73

A

FOM CH 5 EFB p 94 8 (C)

The dispatcher issues a new dispatch release or amends a previously issued dispatch release when: C) before each flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than two hours

Two hours from schedule departure time or two hours from amended departure time on the release if there are delays.

Answer 74

A

FOM CH 5 section L. Go to this section and check.

A dispatcher issues a new dispatch release or amemds a previously issued release when:

Dispatch or PIC request a new release. A change in aircraft. More than a two hour delay. Unable to depart in accordance with the previous release. Flight return to the airport. Flight departs after making an unscheduled landing.

Answer 75

A

FOM CH 5 EFB p86 E

When the weather minimums at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums for the airport as shown in the Ops Specs, the release lists a take off alternate. For two engine aircraft, this alternate is one hour from the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Answer 76

A

1-2-3 rule:
Ceiling is below 2000 feet AGL or visibility is below 3 miles or any time the Destination has freezing rain or an RCC of 1 or 2 has been reported.

FOM CH 5 EFB p 86 E

3) each dispatch release under IFR lists at least one ultimate airport for each destination airport. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal, at least one additional must be specified. Marginal weather is defined as: anytime the weather conditions at the destination and first alternate is at or forecast to be, at the estimated time of arrival, equal to the lowest authorized minima for that destination and alternate airport.

4) NO alternate airport is required when, for at least one hour before and after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forcasts
, or any combination thereof, indicate that:
A) the ceiling will be at least 2000 feet above airport elevation and visibility for that airport is forecast to be at least 3 miles

5) in addition to the requirements listed above, an alternate airport is required when the destination airport meets any one of the following conditions:
A) airport is in Alaska and does not have more than one separate suitable runway authorized for the type of aircraft to be used
B) destination airport has no instrument approach available
C) freezing precipitation in forcast (I.e. FZDZ FZRA FZFG GR +SN)
D) RCC values less than 3

WHY ALTERNATE KELP? The alternate reason is in the remarks section of the release for WIND.

Answer 77

A

FOM CH 5 and 7; FAR/FOM Cross reference.

Answer 78

A

FOM CH 5; CFR 121.639

Second alternate.

Enough fuel to fly to the most distant alternate, then to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise. 45 minutes at 15,000 feet and 250 kn. Planned reserve fuel will never be less than 2450 pounds for the E1 75. FOM page 90 and FAR 121.639

Answer 79

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p 17

A special departure procedure tells us to turn below 1000 feet AGL OR the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires return below 1000 feet. FAR CROSS page 67 and 69.

Takeoff path- no turns shall be commenced below 1,000’ above field elevation. When the takeoff weather is less than 1,000’ ceiling and 3sm/5km visibility unless a Special departure procedure prescribes otherwise of the assigned instrument departure procedure specially requires a turn prior to reaching 1000’ AFE.

Answer 80

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p17

FRA for all takeoffs is 1,000 AFE U
unless a special procedure prescribed otherwise

Answer 81

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p 17

Engine failure altitude- IMC

Below 1000’ AFE- climb straight ahead to 1000’ AFE then commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed on runway analysis page using maximum bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. If NAVAID is listed, hold on the inbound radial using a direct entry and standard holding procedures, if a heading is listed, fly heading until maximum safe altitude is attained. Radar vectors may be accepted when available after reaching 1000’ AFE.

1000’ or more AFE- commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed on runway analysis page using maximum bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. If NAVAID is listed, hold on the inbound radial using a direct entry and standard holding procedures, if a heading is listed, fly heading until maximum safe altitude is attained. Radar vectors may be accepted when available after reaching 1000’ AFE.

Engine failure altitude-VMC

Below 1000’ AFE- climb straight ahead to 1000’ AFE. Return to land visually or complete IMC procedures.

1000’ or more AFE- Return to land visually or complete IMC procedure.

Answer 82

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p 17

SE- 17R. Heading. LT HDG 350. All single engine departures are changed to a heading if mode even if it is to a NAVAID.

Normal takeoff path- 17R. Spazzing Rnav departure, first fix is RAYDR above 10,000.

SkyWest Airlines Performance Handbook 2.1 general:takeoff path: NO turns shall be commenced below 1000 afe when the takeoff weather is less than 1000’ and 3sm/5km visibility unless a special departure procedure described otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specially required a turn before reaching 1000 afe. FRA for all takeoffs is 1000 afe unless a special procedure prescribes otherwise.

Answer 83

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p 17

-using maximum bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. Half a bank with SE below FRA, after flaps up half bank off= 30 degree banking turn

Answer 84

A

SOPM P 04-07, EFB 158.

For one engine inoperative, limit the bank angle to:
- 15 degrees at V2

20 degrees at V2+ 5 kts
25 degrees at V2+ 10 kts

Answer 85

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p 17

Hold inbound radial using direct entry, standard holding procedures, right turns.

At least 1000 AFE direct NAVAID, no NAVAID direct safe altitude and radar vectors

Answer 86

A

Performance Handbook 2.1 EFB p 17

Fly heading until minimum safe altitude is attained, radar vectors may be accepted when available after reaching 1000 feet AFE.

Answer 87

A

Performance Handbook 2.2 EFB p 18

The simple special procedure requires a turn to a NAVAID or heading before reaching 1000 feet above field elevation. The engine failure climb speed is only listed if it is different from standard engine failure profile. The engine failure initial heading or course is only listed if it is different from the runway heading.

Simple special: the simple special procedure differs from standard procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1000 afe. FRA remain 1000 afe unless otherwise specified in the FLAP RETRACT box. Simple special procedures are mandatory in IMC. They are also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1000 afe. The turn to the NAVAID or heading is to be made at the highest bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. In IMC and radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3000 afe at which time you may proceed on course as applicable.

SEE EXAMPLE TABLE ON THIS PAGE.

Answer 88

A

EFB>MANUALS>ERJ175>Runway Condition Decision Matrix

Thus diagram provides:
A) a systematic flow that represents current TALPA/RCAM FOM policy
b) Structure and promote communication with dispatcher
C) a guide to ensure all comments associated with a thorough runway assessments report considered during the preflight and arriv phases of flight.

Answer 89

A

EFB> MANUALS> Quick Reference Library > RCAM/Braking action table

Answer 90

A

SOPM CH 4 EFB 84

Outside air temperature 5°C or less,
or
Wing fuel temperature 0°C or less,
or
atmospheric conditions conducive to icing
or
aircraft exposed overnight to frost or precipitation
or
residual ice from inbound flight
or
cold soak ice is suspected in fuel tank area.

A cold weather preflight inspection must be performed by a flight deck crew member during the external inspection to determine the wings are free from frozen contaminates when:

OAT is 5 C or less, or
-the wing fuel temperatures 0C or less, or
the aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminates due to exposure to the frost or precipitation, which could involve the entire airframe, or
on any through flight where residual ice from
the inbound flight may have accumulated on the airframe surfaces or components, or
cold soak ice is suspected in the tank area

The leading edge and upper wing (tail?) surfaces must be free of ice and snow. A thin layer of hoarfrost is permitted in the fuselage provided that it is thin enough to distinguish surface features underneath , such as paintings and markings.

Note: a 3 mm (1/8 inch) frost layer is permitted on the underlying surfaces.

Answer 91

A

SOPM CH 2, operation in icing conditions efb 31

ENG is selected for anti- ice when:
outside air temperature is 5 to 10°C AND any visible moisture below 1700 FT AFE.
OR
Anytime operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways that have snow, ice, standing water, or slush.

ALL is selected for anti- ice when:
outside air temperature is less than 5C AND any visible moisture below 1700 FT AFE.
OR
Anytime operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways that have snow, ice, standing water, or slush.

A There is no temperature limitation for anti-icing system automatic operation.

On the ground:

The TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ENG in the following cases when OAT is from 5C and 10C and:

When there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700 feet AFE
When operating on ramps,taxiways or runways where the surface snow, ice, standing water or slush can be ingested in the engines or freeze on the engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

The TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ALL in the following cases when OAT is less than 5C:

When there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700 feet AFE
When operating on ramps taxiways or runways or the surface snow, ice, standing water or slush can be ingested in the engines, or freeze on engines, the nacells or engine sensor probes

Answer 92

A

SOPM CH 4 EFB 83

Engine inlet is clear of ice or snow and blades are free to spin

Assess the surface conditions of the ramp, freedom of N1 fan rotation, all ice is removed from air inlets.

Answer 93

A

SOPM CH 4 p 70

The electrical PBIT is automatically performed when an initial AC source is introduced. It takes three minutes to complete. Allow the electrical PBIT to finish before turning on any hydraulic pumps. Interruption of the electrical PBIT may result in a FLIGHT CONTROL NO DISPATCH caution EICAS message.

The test is interrupted when:
Any hydraulic pump is running
The flight control panel switches are pulled/cycled
The AC power is interrupted

Answer 94

A

SOPM CH 4 p 71

If the electrical P bit is interrupted and about to expire or has expired:
A) Power down the aircraft using the leaving the airplane checklist
B) Wait a minimum of one minute
C) Perform the power up procedure with the safety and power up checklist
D) Wait three minutes for the electrical p bit to run
E) Perform a hydraulic pbit when required

Answer 95

A

SOPM CH 4 p72

The hydraulic system warm up must be accomplished before starting the engines when reservoir temperatures are below -18°C.

The H-PBIT is performed with all three hydraulic systems are pressurized for at least one minute and the reservoir temperature is greater than 10°C.

(Check this procedure answer)

Hydraulic electric pump system 1,3…ON
PTU…ON
Wait 30 seconds….
PTU….AUTO
Hydraulic electric pump system 2….ON
Verify all reservoir temperatures warmed up to -18°C
Hydraulic electric pump system 1,2 …AUTO
Hydraulic electric pump system 3…OFF

Answer 96

A

AOM vol 2 EFB p 955

No. 120 seconds only.

You need 2 sources of AC power on the ground for the windshield heat to turn on. In the case of single AC source in-flight then only the left windshield will be powered. If the left windshield heat fails, the right windshield heat becomes available on the ground when a single AC power source is available. Each windshield heating controller performs a standard power up BIT routine. The standard power up BIT heats each windshield for 120 seconds/two minutes.

Answer 97

A

SOPM CH 4 EFB p 132

Maximum taxi speeds

Straight/dry…..30 kts

Straight/wet or contaminated… 10 kts

Turns/dry…10 kts

Turns/wet or contaminated..5 kts

Ground speed is shown as a green number in the lower left corner of the PFD.

Answer 98

A

AOM VOL 2 section 14-23, Ice and rain protection. EFB page 948.

Yes, we still have ice protection. In case of a duel ice detector failure the anti ice operation is only possible in the manual mode. When both ice detectors are failed the crew must set the MODE selector to ON when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. Icing conditions are: TAT of below 10° and visible moisture.

Abnormal operation-
Failure of one ice detector results in the loss of system redundancy. If an icing condition is detected by the remaining sensor, the engine wing anti-ice systems will automatically activate. In case of a duel ice detector failure, the anti-ice operation is only possible in manual mode.

Answer 99

A

SOPM CH 4 p258

Yes. When RCCs are reported, the most restrictive is controlling. In this case the RCC 3 will be used. When comparing contaminants on runways with differing RCC values, close attention to contaminate coverage percentages is important. only contaminants with percentages greater than 25% are considered for performance calculations. RCC 3 is considered contaminated and a max performance landing should be used. In addition- auto brakes should be medium and symmetrical breaking applied. Landing with tailwind is not recommended. To perform at max performance Landing:
Use a full flaps.
Cross the threshold at 50 feet AGL and at Vref. Avoid an extended flair.
Apply Max reverse thrust.
Reverse thrust may be used until you come to a complete stop.
Immediately after the main gear touches down apply for maximum manual breaking and hold pressure until you reach a safe taxi speed on runway.
Lower the nose wheel immediately.

Yes. Maximum performance landing employs a set of techniques leading to stopping the airplane with the least distance the following recommendations apply:
Use full flaps
Cross the threshold at a height of 50 feet and the Vref
Avoid extended flare
Apply maximum thrust reverse

When necessary, the thrust reverser’s may be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop. Immediately after the main landing gear has touchdown, apply firm and steady maximum manual breaks and hold pedal pressure until the aircraft decelerates to a safe taxi speed with the nose gear lower immediately.

Answer 100

A

GDPM CH 4, p 50

See Pre-take off check

Vs.

See GDPM chapter 4 EFB page 51 pre-takeoff contamination check.

A pre-takeoff check is a check of the Aircrafts representative surface for frozen contaminants. This check is conducted within the aircraft HOT. Just prior to takeoff and may be made by observing representative surfaces from whichever vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

A pre-take off contamination check is a check conducted AFTER the HOT has been exceeded. To ensure the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces must be free of all frozen contaminants. This check must be completed within five minutes prior to departure. It is done from inside the main cabin. It is also required when taking off and heavy snow.

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