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ERJ 175 KV > 2020 IP KV > Flashcards

2020 IP KV Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the emergency parking brake need to be on prior to starting external inspection?

A

To check the brake wear indicators

SOPM preflight

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on does this guarantee that there are sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the brake wear indicators?

A

No

AOM volume two landing gear and brakes

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3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes how can it be restored prior to the external walk around?

A

Activation of system 1 and system 2 electric hydraulic pumps

AOM volume two hydraulic

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4
Q

On the external inspection you notice that the air data smart probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

Turn the ADSP heater switch to on to remove frozen contaminants SOPM chapter 4

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5
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADPS during the preflight.

A

Outside air temperature is at or below freezing and water, ice, or snow is present or suspected… On the first flight of the day with temperatures below -18°C, smart probes frozen, erroneous airspeed indication’s present on the PFD with any or all of the following messages displayed on EICAS: AFCS FAULT, AT FAIL, FD FAIL YD FAIL APPR 2 NOT AVAIL, any other ADS messages displayed on the EICAS

SOPM chapter 4

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6
Q

Use the pictorial walk around. Describe the preflight action outlined in the SOPM for the nose landing gear.

A

Wheels and tires. Condition. Clear of ice.

Unlock hook unlocked.

Down lock springs condition.

Strut/wheel well/doors condition and no leaks.

Ground locking pin Removed.

Landing and taxi lights condition clean and undamaged.

SOPM preflight.

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7
Q

What do unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of the rat.

A

Rat, rat safety lock pin removed. SOPM preflight

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8
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the engine inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside the air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T12 sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear. Describe the location and normal appearance of the T12And the FADEC cooling inlet.

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9
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the fan blades according to the SOPM?

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate. Check for damage on the spinner. SOPM preflight.

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10
Q

Are there nacelle streaks on both sides of the engine?

A

Yes. SOPM preflight

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11
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?

A

Three. However we inspect only two.

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12
Q

Describe the main landing gear inspection according to the SOPM.

A

Wheels and tires condition.

Up lock hook unlocked.

Down lock springs condition.

Strut/wheel wells condition and no leaks.

Ground locking pin removed.

Break ware indicators check.

SOPM preflight.

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13
Q

How many static dischargers are on the aileron? Winglet? What document would you refer to regarding missing static dischargers?

A

Aileron. 3 static dischargers.
Winglet. 6 static dischargers.

CDL is in the back of AFM. EFB p 435.

61-00 static dischargers- A maximum of eight static dischargers may be missing with no penalty. At least the following discharges are required to be installed:

5 on each winglet. 2 on each aileron. 3 on each elevator. 4 on rudder/vertical stabilizer.

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14
Q

You are sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do you? How do you verify that this action was effective?

A

Associated battery off. Verify using QRC.

Followed by QRH 5-1.

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15
Q

You’re starting an engine and noticed that the ITT is rapidly rising toward the ITT red line. What temperature is redline, and what do you do?

A

81 5°C. Affected engine start/stop selector stop. QRC, perform QRH NAP 1-6.

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16
Q

On taxi to the runway the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do?

A

Steer DISC switch… press. Steer the airplane using differential breaking and rudder. SOPm. attachment two. QRH 1-16.

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17
Q

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling with smoke. What do you do?

A

Oxygen masks… Don. EMER crew communication…establish. Pressurization dump… push in.

SOp.m. attachment two, QRH 1-2.

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18
Q

You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the triple chime and see CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS. What do you do?

A

Oxygen masks… Don, 100%
Crew communication…establish.

SOPM attACH 2, Qrh 2-1.

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19
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the auto pilot disconnects in the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of nose down control pressure. What do you do?

A

A/P disc button…. press and hold.
Pitch trim SYS one and two cut outs buttons … push in.

SO p.m. attachment to, QRH NAP 1- 15.

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20
Q

Where is the battery temperature red? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page(s) when troubleshooting a problem.

A

Battery temperature is right on the electrical synoptic page.

27.1 NG IAS Pilot guide CH. Seven Dash 56.

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21
Q

What CAUTION Message will populate when associated battery is selected off?

A 
BATT 1 (2) OFF
AOM2 14-05-45
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22
Q

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to increase.

No N1 before starter cut out (50% N2).

No ITT within 30 seconds after initiation a fuel flow.

ITT exceeds start limit (815°C-HOT).

Oil pressure stabilizes below engine limits.

N1 and/or N2 Failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start).

An intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.

SOPM chapter 4 engine start, abnormal engine start indication.

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23
Q

Will a CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA demonstrate?

A

Yes, according to QRH EAP 2-1, 10,000 feet or MEA which ever is higher. MEA is represented on the in route chart.

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24
Q

What action does the SO p.m. require when the cabin altitude riches 14,500 feet on an emergency descent?

A

Select OVRD on the passenger oxygen mask deploy selector.

SOPM CH. 5. 1. 8 and QRH EAP 2-1.

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25
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

Terrain must be set on the MFD. SOPM CH. 5. 1. 8..

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26
Q

Is the pitch trim runaway addressed by the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located?

A

Yes. QRH NAP 1-15.

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27
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a pitch trim runaway?

A

Follow QRH NAP 1-15, Continuous turns help alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies.

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28
Q

When powering up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure?

A

22.5 V. If voltage is between 21 V to 22.5 V.

AOM 1 3-05, SOPM CH 4 Safety and power up.

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29
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?

A

After verifying there are no fire protection feel messages.

AOM1. 3- 05, SOPM chapter for safety and power up.

30 seconds after EICAS is energized.

SOPM chapter 2 APu limits.

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30
Q

Can take off/landing occur with the fuel imbalance EICAS message?

A

Yes, as long as it’s less than 794 pounds. SO p.m. chapter 2 fuel.

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31
Q

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37°C. SO p.m. chapter 2 fuel.

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32
Q

What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts one and two?

A

90 seconds. SO p.m. chapter 2 engines power plant.

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33
Q

Minimum time between starts one and two?

A

10 seconds. SO p.m. chapter 2 engines power plant.

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34
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

For in-flight starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds (motoring plus start time). SO p.m. chapter 2 engines power plant.

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35
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

Positive N1 by 50% N2. SO p.m. chapter 2 engines power plant

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36
Q

A taxi way is NOTAM’d Closed to aircraft with a wing span over 100 feet. What is the wingspan of the ERJ 175?

A

Wing span of 93 feet and 11 inches. SOPM chapter 2 structural dimensions.

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37
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component allowed for takeoff?

A

15 kts. SO p.m. chapter to Max altitude and temperature limits.

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38
Q

Are static take offs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 30 kts?

A

No, due to engine compressor stall possibility. SOPM chapter 2 maximum recommended crosswind.

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39
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

A

100 feet. SO p.m. chapter 2 structural limitations.

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40
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?

A

VB 270/.76mWhich ever is lower. It’s a target speed. SOPM chapter 2 speed limits.

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41
Q

In IDG fails in Flight, and the QRH instruct you to start the APU. What is the maximum start altitude?

A

30,000 feet. SOPM chapter APU operational limits.

42
Q

Flying a CAT II Approach, what flap setting is required?

A

Flaps five is mandatory. As a PM chapter 2 flight controls.

43
Q

What is the maximum wiper speed?

A

V wiper ops max=250 kts. SO p.m. chapter 2 speed limits.

44
Q

True/false. We can use our RNAV GPS LP minima.

A

False. SOPM chapter 2FMS limitations.

45
Q

True/false. Do not attempt a go around after deployment of the thrust reversers.

A

True. No.

SOPM chapter 2 thrust reversers.

46
Q

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of approach and landing when the auto flight system is engaged? Why?

A

Yes, the pilot must be prepared to manually land or initiate a go around anytime it is necessary. SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

47
Q

Is it permissible to turn the landing lights off while on it and approach in IMC see if they pose a distraction?

A

Yes. SOPM chapter 4 approach conduct.

48
Q

Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?

A

NO it is mandatory.

SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

Not “recommended”…mandatory

49
Q

What is the pilot flying’s verbal response after immediately fixing a deviation on approach to landing?

A

Correcting. SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

50
Q

What is the pilot monitoring’s deviation call out with a decent rate greater than 1000 ft./min. on approach to landing?

A

Sink rate. SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

51
Q

What magnitude of deviation from the glidepath requires a call out by the pilot monitoring? What is the SOPM call out?

A

> 1 dot, glidepath. SO p.m. chapter for approach conduct.

52
Q

When are speed deviation call outs required on approach to landing? What is the call out?

A

Target -5, or any speed less than Vref, which ever is higher, SPEED. SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

53
Q

What bank angle is considered a deviation? What is the pilot monitoring call out?

A

> 25 Degrees, bank. SO p.m. chapter for approach conduct.

54
Q

What is the responsibility of the pilot monitoring if the EGPWS fails to make a call out automatically?

A

Performed expected call outs. SO p.m. chapter for approach conduct.

55
Q

It is critical to safe operation that pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude.

A

1000 feet. SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

56
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed above target on approach at 1000 feet? What was the pilot monitoring call out if the pilot flying exceeds the speed?

A

+15. Speed. SO p.m. chapter for approach conduct.

57
Q

What is the latest position on approach to plan for landing gear down? Is there a plan speed at this position as well?

A

By 1500 feet or the final approach fix which ever occurs later. Yes, 180 Kias.

SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

58
Q

What speed is mandatory by 500 feet on approach to landing? What thrust setting?

A

Air speed within the bug. Thrust above idle. SO p.m. chapter 4 approach conduct.

59
Q

If any of the planned parameters are not met on approach to landing at or below 500 feet AGL, what is the pilot monitoring required to do?

A

Direct a go around. SOPM chapter for approach conduct.

60
Q

What does minimum fuel for the takeoff include? FAR 121. 639.

A

Enroute burn. Go round/Alternate (most distant). Holding. Reserve. Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.02.

61
Q

Release fuel Includes MINTO plus what?

A

Taxi outs and contingency fuel. Dispatch release explanation guide P. 01. Two

62
Q

What is a specific go around fuel value for the ERJ?

A

700 pounds. Dispatch release explanation guide P. 01. Four

63
Q

When an alternate is planned, the standard go around fuel is added to what fuel category on the dispatch release?

A

Added to fuel required to fly is the most distant alternate, GA/ALT.

Dispatch release explanation guide P. 01. 4

64
Q

Can go around fuel be reduced to meet a weight restriction?

A

No, go around fuel is part of MINT0 and can not be reduced. Dispatch list exclamation guide P. 01. Four

65
Q

Planned reserve fuel is calculated at what speed and altitude?

A

250 KIAS and 15,000 feet. Dispatch release explanation guide p. 01. Four

66
Q

What duration as planned reserve fuel designed to achieve?

A

45 minutes. Dispatch release explanation guide P. 01. Four

67
Q

If the AVG TMP DEV for CRZ is blank, What does this indicate?

A

The average temperature deviation was zero, or ISA. Dispatch release explanation guide P. 01. Five

68
Q

Does a dispatch release list both scheduled an estimated times of departure and arrival?

A

Yes. Dispatch release exclamation guide p.Zero one. Seven

69
Q

The maximum wind level MWL listed on the flight release is also the height of what?

A

Tropopause. Dispatch release explanation guide P. 01. Eight

70
Q

Is there anyway you can determine how much fuel you are projected to burn per hour for this flight?

A

Reference flight plan section of the release. Reference dispatch release explained.

71
Q

Have a crewmember locate each item that is required to be listed on the flight release. Consider having each crewmember alternate answers.

A

Identification number, trip or flight number, departure/intermediate/ destinations/alternate airports, type of operation, minimum fuel supply, weather reports and forecast for all airports, open MEL/CDL items. Reference FOM chapter 5.

72
Q

You noticed that one of the flight attendants names listed on the release does not match your current crew. Give at least two ways you can amend the release?

A

Contact dispatch, they will send an updated released your EFB, once reloaded it must be verified it verified on the amended release prior to block out. With no connectivity a strikethrough the old name that no longer applies, enter the new name adjacent to the old entry: obtain a new copy of the amended release; request an electric amendment through aCARS. Reference FOM chapter 5.

73
Q

What is the latest time you can push back from the gate without amending this release?

A

Two hours past proposed departure time. Reference FLM chapter 5.

74
Q

If you are uncertain about whether a situation required an amendment to an a release, how could you verify using your EFB?

A

Reference FOM chapter 5 section L. Original dispatch re-release, or amendment.

75
Q

When is it takeoff alternate required?

A

Visibility at the time of departure will be below the lowest landing minimums. Reference 14 CFR part 121.617, FOM chapter 5.

76
Q

Explain when a Destiination alternate is required. Why is there an alternate listed for this flight?

A

123 rule. Freezing precipitation currently are being reported or forecasted at Destination. Usable runways a Destination are reporting RCC values less than three. Destination airport has no instrument approach available. Reference 14 CFR part 121.6 19FOM chapters 5 chapter 7

77
Q

If you cannot recall all of the conditions that require a Destiination alternate, where can you find these requirements using your EFB?

A

SOM chapter 5 and chapter 7, FAR/FOM cross reference.

78
Q

If you have both a Destiination and second alternate listed on the release, which one is used by the dispatcher to determine your FAR reserve fuel?

A

Most distant alternate. FM chapter 5, 14 CFR part 121. 639

79
Q

If weather is below 1000 feet ceiling and three statute miles visibility, what two conditions permit a turn at less than 1000 feet above field elevation?

A

Special departure requires it. Or the assigned instrument procedure requires it. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.1 general/takeoff path

80
Q

Flapper traction altitude FRA is 1000 feet AFE unless what?

A

A special procedure prescribes otherwise. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.1 general/takeoff path.

81
Q

With regard to standard engine failure take off path, if an engine failure occurs below 1000 feet AFE on takeoff, what altitude would you climb to before turning to a heading or NAVAID as listed on the release?

A

1000 feet. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.1 general/take off path

82
Q

Based on the preceding question, if attorneys required, what bank angle would be used?

A

The maximum bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.1 general/takeoff path

83
Q

What is the one engine in operative bank angle limit at V2?

A

15°. SOMP p .04 Dash 08

84
Q

With regard to standard engine failure takeoff path., If a NAVAID is listed, upon reaching the NAVAID what is the crew expected to do?

A

Hold on the inbound leg using a direct entry and standard holding procedures. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.1 general/take off path

85
Q

With regard to standard engine failure take off path, if a heading is listed, how long/far do you remain on that heading?

A

Until a minimum safe altitude is attained. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.1 general/take off path

86
Q

With a simple special procedure, or engine failure climb speeds and initial headings or courses always listed in the procedure?

A

No, speeds are only listed when non-standard and courses in headings are listed only when different than runway alignment. Skywest airlines performance handbook 2.2 take off

87
Q

Where would a crew find a systematic flow that represents current TALPA/RCAM and FOM policies?

A

ESP. Manuals. ERJ 175. Runway condition decision matrix.

88
Q

Where is the RCAM/braking action table located?

A

EFB. Manuals. Quick reference library.

89
Q

Give at least two atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather inspection.

A

Outside air temperature is 5°C or less, Wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less, conditions conducive to icing exist, RON and may have frozen contaminants, through Flight with residual ice from inbound flight, cold soaked ice suspected and the fuel tank. SOPM chapter 4.

90
Q

When would the Pilot select A/I to ALL?

A

Outside air temperature is less than 5°C in when there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700 feet AFE.

When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or/may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes. As a PM chapter 2 operation and icing conditions.

91
Q

What must be verified on exterior of the aircraft with a spec to the engine, prior to engine start during cold weather operations?

A

Ensure engine fan blades are free to rotate. SOPM chapter 4.

92
Q

After establishing AC power, the captain notices that the electrical PBIT was never initiated. What would prohibit it from running?

A

Any hydraulic pump running, the flight control mode panel switches are cycled, the AC power supply is interrupted. SPM chapter 4.

93
Q

What would be an appropriate action by the crew should the electrical PBIT fail to run?

A

Check the PBIT remaining time on the MFD Flight controls synoptic page, and consider performing a power down/power up procedure. To help ensure a successful test on the subsequent power up, turn the ADSP heater switch on for three minutes, power down for at least a minute, and then reestablish AC power Normally. SOPM chapter 4

94
Q

When is a hydraulic warm up test required?

A

Hydraulic reservoir temperature below -18°C. SOPM chapter 4

95
Q

Assuming a single engine taxi with the APU off, will he be applied to the windshield?

A

No. Initially with one source of AC power, the windshield heat controller will perform at standard power up BIT routine heating the corresponding windshield for 120 seconds and then turn off. To ensure the windshields are heated beyond this 120 seconds, Two sources of AC must be to use. AOM volume two.

96
Q

What is the maximum speed while taxing straightahead on a contaminator taxiway? Where is your ground speed shown?

A

10 kn. Speed is shown on the PFD bottom left. SOPM chapter 4.

97
Q

If both ice detector probes fail do we have ice protection? If so how?

A

Yes. When flying on icy conditions you can turn the ice protection mode selector to on. AOM volume two.

98
Q

When is the runway considered to be contaminated?

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (weather in isolated areas or not), within the reported length and the width being used, is covered by more than 1/8 inch (3 mm) of standing water or it’s equivalent and slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of ice or compacted snow. DPM chapter 7.

99
Q

With a runway RCC value of 4/4/3 listed on the current ATIS, should we utilize the maximum performance landing technique? If so what is the this consisting of?

A

Use FULL flaps ,cross the threshold at screen height of 50 feet and VREF. Avoid extended flair, apply maximum thrust reverse. When necessary, with thrust reversers may be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop. Immediately after the main landing gear wheels have touchdown, apply firm and set a maximum manual brakes and hold pedal pressure until the airplane decelerates to a safe taxi speed within the runway. Lower nose real immediate. SOPM chapter 4.

100
Q

What is the difference between a pretakeoff check and a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

Pretakeoff check. Anytime deice/anti iced And HOT is established to ensure critical surfaces remain free of frozen contaminants.

Pretakeoff contamination check. Performed to ensure the aircraft critical services are free frozen contaminants prior to takeoff when the HOT has been exceeded or is no longer valid due to changing weather or operations and heavy snow. GDPM chapter 4.

ERJ 175 KV (6 decks)

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