CPT S6 Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

An autoimmune multi-system disease
Initially localized to the synovium
Cytokine involvement in inflammatory changes
Hyperplasia and proliferation of synovium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give some diagnostic features of RA

A
Morning stiffness of more than one hour
Arthritis of three or more joints
Involvement of hand joints
Symmetry
Rheumatoid nodules
Serum rheumatoid factor
X-ray changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some important factors to remember when considering a diagnosis of RA?

A

Need to eliminate cancer first
It’s a clinical diagnosis rather than one dictated by test results
Not all symptoms must be present to diagnose as many are late-stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the basic pathogenesis of RA?

A

overexpression of pro-inflammatory genes in comparison to anti-inflammatory genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the treatment goals for RA?

A

Symptomatic relief

PREVENTION OF JOINT DESTRUCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the treatment strategies for RA?

A
Early use of disease-modifying drugs
Use of combinations of drugs
Use of adequate doses
Aim to achieve good disease control quickly
Avoid use of long-term corticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the treatment goals in SLE and vasculitis?

A

Symptomatic relief
Mortality reduction by induction of disease remission the maintenance
Prevention of organ damage
Reduction in long term morbidity caused by disease and drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give some examples of immunosuppressants

A
Corticosteroids
Azathioprine
Ciclosporin
Tacrolimus
Mycophenolate mofetil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give some examples of other disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

A
Methotrexate (best)
Sulphasalazine
Anti-TNF agents (expensive)
Rituximab
Cyclophosphamide (cytotoxic though)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is Azathioprine used in practice?

A
Maintenence therapy in SLE & vasculitis
Rarely in RA
IBD
Bullous skin disease
Atopic dermatitis
As a 'steroid sparing' drug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the problems with Azathioprine?

A

Metabolized by TPMT, an extremely polymorphic gene, so need to test levels before prescribe because patients can develop myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give some azathioprine ADRs

A

Bone marrow suppression (so monitor FBC)
Increased risk of malignancy (as with all immunosuppressants)
Increased risk of infection
Hepatitis (so monitor LFTs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do ciclosporin & tacrolimus have their effect?

A

Both calcineurin inhibitors

So prevent IL-2 production by T-helper cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?

A

Inhibits monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme required for guanosine synthesis
This impairs B and T-cell proliferation but spares other rapidly dividing cells due to guanosine salvage pathways presence in other cell types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give some ADRs for mycophenolate

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Myelosuppression (not as bad as azathioprine
Metallic taste
May require monitoring
Toxicity more likely in renal and hepatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is mycophenylate used in practice?

A

Primarily for transplantation

Lupus Nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide?

A

Alkylating agent - crosslinks DNA to prevent replications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some indications for cyclophosphamide?

A
Lymphoma
Leukaemia
Lupus nephritis*
Wegener's granulomatosis
Polyarteritis nodosum
*May not be as good as mycophenolate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the actions of cyclophosphamide?

A

Extremely strong anti-inflammatory

suppresses B and T cell activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some ADRs for cyclophosphamide

A

May cause haemorrhagic cystitis
Renal excretion so adjust dose in renal impairment
Increased cancer risk
Infertility
Requires FBC monitoring
May not be the best drug for lupus nephritis and vasculitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?

A

For malignancy, it works as an anti-folate, but the mechanism of action is unknown in non-malignant disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is methotrexate used for?

A

Gold standard for RA
Psoriasis
Crohn’s
Unlicensed for: inflammatory myopathies, vasculitis maintenance, steroid-sparing agent in asthma

23
Q

Give some ADRs for methotrexate

A
Mucositis
Myelosuppression
Hepatitis
Cirrhosis
Pneumonitis
Increased infection risk
Highly teratogenic
Abortifacient
WEEKLY NOT DAILY DOSING
24
Q

What toxicity monitoring is required for methotrexate?

A

Baseline CXR
Baseline FBC, LFT, U+Es, creatinine
Followed by regular (eg monthly) FBC, LFT, U+E

25
Give some actions of sulphasalazine
``` T cell inhibition of proliferation T cell apoptosis Inhibition of IL-2 production Reduced neutrophil chemotaxis Reduced neutrophil degranulation ```
26
Give some ADRs for sulfasalazine
``` Myelosuppression Hepatitis Rash Nausea Abdominal pain Vomiting ```
27
Give some positives for sulfasalazine
``` Safe in pregnancy Effective Favourable toxicity Long-term blood monitoring may be unnecessary Very few drug interactions Not a carcinogen ```
28
What are the effects of blocking TNF-alpha?
Inhibition of the cytokine cascade Inhibition of leukocyte recruitent Inhibition of elaboration of adhesion molecules Reduced production of chemokines Reduced angiogenesis due to reduced VEG-F and IL-8 levels Reduced joint destruction due to reduced destructive enzyme release
29
What is the stepwise management of asthma in adults?
``` Step 1: mild intermittent asthma Step 2: regular preventer therapy Step 3: add-on therapy Step 4: persistent poor control Step 5: continuous or frequent use of oral corticosteroids ```
30
What is prescribed for each step in the stepwise management of asthmatic adults?
1: Inhaled SABA as required 2: Inhaled corticosteroid 3: Inhaled LABA 4: Increased inhaled corticosteroid dose or addition of a fourth drug (leukotriene antagonist, SR theophylline) 5: Oral corticosteroids
31
Describe good asthma control
``` Minimal symptoms Minimal need for reliever medication No exacerbations No limitation of physical activity Normal lung function (FEV1 &/or PEFR>%predicted ```
32
What should be done before initiating a stepping up of asthma control?
Check compliance with current therapies Check inhaler technique Eliminate trigger factors
33
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of asthma
Th2-driven inflammation leads to: - Mucosal oedema - Bronchoconstriction - Mucus plugging - Bronchial hyperresponsiveness - (Potentially) Airway remodelling
34
Give examples of SABAs
Salbutamol | Terbutaline
35
What are the actions and mechanisms of SABAs?
Reversal of bronchoconstriction Prevention of bronchoconstriction Acts on bronchial smooth muscle to cause relaxation
36
Why should SABAs not be used regularly?
Results in poor asthma control | Due to reduced inhibition of mast cell degranulation in response to allergens
37
Give some side effects of beta 2 agonists
Tachycardia Palpitations Tremor
38
What are the actions of inhaled corticosteroids?
``` Improved symptoms Improved lung function Reduced frequency of exacerbations Prevention of death Due to reduced inflammation ```
39
Give examples of corticosteroids used in asthma
Beclomethasone Fluticasone Budesonide
40
Give examples of LABAs used in asthma
Formoterol | Salmeterol
41
Can LABAs be prescribed alone?
No. They are not anti-inflammatory alone, and MUST be prescribbed with steroids. Failure causes increased incidence of exacerbations and deaths.
42
How do Leukotriene receptor antagonists work?
Reduced LTC4 release by mast cells and eosinophils. | LTC4 can induce bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion and mucosal oedema, and promote inflammatory cell recruitment.
43
Give some ADRs of LRAs
``` Angioedema Dry mouth Anaphylaxis Arthralgia Fever Gastric disturbance ```
44
Give the mechanism of action of methylxanthines
We don't really know | Could be phosphodiesterase of adenosine receptors
45
Give some examples of methylxanthines
Theophylline (PO) | Aminophylline (IV)
46
Give some methylxanthine ADRs
``` Narrow therapeutic window Nausea Headache Reflux Toxic compilcations; arrhythmias, seizures Many interactions ```
47
Give some ADRs for LAMAs
Dry mouth Urinary retention Glaucoma
48
Give some examples of LAMAs
Tiotropium | Ipratropium
49
What are the clinical uses of LAMAs?
Mainly COPD Can be used in step 4 or 5 of asthma control too Reduces exacerbations in both
50
Give some signs of severe acute asthma in adults
Any one of: - Unable to complete sentences - Pulse >110b/m - Respiration rate >25/m - Peak flow 33-50% predicted
51
Give some features of life-threatening asthma
``` PEF 4.5kPa Silent chest Cyanosis Feeble respiratory effort Hypotension Bradycardia Arrhythmia Exhaustion Confusion Coma ```
52
Give some features of near-fatal asthma
PaCO2 >6kPa | Mechanical ventilation
53
What is the treatment of severe acute asthma?
``` High flow O2 - aim for >94% sats Nebulized salbutamol Oral prednisolone 40mg for 10-14 days Can add nebulized ipratropium if poor improvement Consider aminophylline if no improvement ```